Trending ▼   ResFinder  

CTET Exam - DEC 2019 : Paper 1 (Main)

56 pages, 210 questions, 0 questions with responses, 0 total responses,    1    0
CTET
Central Teacher Eligibility ...,  Delhi 
+Fave Message
 Home > ctet >

Instantly get Model Answers to questions on this ResPaper. Try now!
NEW ResPaper Exclusive!

Formatting page ...

ATA-19-I This booklet contains 56 printed pages. 56 PAPER I / I MAIN TEST BOOKLET / Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so. Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet. Bg narjm nwp VH$m Ho$ {nN>bo AmdaU na {XE JE {ZX}em| H$mo mZ go n T>| & Test Booklet No. Test Booklet Code A INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only. The test is of 2 hours duration and consists of 150 questions. There is no negative marking. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page / marking responses in the Answer Sheet. The CODE for this Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this Booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and Answer Sheet No. are the same. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet. This Test Booklet has five Parts, I, II, III, IV and V, consisting of 150 Objective Type Questions and each carries 1 mark : Part-I : Child Development and Pedagogy (Q. Nos. 1-30) Part-II : Mathematics (Q. Nos. 31-60) Part-III : Environmental Studies (Q. Nos. 61-90) Part-IV : Language I - (English/Hindi) (Q. Nos. 91-120) Part-V : Language II - (English/Hindi) (Q. Nos. 121-150) Part-IV contains 30 questions for Language-I and Part-V contains 30 questions for Language-II. In this Test Booklet, only questions pertaining to English and Hindi language have been given. In case the language/s you have opted for as Language-I and/or Language-II is a language other than English or Hindi, please ask for a Supplement Test Booklet of A Code that contains questions on that language. The languages being answered must tally with the languages opted for in your Application Form. No change in languages is allowed. Candidates are required to attempt questions in Language-II (Part-V) in a language other than the one chosen as Language-I (Part-IV) from the list of la nguages. Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the Test Booklet for the same. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener is allowed for changing answers. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions of questions/answers, English version will be taken as final. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10. OMR C ma n Bg narjm nwp VH$m Ho$ A Xa aIm h & O~ AmnH$mo narjm nwp VH$m ImobZo H$mo H$hm OmE, Vmo C ma n {ZH$mb H$a n R>- 1 Ed n R>- 2 na mZ go Ho$db Zrbo/H$mbo ~m b nm B Q> noZ go {ddaU ^a| & narjm H$s Ad{Y 2 K Q>o h Ed narjm | 150 Z h & H$moB F$Um H$ A H$Z Zht h & Bg n R> na {ddaU A {H$V H$aZo Ed C ma n na {ZemZ bJmZo Ho$ {bE Ho$db Zrbo/H$mbo ~m b nm B Q> noZ H$m moJ H$a| & Bg nwp VH$m H$m g Ho$V A h & h gw{Zp MV H$a b| {H$ Bg nwp VH$m H$m g Ho$V, C ma n Ho$ n R>- 2 na N>no g Ho$V go { bVm h & h ^r gw{Zp MV H$a b| {H$ narjm nwp VH$m g m Am a C ma n g m { bVo h & AJa h {^ Z hm| Vmo narjmWu X gar narjm nwp VH$m Am a C ma n boZo Ho$ {bE {ZarjH$ H$mo Vwa V AdJV H$amE & Bg narjm nwp VH$m | nm M ^mJ I II III IV Am a V h , {OZ | 150 d Vw{Z R>> Z h , VWm oH$ 1 A H$ H$m h ^mJ I ~mb {dH$mg d {ejmem Z g . 1 30 ^mJ II J{UV Z g . 31 60 ^mJ III n m daU A Z Z g . 61 90 ^mJ IV ^mfm I A J o Or {h Xr Z g . 91 120 ^mJ V ^mfm II A J o Or {h Xr Z g . 121 150 ^mJ IV | ^mfm I Ho$ {bE 30 Z Am a ^mJ V | ^mfm II Ho$ {bE 30 Z {XE JE h & Bg narjm nwp VH$m | Ho$db A J o Or d {h Xr ^mfm go g ~ {YV Z {XE JE h & {X ^mfm I Am a m ^mfm II | AmnHo$ mam MwZr JB ^mfm E A J o Or m {h Xr Ho$ Abmdm h /h , Vmo H $n m A H$moS> dmbr Cg ^mfm dmbr n[a{e Q> narjm nwp VH$m m J br{OE & {OZ ^mfmAm| Ho$ Zm| Ho$ C ma Amn Xo aho h dh Amdo X Z n | Mw Z r JB ^mfmAm| go Ad o b ImZr Mm{hE & ^mfmAm| H$m n[adV Z AZw Zht h & narjmWu ^mfm II ^mJ V Ho$ {bE, ^mfm gyM r go Eog r ^mfm MwZ| Omo CZHo$ mam ^mfm I ^mJ IV | MwZr JB ^mfm go {^ Z hmo & a $ H$m narjm nwp VH$m | Bg moOZ Ho$ {bE Xr JB Imbr OJh na hr H$a| & g^r C ma Ho$db OMR C ma n na hr A {H$V H$a| & AnZo C ma mZnyd H$ A {H$V H$a| & C ma ~XbZo hoVw doV a OH$ H$m moJ {Z{f h & {X A J o Or Am a {h Xr g H$aU Ho$ Zm|/C mam| | H$moB {dg J{V hmo Vmo A J o Or g H$aU A {V mZm Om oJm & Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) : Roll Number : in figures in words Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters) : Candidate s Signature : Invigilator s Signature : Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent A A (2) PART I / I CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY / Directions : Answer the following questions P-I (Q. Nos. 1 to 30) by selecting the correct/most : ( . 1 30) / : 1. 1. appropriate options. 2. 3. 4. 5. The most critical period of acquisition and development of language is (1) pre-natal period. (2) early childhood. (3) middle childhood. (4) adolescence. Which of the following is a stage of moral development proposed by Lawrence Kohlberg ? (1) Latency Stage (2) The social contract orientation (3) Concrete operational stage (4) Industry vs. Inferiority stage During classroom discussions, a teacher often pays more attention to boys than girls. This is an example of (1) Gender bias. (2) Gender identity. (3) Gender relevance. (4) Gender constancy. Which of the following is an effective strategy to reduce children s gender stereotyping and gender-role conformity ? (1) Discussion about gender bias (2) Emphasizing gender-specific roles (3) Gender-segregated play groups (4) Gender-segregated seating arrangement Which of the following theorists while viewing children as active seekers of knowledge emphasized the influence of social and cultural contents on their thinking ? (1) John B. Watson (2) Lev Vygotsky (3) Jean Piaget (4) Lawrence Kohlberg 2. 3. 4. 5. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) ? (1) (2) (3) (4) : ? (1) (2) (3) (4) - ? (1) - (2) - (3) - (4) - ? (1) . (2) (3) (4) P-I 6. While working on a jig-saw puzzle, 5 years old Najma says to herself, Where is the blue piece ? No, not this one, darker one that would go here and make this shoe . (3) 6. This kind of talk is referred to by Vygotsky as (1) private speech. (3) scaffolding. (2) (4) 7. (1) reinforcement. (3) modelling. (4) (2) (3) (4) scaffolding. Hypothetico-deduction propositional thought (3) Conditioning Reinforcement ? (3) Make-believe play; irreversibility of thought Observational learning , ? (1) (2) (3) (4) ( ) (2) Deferred imitation; object permanence Schemas - 5 , ? , , ? (1) (2) (3) ( ) (4) (1) Conservation; class inclusion (1) (4) 8. reasoning; Which of the following is a Piagetian construct in the context of cognitive development of children ? (2) 7. conditioning. Which of the following behaviours characterize the concrete operational stage as proposed by Jean Piaget ? (1) 9. egocentric speech. Giving cues to children and offering support as and when needed is an example of (2) 8. talk aloud. A (4) 9. - ; ; ; ; ? (1) (2) (3) (4) A 10. Primary should be (1) (2) 11. of Assessment and confusions concepts. about marking pass or fail in the report only. (2) Intelligence can be accurately measured and determined by using standardized tests. (4) Intelligence is multi-dimensional (3) a single trait. (4) and a set of complex abilities. always thinks of multiple solutions to a problem many of which are original solutions. (1) creative thinker. Ruhi displaying characteristics of a/an convergent thinker. rigid thinker. egocentric thinker. is 12. ? (1) determined at the time of birth Intelligence is a unitary factor and (4) 11. Intelligence is a fixed ability (3) (3) (4) cards. about intelligence is correct ? (2) (3) score. Which of the following statements Ruhi ? (2) related (4) P-I (1) understanding children s clarity labelling students as per their (2) 10. assigning rank to students. (3) (1) 12. objective (4) - ? (1) (2) (3) (4) - P-I 13. In a situation of less participation of students belonging to a deprived group in teaching learning process, a teacher should (1) (2) (3) (4) 14. 15. lower her expectations from such students. reflect on her own teaching and find ways to improve student s involvement. should not prepare (3) should actively prepare should discourage the preparation of (1) attention deficit disorders. (3) inability to read fluently. (4) engaging in repetitive locomotor actions. (1) the behaviouristic principles. (3) a rights-based perspective. (4) 15. divergent thinking; fluency in reading. The concept of Inclusive Education as advocated in the Right to Education Act, 2009 is based on (2) 14. should occasionally prepare The primary characteristic of children with dyslexia includes (2) 16. accept this situation as it is. (1) (4) 13. ask the children to withdraw from school. In an inclusive classroom, a teacher _________ Individualized Education Plans. (2) (5) a sympathetic attitude towards disabled. humanistic mainstreaming of the disabled by offering them primarily vocational education. 16. A - , ? (1) (2) , (3) (4) , (1) (2) - (3) (4) ? (1) - (2) ; (3) (4) - , 2009 ? (1) (2) (3) - (4) : A 17. In constructivist framework, learning is primarily (1) based on rote-memorization. (3) acquired through conditioning. (2) (4) 18. the focused on the process of meaningmaking. theories that children construct about various phenomenon (1) should be ignored by the teacher. (3) should be replaced by correct (4) 17. centered around reinforcement. Naive (2) (6) 18. should be punished by the teacher. one through should be memorization. repetitive challenged by presenting counter evidence and examples. 19. Child-centered pedagogy promotes (1) (2) (3) (4) 20. exclusive reliance on text books. giving primacy experiences. to children s (1) (2) (3) (4) ? (1) (2) (3) - (4) ? (1) (3) (4) labelling and categorization of students base on ability. each other. (1) completely separate from (3) inter-woven with (4) , (2) rote memorisation. Emotions and cognition are _________ (2) 19. P-I independent of not related to 20. _____ (1) (2) (3) (4) P-I 21. Which of the following statements about learning is correct from a constructivist perspective ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 22. (2) (3) (4) Learning is behaviours association. (2) (3) (4) (2) (3) Learning is the process of construction of knowledge by active engagement. (4) 22. is an effective way to encourage conceptual change. leads to confusion in the minds of students. causes gaps in their understanding of concepts. focuses on procedural knowledge rather than conceptual understanding. decreases extrinsic motivation. increases intrinsic motivation. would encourage children to focus on mastery rather than performance goals. decreases children s natural interest and curiosity involved in learning. ? conditioning of by repetitive clear A (1) of Repeatedly asking children to engage in learning activities either to avoid punishment or to gain a reward (1) 21. Learning is the process of rote memorization. Presenting students with examples and non-examples (1) 23. Learning is the process reproduction and recall. (7) 23. - ? (1) (2) (3) (4) / ? (1) (2) (3) (4) A 24. Which of the following practices promote meaningful learning ? (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 25. By delivering a lecture (3) By repetitive mechanical drill 26. (2) (3) (4) offering materialistic rewards for every small tasks. emphasizing only on procedural knowledge. dismissing and incorrect answers . (ii), (iii) (ii), (iii), (iv) ? (3) (4) 26. (i), (ii), (iii) (2) By providing opportunities for exploration and discussion (3) (1) By organizing competitive events A primary school teacher can encourage children to become effective problem solvers by (1) 25. (i), (ii) (4) (ii), (iii), (iv) (1) (2) (1) (4) (iv) (ii), (iii) How can teachers facilitate understanding of complex concepts in children ? (2) (iii) Constant comparative evaluation (i), (ii), (iii) ? (ii) Continuous and comprehensive evaluation (3) P-I (i) Co-operative learning environment (i), (ii) (4) 24. Corporal punishment (1) (2) (8) - - ? (1) (2) penalizing (3) encouraging children to make intuitive guesses and then brainstorming on the same. (4) / P-I 27. In which of the following periods does physical growth and development occur at a rapid pace ? (1) Infancy and early childhood (3) Middle childhood and adolescence (2) (4) 28. (2) (3) (4) (2) (3) (4) (2) (3) (4) (3) (4) 28. (2) Development is influenced by both heredity and environment. (3) Development is universal and cultural contents do not influence it. (4) 29. the genetic code received by the individuals from birth parents. (4) the complex interplay between the heredity and the environment. School and media Media and neighbourhood (1) (3) the environmental influences. 30. ? (2) the inborn characteristics. ? (1) Development is modifiable. Family and media ? (2) Development is lifelong. Family and neighbourhood A (1) Adolescence and adulthood Which of the following are examples of secondary socializing agency ? (1) 27. middle The primary cause of individual variations is (1) 30. and Which of the following is NOT a principle of development ? (1) 29. Early childhood childhood (9) - ( ) ? (1) (2) (3) (4) - - A (10) P-I PART II / II MATHEMATICS / Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. : / : 31. 31. Three brands of pens A, B and C are available in packets of 10, 12 and 24 respectively. If a shopkeeper wants to 24 C : 10, 12 buy equal number of pens of each of packets of each brand, he should , brand, what is the minimum number buy ? (1) A = 10, B = 12, C = 5 (3) A = 10, B = 5, C = 12 (2) (4) 32. A, B ? A = 5, B = 12, C = 10 into 4 equal squares. What is the area (2) (3) (4) (3) A = 10, B = 5, C = 12 (4) 32. of each small square ? (1) A = 10, B = 12, C = 5 (2) A = 12, B = 10, C = 5 The side of a square is 4 cm. It is cut (1) 4 cm2 1 cm2 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / 4 cm 4 ? (1) 4 cm2 (3) 16 cm2 (4) 8 cm2 A = 12, B = 10, C = 5 (2) 16 cm2 A = 5, B = 12, C = 10 1 cm2 8 cm2 P-I 33. Which of the following statements is not correct ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 34. numbers are There are infinitely many prime numbers. A prime number has only two factors. There are only four single digit prime numbers. (1) 10 (3) 604 (4) A ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 1 10 ( ) , : (1) 10 (3) 604 (2) 2520 (4) (1) 18 and 7 respectively (3) 15 and 10 respectively (4) 34. 100 Ayesha has only ` 5 and ` 10 coins with her. If the total number of coins she has is 25 and the amount of money with her is ` 160, then the number of ` 5 and ` 10 coins with her are (2) 33. odd A number that is divisible by all the numbers from 1 to 10 (both inclusive) is (2) 35. All prime numbers. (11) 35. 10 and 15 respectively 20 and 5 respectively SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / 100 2520 ` 5 ` 10 25 ` 160 , ` 5 ` 10 : (1) : 18 7 (2) : 10 15 (3) : 15 10 (4) : 20 5 A 36. 37. (12) Evaluate : 36. : 17.5 3 21 7 3 12.5 17.5 3 21 7 3 12.5 (1) 52.5 (1) 52.5 (2) 12 (2) 12 (3) 120 (3) 120 (4) 50 (4) 50 One-sixth of the trees in a garden are neem trees. Half of the trees are 37. Ashoka trees and the remaining are eucalyptus trees. If the number of neem trees is five, how many eucalyptus trees are there in the garden ? (1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 20 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / P-I 5 , ? (1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 20 P-I 38. A train leaves Delhi on 29th August, 2019 at 16 : 30 hours and reaches its (13) 38. 16 : 30 destination on 31 August at 08 : 45 st (1) 36 hours 15 minutes (1) 36 15 (2) 38 hours 45 minutes (2) 38 45 (3) 39 hours 45 minutes (3) 39 45 (4) 40 hours 15 minutes (4) 40 15 been arranged in decreasing order ? (1) (2) , 2019 journey is In which of the following, lengths have 29 31 08 : 45 hours. The total travel time of the 39. A 39. 8500 mm, 800 cm 8 mm, 80 dm 8 cm, 8 m 80 dm 8 cm, 8500 mm, 8 m, 800 cm 8 mm ? (1) 8500 mm, 800 cm 8 mm, 80 dm (2) 80 dm 8 cm, 8500 mm, 8 m, 8 cm, 8 m 800 cm 8 mm (3) 8 m, 80 dm 8 cm, 8500 mm, (3) 8 m, 80 dm 8 cm, 8500 mm, (4) 8500 mm, 80 dm 8 cm, 800 cm (4) 8500 mm, 80 dm 8 cm, 800 cm 800 cm 8 mm 8 mm, 8 m SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / 800 cm 8 mm 8 mm, 8 m A 40. A 180 cm long wire is formed into a rectangle. If the width of this rectangle is 30 cm, what is its length ? (1) 45 cm (2) 60 cm (4) 120 cm (3) 41. 42. (3) group them with those who have done it correctly D. to break the monotony of numbers (3) (4) 90 cm 120 cm A. - B. C. D. (1) A C (2) A D (3) A B (4) B C to make subject easy and interesting A&C A&D A&B B&C (3) 60 cm 42. to promote spatial thinking to promote proportional reasoning (2) 45 cm II 44 , 404 ? (1) (2) (3) , (4) tell them to find out correct answer B. (1) (1) 41. explain principle of exchange using concrete material The main purpose of introducing mapping in the primary Mathematics curriculum is/are C. 180 cm 30 cm , ? (4) correct their answer in their copies A. P-I (2) (1) (4) 40. 90 cm When asked to write 44, some students of grade II wrote it as 404. As a teacher, how will you address this ? (2) (14) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / P-I 43. Which of the following topics are not part of primary school Mathematics (15) 43. 44. Tessellation (2) Symmetry (3) Patterns (4) Ratio Which ( ) 2005 curriculum as per NCF 2005 ? (1) A ? (1) (2) (3) (4) of the following resources/TLM can be used by the 44. teacher to show that two rectangles of different dimensions can have same area without using formula ? A. Scale B. Graph paper C. Thread D. Tiles (1) only B (2) B&D (3) only C (4) A&D , / , : A. B. C. D. (1) B (2) B D (4) A D (3) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ( ) C A 45. Which of the following could be contributing factor to underachievement in mathematics ? (1) Gender (3) Nature of Mathematics (2) (4) 46. 47. Innate ability of person (1) using LCM method (3) using Dienes blocks (4) (2) (3) (4) 46. using paper strips using number chart Which of the following is the most important aspect of making lesson plan while teaching Mathematics to primary school children ? (1) 45. Socio-cultural backbroud Which of the following is the most 1 appropriate strategy to explain that 4 1 is less than ? 3 (2) (16) 47. following the sequence of text book. presenting mathematical concepts in structured manner. providing opportunities to students to allow construction of concepts. writing activities and questions for reference. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / P-I ? (1) (2) - (3) (4) 1 1 4, 3 , ? (1) (2) (3) (Dienes blocks) (4) ? (1) - (2) (3) (4) P-I 48. Which of the following can NOT be considered a feature of a constructivist (17) 48. (2) (3) (4) (1) in learning Mathematics is given due attention. The teacher acknowledges that (2) students may construct multiple from interaction. a the assessment. primary means Connections (3) of between (4) Mathematics and other curricular Which of the following statements is in agreement with the constructionist Mathematics is about learning (2) Mathematicians are required to (3) Mathematics is entirely objective. (4) 49. facts. discover the truths . Visualisation is an aspect of Mathematics. - view of Mathematics ? (1) areas are highlighted. 49. given Objective type test items are used as ? The role of language and dialogue understandings ( ) Mathematics classroom ? (1) A important SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ( ) ? (1) (2) (3) (4) A 50. (18) Which of the following activities is best suited for the development of 50. spatial understanding among children ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 51. Drawing the top view of a bottle Representing number line numbers on ? (1) Locating cities on a map Noting the time of moon rise P-I (2) (3) a (4) 51. Which of the following is NOT true with respect to the learning of Mathematics ? Ability to perform and excel in (1) (2) Teachers beliefs about learners (2) (3) (4) have powerful impact on learning outcomes. Students socio-economic background impacts their Mathematics. performance in School s language of instruction can impact a child s performance in Mathematics. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ? (1) Mathematics is innate. (3) (4) - P-I 52. Identify the type of the following word problem : (19) A 52. I have 6 pencils. Manish has two more than me. How many pencils does 53. 6 Manish have ? ? (1) Comparison addition (1) (2) Comparison subtraction (2) (3) Takeaway addition (4) Takeaway subtraction (3) (4) Which of the following is NOT true of the Hindu-Arabic numeration ? (1) system of 53. The position of a digit in a number dictates its value. (2) It is additive in nature. (3) It follows the base 2 system. (4) It is multiplicative in nature. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / - - ? (1) (2) (3) 2 (4) A 54. Identify a desirable practice for teaching Geometry at primary level ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 54. Geometry at primary level should basic shapes. The teacher should begin by shapes and showing examples. (3) Children should be given ample to develop an intuitive understanding of space. (4) Developing extensive geometric vocabulary need not be an Which of the following is an indicator of mathematical reasoning ? (2) giving clear definitions of simple opportunities P-I (1) be limited to recognition of simple objective at primary level. 55. (20) 55. Ability to provide definitions of (1) (2) Ability to provide a justification (2) (3) Ability to calculate efficiently. (3) (4) for a mathematical procedure. Ability to recall the correct formulae in different situations. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ? (1) mathematical concepts. (4) P-I 56. The price list of vegetables in a super market is given as follows : Item Quantity Price (`) Tomato 1 kg 40 Potato 2 kg 25 Carrot 250 g Bottlegourd (21) A 56. : (` ) 1 kg 40 20 2 kg 25 1 kg 10 250 g 20 Chillies 100 g 10 1 kg 10 Lemon 4 pieces 10 100 g 10 4 10 Sanjay buys 1 kg tomatoes, 1 kg 2 1 potatoes, kg carrot, 250 g chillies 2 and 6 lemons. He gives a note of ` 200 to the bill clerk at the counter. How 1 250 g 6 ` 200 much money will he get back ? ? (1) ` 112.50 (2) ` 87.50 (1) ` 112.50 (3) ` 86.50 (2) ` 87.50 (4) ` 97.50 (3) ` 86.50 (4) ` 97.50 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / 1 2 kg , 1 kg , 2 kg , A 57. I am a 2 digit number. (22) The digit in tens place and the digit in units place are consecutive prime numbers. 57. The parking rates of car in a railway station parking are depicted as follows : (a) Upto 2 hrs ` 50 (b) More than 2 hrs and upto 5 hrs (c) After 5 hrs (d) More than 8 hrs and upto 12 hrs (e) More than 12 hrs and upto 24 hrs The sum of digits is multiple of 3 and 4. The number is (1) 57 (2) 23 (3) 35 (4) 13 58. P-I 3 4 : (1) 57 (3) 35 (2) (4) 58. ` 75 ` 10 per extra hour upto 8 hrs. ` 150 ` 250 Rajeev parks his car at 7.00 a.m. and comes back to pick it up at 4.30 p.m. on the same day. How much money does he have to pay ? (1) ` 135 (2) ` 150 (3) ` 130 (4) ` 100 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / 23 13 : (a) 2 ` 50 (b) 2 5 ` 75 (c) 5 8 ` 10 (d) 8 12 ` 150 (e) 12 24 ` 250 7.00 a.m. 4.30 p.m. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) ` 135 ` 150 ` 130 ` 100 P-I 59. Which of the following is at third place when the numbers are arranged (23) 59. ? in ascending order ? 7.07, 7.70, 7.707, 7.007, 0.77 7.07, 7.70, 7.707, 7.007, 0.77 60. A (1) 7.70 (1) 7.70 (2) 7.007 (2) 7.007 (3) 7.07 (4) 7.707 (3) 7.07 (4) 7.707 In a five digit number, the digit at ten s place is 8, digit at units place 60. is one-fourth of the digit at ten s place, the digit at thousands place is 0, digit at hundreds place is twice that of units place and the digit at ten thousands place is thrice the digit at unit s place. What is the number ? (1) 64082 (2) 64028 (3) 46028 (4) 60482 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / , 8, - , 0, ? (1) 64082 (2) 64028 (3) 46028 (4) 60482 A (24) P-I PART III / III ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES / Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. : / : 61. 61. A person boarded an express train on 29th November, 2019 at Surat (Gujarat) for Nagarcoil (Kerala). The train departed from Surat at 19:45 hours and reached Nagarcoil at 11:45 hours on 1st December, 2019. If the distance between Surat and Nagarcoil by train route is nearly 2120 km, the average speed of the train during this journey was (1) (2) 60 km/h (4) 45 km/h (3) 62. Bachhendri Pal (4) Karnam Malleshwari (3) (1) 64. Carrot, Turmeric, Ginger (4) Carrot, Beetroot, Radish Sweet Potato, Radish, Turmeric Desert Oak is a tree which is found in (1) Abu Dhabi (2) Australia (4) the desert of UAE (3) 63. Beetroot, Potato, Ginger (2) (3) 62. Suryamani Which one of the following is a group of roots ? desert of Rajasthan 132.5 km/h (3) 53 km/h (4) Sunita Williams (2) (1) (2) 53 km/h Which one of the following is a weight lifter of international fame ? (1) 63. 132.5 km/h 29 , 2019 ( ) ( ) 19.45 1 , 2019 11.45 - 2120 km , 64. 60 km/h 45 km/h ? (1) (2) (3) (4) ? (1) , , (2) , , (3) , , (4) , , , (1) - (2) (3) (4) P-I 65. Consider the following statements about Nepenthese, a plant which hunts. A. B. C. D. (25) 65. This plant is found in Australia, Indonesia and Meghalaya in India. It has a pitcher-like shape and the mouth is covered by a leaf. It can trap and eat only small insects. It emits a pleasant sound to attract small insects which get trapped and cannot get out. The correct statements are (1) (2) A and C only (4) A, B and C (3) 66. B and D only In which one of the following states of India is Dandi seashore located where Mahatma Gandhi did his famous march before independence ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 67. A and B only Andhra Pradesh Karnataka Maharashtra Gujarat High fever with shiver which can be treated with the bark of Cinchona tree is (1) typhoid (2) malaria (4) dengue (3) 66. chikungunya 67. A , , : A. , B. C. - D. - (1) A B (2) A C (3) B D (4) A, B C ? (1) (2) (3) (4) ( ) , (1) (2) (3) (4) A 68. A doctor is located at X and his hospital is located at Y. There is no straight lane from the doctor s house to the hospital. So, the doctor first goes to A which is 600 m due east of X, then goes to B which is 450 m due south of A, then to C which is 120 m due west of B and finally reaches the hospital at Y which is 90 m due north of C. With respect to the hospital the correct direction of the doctors house is (1) north-east (2) north-west (3) south-east (4) south-west 69. Cheraw is the dance form of the people of (1) Jharkhand (2) Mizoram (3) Manipur (4) Meghalaya 70. Neighbouring states of Tamil Nadu are (1) Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Karnataka (2) Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra (3) Karnataka, Chhattisgarh, Kerala (4) Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, Karnataka 71. Which one of the following should NOT be the objective of teaching EVS at primary level as per NCF-2005 ? (1) To nurture the curiosity and creativity of the child particularly in relation to the natural environment. (2) To engage the child in exploratory and hands on activities to acquire basic cognitive and psychomotor skills through observation, classification, inference, etc. (3) To train children to locate and comprehend relationships between the natural, social and cultural environment. (4) To develop precise quantitative skills among children through understanding of environmental issues. (26) 68. 69. 70. 71. P-I X Y A X 600 m , B A 450 m , C B 120 m Y C 90 m ? (1) - (2) - (3) - (4) - ? (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) , , (2) , , (3) , , (4) , , NCF-2005 ? (1) (2) , (3) , (4) P-I 72. EVS for classes-III to V is a subject area which integrates (1) (2) (3) (4) 73. (2) (3) (4) 74. (2) (3) (4) (3) the concepts and issues of Science and Environmental education. (4) 73. EVS is a subject taught from classes I to V. For classes I and II, EVS is taught through language and Mathematics. For classes II, III and IV, issues and concerns of EVS are taught through language and Mathematics. For classes I and II, concerns and issues of EVS are taught through Science and Social science. EVS is information. learnt EVS is child centred. EVS is teacher centred. through III V , (2) the concepts and issues of Social science and Science. EVS is learnt through rote. A (1) the concepts and issues of Science, Social studies and Environmental education. Children get lot of space to learn EVS through exploration. This indicates that (1) 72. the concepts and issues of Science. Which of the following is true w.r.t. EVS ? (1) (27) 74. , ? (1) I V (2) I II , (3) II, III IV (4) I II - , (1) (2) (3) - (4) A 75. Which of the following is a subtheme under the theme suggested in the EVS (28) 75. syllabus ? (1) 76. (4) Things we make and do (3) Animals (4) Which of the following is a desirable practice for an EVS teacher ? (2) 77. (2) Food (1) Addressing 76. multicultural Encouraging children to provide (2) important information related to the concepts of EVS. Linear arrangement of six themes (4) Relying only in textbooks. (3) of EVS. Which of the following (4) is/are important in constructing knowledge in EVS by the children ? Active participation of children. 77. ? ? (1) dimensions of diverse classrooms. (3) A. ? (1) Family and Friends (2) (3) P-I - ? A. B. B. Community members of children D. Description and definition given D. (1) A, B and C (1) A, B C (3) A, C and D (3) A, C D C. (2) (4) Text books of EVS in the textbook of EVS A and C only C only C. (2) (4) - - A C C P-I 78. Children can be effectively engaged in EVS learning through (29) 78. A. Narratives B. Stories C. Effective explanation of D. Effective demonstration and concepts by the teacher (2) A and B only (3) C and D only (4) A, B and C Objective/s of EVS teacher who encourages his/her children to observe animals and make pictures on their own is/are to A. Develop creativity of children B. Develop observation and design skills of children children B. C. D. A, C, D Develop A. explanation of concepts by the (1) C. teacher 79. A aesthetic (1) A only (2) A and C only (3) B only (4) A, B and C 79. (1) A, C, D (2) A B (3) C D (4) A, B C A. B. sense of C. (1) A (2) A C (3) B (4) A, B C A 80. In EVS learning of crafts and arts while working in groups, is encouraged because A. B. C. D. (1) 81. Group learning improves social interactions. Group learning help in completing the syllabus of EVS in time. A and D only (4) C and D only B and C only Which of the following is/are the most effective resource for EVS learning ? Members of the community D. Classroom (1) Newspapers D only (2) C and D only (4) A and B only (3) A, B and C Which of the following principle of learning is followed in EVS ? (1) Global to local (2) Abstract to concrete (4) Known to unknown (3) 81. Family members B. C. 82. Group learning promotes peer learning. B and D only A. 80. Group learning is easier and very effective strategy for teachers to tackle the problem of indiscipline of the class. (2) (3) (30) Unknown to known 82. P-I A. B. C. D. (1) A D (2) B D (3) B C (4) C D ? A. B. C. - D. (1) D (2) C D (3) A, B C (4) A B ? (1) (2) (3) (4) P-I 83. Which of the following is NOT a tool for Formative Assessment of learning in EVS ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 84. (2) (3) (4) 85. (3) (4) Annual achievement test (2) (3) (4) 84. (2) Discuss What we have learnt given at the end of each chapter of EVS textbook of class V of encourages her/his children to observe the activity encourages his/her children to share their experiences encourages her/his children to observe, share their experiences followed by discussion on the activity. encourages her/his children to answer the questions at their home related to the activity. 85. ? (1) Judging the answers given by children in terms of right or wrong. Qualitative assessment children s learning (2) Anecdotal records Use indicators for assessment A (1) Rating scale A teacher of class V conducts an activity in which she asks her children to drop some sugar on the ground and asks them to wait until the ants come there. Children can be given meaningful learning from this activity if teacher _____. (1) 83. Portfolio Which of the following should be avoided while assessing children in EVS ? (1) (31) V EVS (3) (4) V (1) (2) (3) , (4) A 86. Consider the following list : Tortoise, Crocodile, Crow, Duck, Fish (32) 86. Fish (3) Crocodile (2) (4) 87. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) Crow Tortoise Column-I Column-II (City/State) A. Hongkong I. B. Kerala II. C. Kashmir III. D. Goa IV. V. 87. (Most liked food) Boiled tapioca with any cury Fish cooked in mustard oil Sea fish cooked in coconut oil Chholay Bhature The correct match of term of Column-I with that of Column-II is : A-V; B-II; C-III; D-IV (3) A-V; B-III; C-II; D-I (2) (4) 88. (1) (2) (3) (4) Crow Barbet Mynah A-V; B-II; C-III; D-IV (3) A-V; B-III; C-II; D-I (4) A-III; B-II; C-IV; D-I Owl (1) (2) A-V; B-I; C-II; D-III Which one of the following bird s species moves its neck back and forth with a jerk. - I II ( / ) ( ) A. I. B. II. C. III. D. IV. V. -I -II Cooked Snakes (1) : , , , , In this list which one of the following is different from the others ? (1) P-I 88. A-V; B-I; C-II; D-III A-III; B-II; C-IV; D-I - ? (1) (2) (3) (4) P-I 89. Consider the following description of houses : A. B. C. 89. In Rajasthan the villagers live in mud houses with roofs of thorny bushes. In Manali (Himachal Pradesh) houses are made on bamboo pillers A : A. B. C. In Leh two floor houses are made of stones. The ground floor is for animals and for storing necessary things. , , ( ) The correct statement(s) is/are / (2) B and C (2) (4) Only C (1) (3) 90. (33) A and B (1) A B A and C (3) A C Consider the following statements about elephants : A. B. C. D. Elephants do not rest very much, they sleep 2 to 4 hours only in a day. (4) 90. C : A. An adult elephant can eat more than 200 kg of leaves and twigs in a day. B. In elephant herd the oldest female elephant decides everything. D. They love to play with mud and water, the mud keeps their skin cool. B C C. , 2 4 200 kg , The correct statements are (2) B, C and D (2) (4) A, B and D (1) (3) A, B and C C, D and A (1) A, B C (3) C, D A (4) B, C D A, B D A (34) PART IV LANGUAGE I ENGLISH P-I IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part IV (Q. No. 91-120), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE I only. Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 91 to 99), by selecting the correct/ most appropriate options : 1. 3. Tibetans describes the cutting across the formidable Himalayan ranges of Zanskar, the Greater Himalaya and the Dhauladhar. Subsequently, the sacred waters meander through the gigantic elephant-mouthed river or Langchen Kinnaur Kailash-Jorkanden Range at Khambab as a long and extensive river Reckong Peo creating the terrifying that rises from the lake unconquerable , Sutlej gorge. Then it streams into the Tso Maphan or Manasarovar that Shimla, Kullu, Mandi and Bilaspur and flows from the mountainous regions of is responsible for the rich cultivation of Tibet. According to this holy book, this grapes, apples and apricots all along its cold river with its sands of gold, circles the holy Manasarovar seven times before 2. taking its course to the west. The Langchen Khambab flows down banks. After its confluence with the 4. from the red coloured mountains of the leaves the Himachal boundary to enter Tholing and Tsparang of the Gugi the plains of the Punjab at the Bhakra Kingdom. These earth forests are full of Dam, the second highest gravity dam pillars formed by rocks that collectively and a major point of water supply and appear like a forest from afar an out Khyunglung ruins also lies on the northern bank of the Sutlej river in this valley which was once known as the Garuda Valley . longest among the five rivers of Punjab. Sutlej Basin and Lower Sutlej Basin. It its way through the earth forests of and erosion by wind and water. The It is 1,448 km in length, making it the topographically divided into the Upper Himalayan region of Tibet, channelling by geological movements of the earth River Spiti at Khab it is known as Sutlej. Extensively used for irrigation, it is Kanglung Kangri Glacier in the Trans- of the world landscape that was formed for about 260 km before entering Himachal Pradesh through Shipki La Kangri Karchok, the Kailash Purana of the This mighty river then flows north-west electricity generation for the North of 91. India. What makes the earth forests of Tholing and Tsparang look amazing ? (1) The ruins on the banks of the Sutlej. (2) Abundance of flora and fauna. (3) Cool breeze that makes people feel drowsy. (4) Pillars formed by rocks resembling a forest. P-I 92. Langchen Khambab is a boon for the North of India because : (1) (2) (3) (4) 93. A. it is a major source of water supply and power generation. in this matter . (d) the prosperity of the whole of India depends on it. Langchen Khambab is responsible for rich cultivation of various types of fruits in the Himachal Pradesh. A is true, B is false. (3) Both A and B are true. (4) terrifying (3) formidable (2) (4) pure (3) unholy (4) noble moral (d) (c) Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence : me. (1) Adjective (3) Preposition (2) (4) 98. Pronoun (1) Langchen Khambab river (3) Lake Rakshatal (4) 99. Adverb Lake unconquerable refers to : (2) huge (1) (3) (b) I don t know why he is so hostile to high Which one of the following words is the most opposite in meaning to the word sacred as used in the passage (Para 1) ? (2) 97. Both A and B are false. (1) (a) (4) B is true, A is false. Which one of the following words is most similar in meaning to the word gigantic as used in the passage (Para 4) ? (1) (2) it abounds in aquatic animals. Kangri Karchok is a holy book of the Tibetans. Which part of the following sentence contains an error ? I am not in best position to advise you (a) (b) (c) it brings along with it mountain soil and minerals. (1) (2) 95. 96. Read the following sentences : B. 94. (35) Lake Manasarovar The Sutlej river According to Kangri Karchok, Langchen Khambab does not/is not (1) have sands of gold. (3) flow very gently through the hills. (2) (4) circle the Manasarovar seven times. a cold river. A A Directions : Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow (36) P-I 101. Which of the following statements is not true ? (Q. Nos. 100 to 105) by selecting the The military discipline teaches the soldiers : Light Brigade (2) correct/most appropriate options : By Alfred Tennyson Half a league, half a league, Half a league onward, All in the valley of Death Rode the six hundred. Forward the Light Brigade ! Charge for the guns ! he said. Into the valley of Death Rode the six hundred. Forward, the Light Brigade! Was there a man dismay d ? Not tho the soldier knew Some one had blunder d. Theirs not to make reply, Theirs not to reason why, Theirs but to do and die. Into the valley of Death Rode the six hundred. 100. The expression the valley of death refers to : (1) the place where the dead soldiers (2) the impending death of soldiers. (3) the house of death. (4) a nightmarish place. are lying buried. (1) to do and die. (3) to act tactfully in the battlefield. (4) to obey their commander s order. not to ask any question. 102. Which of the following adjectives does not apply to the soldiers ? (1) courageous (3) patriotic (2) (4) disciplined impractical 103. Name the figure of speech used in the Valley of Death . (1) Metaphor (3) Synecdoche (2) (4) Simile Metonymy 104. Which literary device is used in the expression, to do and die ? (1) Assonance (3) Simile (2) (4) Alliteration Personification 105. In the first stanza of the extract, the soldiers are : (1) (2) (3) (4) talking to each other about their personal problems. waiting for their commander s order. thinking about the result of the war. seen riding fast to the enemy territory. P-I 106. In the multilingual classroom learners can interact _____. (1) (2) (3) (4) in the medium of instruction followed by the school. in their own language and can be a mix of words from more than one language. only in the language prescribed in three-language formula. in the language with which the teacher is familiar. 107. Diagnostic tests are administered to _____. (1) (2) (3) (4) find out deficiencies of the students with a view to planning remedies. assess the suitability of a candidate for a specific programme. test the language proficiency of students for providing them jobs. judge the students capabilities. 108. Structural approach importance to _____. (1) speech and reading (3) speech only (2) (4) gives more reading only 109. Which among the following does not come under meaning based activities ? Interacting with the text. (3) Reading the text and narrating the same to peers. (2) (4) Using previous knowledge. 110. _____ comprehension is the skill of reading a piece of text closely or intensely for the purpose of extracting specific information from the text. (1) Inferential (3) Local (2) (4) then Reading out every word aloud and translating it. Global Transactional 111. It is a type of writing in which the teacher provides the situation and helps the class to prepare it. The teacher continuously provides feedback, direction and expansion of ideas to the learners. (1) Controlled writing (3) Free writing (2) (4) Guided writing Product writing 112. A teacher asked the students of class V to read the text thoroughly. Then she asked them to answer the questions with reference to the context (RTC). In this process she is encouraging students for _____. (1) skimming (3) intensive reading (2) reading and writing (1) (37) (4) scanning extensive reading 113. The term Comprehensible input is associated with _____. (1) Lev Vygotsky (3) Noam Chomsky (2) (4) Stephen Krashan James Asher A A 114. Which one of the following is not a sub skill of reading ? (1) Connecting (2) Predicting (3) Synthesizing (4) Transcripting 115. Which one of the following is least important in enhancing speaking skill of children ? (1) Listening patiently to children s talk. (2) Giving them an opportunity to express their feelings and ideas. (3) Asking closed ended questions. (4) Organizing discussions on a given topic. 116. At primary level literature is helpful in developing language of learners as : (1) it encourages the learners to complete the worksheets based on it. (2) it is an authentic material covering various genres. (3) it develops teachers interpretative, creative and critical abilities. (4) it is a good basis for the only expansion of vocabulary. 117. A teacher prepares a worksheet and removes every seventh word from the text. Then she asks the learners to read the text after that they were asked to complete the worksheet with missing word. The task given on the worksheet is a (1) speaking task (2) writing task (3) cloze test (4) open test (38) P-I 118. Language is arbitrary means that _____ (1) (2) (3) (4) something is determined by judgement and for a specific reason. it is based on a valid reason and not on chance. there is a strong relation between the words of a language and their meaning. there is no inherent relation between the words of a language and their meaning. 119. The teacher observed that Pravin could not write a paragraph on her own even after brainstorming the topic. However, she was able to write it under adult or peer guidance. This guidance is called _____. (1) Team teaching (3) Scaffolding (2) (4) Counselling Socialization 120. The purpose of textual exercise is not to (1) develop creativity among learners. (3) memorise the answers to the questions. (2) (4) provide opportunity to express themselves. give exposure learning. to language P-I (39) IV A I : IV . . 91 120) I (91 99 ) , , , , - - - , - - - : , - - - - - - , , , , , - , , - , - - , - 91. 92. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) , , (1) (2) (3) (4) A 93. 94. 95. 96. (40) - (1) (2) (3) (4) P-I 97. (1) (2) (3) (4) ____ (1) (2) (3) (4) 98. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) 99. (1) (2) : (3) (4) ? (1) (2) (3) (4) P-I ( 100 105 ) (41) 101. (3) (4) ! 102. ! (2) (3) - , , , (4) - , 103. (2) ? (3) ! ? ? (4) 104. 100. (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (3) ! ! (4) 105. ( ) , - , , , ? (2) - ( ) ? (1) ? ( ) ? (1) ! ! , (1) (2) , ! ! ! , (1) (2) (3) (4) A A : 106. (2) 108. 109. (1) 107. (42) - (3) (4) 110. (2) (3) - (4) (1) : (2) : (3) : (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) _____ (2) (3) (4) 111. (2) (3) (4) 112. (1) - , - _____ (1) - ? (1) P-I ? (1) (2) (3) (4) P-I 113. 114. ? (1) (2) (3) - (4) _____ (1) (2) (3) (4) 115. (2) (3) (4) 116. (2) (3) (4) 118. , 119. , , , - , , - _____ (1) 117. - _____ _____ (1) (43) 120. , , , ? (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) _____ (1) (2) (3) (4) _____ , _____ (1) , - (2) - , (3) , (4) , A A (44) PART V LANGUAGE II ENGLISH P-I IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part V (Q. No. 121-150), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE II only. Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 121 to 128) by choosing the correct/most appropriate options : Freedom is one of the most important factors in life. Man has fought politically all over the world for freedom. Religions have promised freedom, not in this world but in another. In the capitalist countries, individual freedom exists to some degree, and in the communist world it has been denied. From ancient times, freedom has meant a great deal to man, and there have been its opponents, not only political but religious through Inquisition, by excommunication, tortures and banishments, and the total denial of man s search for freedom. There have been wars and counter-wars fought for freedom. This has been the pattern of man s endeavours for freedom throughout history. Freedom of self-expression and freedom of speech and thought exist in some parts of the world, but in others it does not. Those who have been conditioned, revolt against their backgrounds. This reaction which takes different forms is called freedom . The reaction to politics is often to shun the field of politics. One economic reaction is to form small communities based on some ideology or under the leadership of one person, but these soon disintegrate. The religious reaction against established organisations of belief is to revolt, either by joining other religious organisations or by following some guru or leader or by joining some cult. Or one denies the whole religious endeavour. One thinks of freedom only as freedom of movement, either physical or movements of thought. It appears that one always seeks freedom on the surface. Surely, this is rather a limited freedom, involving a great deal of conflict, wars and violence. Inner freedom is something entirely different. It has its roots not in the idea of freedom but in the reality of freedom. It covers all the endeavours of man. Without inner freedom life will always be an activity within the limited circle of time and conflict. 121. Which methods do authorities not use to suppress people fighting for freedom ? (1) Inquisition (3) Persuasion (2) (4) Excommunication Tortures 122. Reaction against established religion prompts people not to : (1) join other religious organisations. (3) follow some guru. (2) (4) to start a new religion. join some cult. 123. Real freedom, author, is according (1) economic freedom. (3) political freedom. (2) (4) inner freedom. religious freedom. to the P-I 124. Read the following sentences : A. Individual freedom does not exist at all in capitalist countries. B. People do not have individual freedom in communist countries. (1) A is false, B is true. (2) A is true, B is false. (3) Both A and B are true. (4) Both A and B are false. 125. Which word is most similar in meaning to the word endeavours as used in the passage ? (Para 1) (1) movements (2) attempts (3) actions (4) challenges 126. Which word is the most opposite in meaning to the word, shun as used in the passage ? (Para 2) (1) prefer (2) rehabilitate (3) welcome (4) rejoice 127. Which part of the following sentence contains an error ? There is no doubt that hard work (a) (b) paves the way to success. (c) (d) (1) (d) (2) (a) (3) (b) (4) (c) 128. Which of the following statements is not true ? (1) Man can enjoy life only in an environment of freedom. (2) Material progress cannot be achieved without freedom. (3) Freedom is not one of the most important factors in life. (4) Freedom helps man evolve morally and spiritually. (45) Directions : Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 129 to 135) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. Water is the core of life; hence water must be central to our spiritual thinking. Water is not only most of earth, but also most of life. Therefore water conservation must be our deepest concern. The Himalayan mountain range is among the highest, youngest and most fragile ecosystem of the planet. The Himalayas have given us some of the great river systems of the earth including the Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra, Nu Salween, Yangtze and the Mekong. The Himalayas are also called the Third Pole , for they contain the largest mass of ice and snow outside the earth s polar region, the north and south poles. There is a permanent snowline above 5,000 metres. Some of the glaciers in the region are the longest outside the two poles. The Himalayas serve as water towers, providing water on a sustained basis to more than 1,000 million people and millions of hectares of land in South Asia. The greenery, benevolent climate, highly productive ecosystems, food production and overall happiness in South Asia are in fact, attributable to the bounty of the Himalayas. They are not only beautiful; they are life-givers. Little wonder that they are venerated as the abode of gods. To keep the Third Pole preserved through assured conservation is one of the greatest challenges for the contemporary world. Himalayan mountains are a common but A A fragile natural resource. As mountain ecosystems have enormous bearing on the earth s systems, their special care, regeneration and conservation of their pristine resources would only bring more happiness, peace and prosperity to large parts of the world. In Agenda 21, Chapter 13 of the United Nations, the importance of mountains is underlined : mountain environments are essential to the survival of global ecosystems. The Himalayas in the state of Uttarakhand are especially rich in water resources. This area is home to dozens of perennial streams and numerous other rain-fed rivers along with innumerable rivulets, waterfalls and ponds, etc. 129. Which of the following has not been mentioned in the passage ? (1) (2) (3) (4) The Himalayas provide us with highly productive eco-systems. The Himalayas provide water to more than 1000 million people. The Himalayas irrigate millions of hectares of land. The Himalayas form the back bone of our tourism industry. 130. Which of the following is false ? (1) (2) (3) (4) The Himalayan mountains are a fragile resource. Climate change has little effect on the Himalayas. They bring prosperity to large parts of the world. They have some of the longest glaciers. (46) P-I 131. What is not so special about the Himalayas in the state of Uttarakhand ? The Himalayan state has : (1) many perennial streams. (2) huge mineral deposits. (3) many rain fed rivers. (4) numerous waterfalls and ponds. 132. Which one of the following words is most similar in meaning to the word, bounty ? (1) generosity (2) assets (3) sympathy (4) abundance 133. Which word is opposite in meaning to the word, benevolent ? (1) malevolent (2) rude (3) untruthful (4) indecent 134. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ? The area is home to dozens of perennial streams. (1) Noun (2) Adverb (3) Adjective (4) Pronoun 135. In the context of the passage which of the following is not true ? Water should be central to our thinking because : (1) We cannot survive without water. (3) It is considered holy by most religions. (2) (4) It is a life-line for our farmers. It is the core of life. P-I 136. A teacher wants to create a languagerich environment in her class. She should : (1) establish a language lab in her class. (2) motivate parents to buy language games and activities. (3) provide an opportunity where the language is seen, noticed and used by children. (4) ask students to use only English while communicating in the class with peers. 137. Literature for children is considered as a/an _____ reading. (1) additional burden on (2) authentic source of (3) hindrance material for (4) inspirational source of 138. Which one of the following is not a form of literature for children ? (1) Picture books (2) Thesaurus (3) Myths and legends (4) Tales of heroes of history 139. Which one of the following statements is not correct about Print Rich Environment ? (1) It consists of context-based relevant material for children such as pictures, rhymes, stories etc. (2) Once the material is pasted on walls, it should not be removed for the whole session. (3) Pictures / posters give children an opportunity to talk about things, persons and happenings. (4) Encourage children to create their own poems, posters, stories etc. and display them in the class. (47) 140. A teacher gives a task of dialogue completion to class V students. The role of this task in language learning will be ________ (1) teaching of structures. (3) to facilitate conversation by giving specific language practice using formulaic expressions. (2) (4) the separation of spoken and written forms of language. to provide frequent feedback only on grammatical errors. 141. Using realia in the language class means bringing _____. (1) real (2) real objects as teaching aids. (3) (4) life communicate. situations to realistic objectives and targets for the learners. real level of child s learning to the knowledge of parents. 142. The multilingual nature of the Indian class-room must be used as a resource so that ________. (1) every child feels secure and (2) every child learns at the same (3) children (4) the teacher develops language accepted. pace. languages. proficiency. can learn many A A 143. An English textbook for class I starts with pictures, poems and stories and ends with alphabets in the end. Which approach arrangement does pedagogy ? this reflect (1) Eclectic approach (3) Top down approach (2) (4) in kind of language Bottom-up approach Language approach across curriculum 144. While checking the notebooks the teacher observed that a child has repeatedly made some errors in writing such as reverse image as b d, m w. The child is showing the signs of _____. (1) learning preference (2) learning style (3) learning disability (4) learning differences 145. A teacher is telling a story with actions and gestures to class III students. After this she asked them to draw pictures on the story in groups. Why do you think she asked them to draw pictures on the story ? (1) She wanted to assess their colouring and drawing skills. (2) She had completed her lesson as per her lesson plan so, she engaged them in drawing. (3) She wanted to assess their comprehension of the story. (4) She wanted to see the participation of children while drawing. (48) P-I 146. Active vocabulary consists of words which are _____. (1) used occasionally (2) difficult to pronounce (3) used frequently (4) phonological and lexical 147. The major aim of teaching poetry is _____. (1) vocabulary development. (2) enjoyment and appreciation. (3) development of grammar. (4) making learners to became poets. 148. Morpheme is the (1) smallest unit of a word. (2) smallest unit of meaning that cannot be broken up. (3) unit of a word that can be broken up into new meaning. (4) smallest unit of a phrase. 149. A teacher of class II uses learner s knowledge and language to build a bridge between his mother tongue and English language teaching. Here learner s language is used in teaching English as a _____. (1) hindrance (2) translation (3) resource (4) pattern 150. BICS stands for (1) Bilingual Integrated Content and Syllabus (2) Bilingual Interdependent Course and Syllabus (3) Basic Interrelated Communication Strategies (4) Basic Interpersonal Communicative Skills P-I (49) V A II : V . . 121 150) II ( . 121 128 ) , , , , , , , : , - , , 121. 122. 123. 124. _____ (1) (2) (3) (4) - _____ (1) (2) (3) (4) _____ (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) A 125. 126. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) (50) P-I ( . 129 135 ) : - ? ? ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 127. 128. , ? (1) (2) (3) (4) , (1) (2) (3) : (4) P-I 129. 130. 131. (51) (1) (2) (3) (4) 132. (1) 133. (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) . . (3) (4) ? 134. 135. (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) , (1) (2) (3) (4) ? (1) (2) (3) (4) A A 136. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 137. (2) (3) (4) 138. (2) (3) (4) 139. (1) (2) (3) (4) (3) (4) 141. - (2) (3) (4) 142. (2) (3) (4) , - , - - , 143. - - ? ? ? : _____ (1) ? (1) , - ? (2) _____ _____ P-I (1) : , ? (1) 140. ? (1) (52) _____ (1) (2) (3) (4) : P-I 144. - _____ (1) (2) (3) (4) 145. (53) 147. - - 148. ? (1) ? (2) ? (3) - 149. ? (4) 146. , _____ (1) (2) - (3) - (4) - _____ 150. (1) - (2) (3) (4) - _____ _____ (1) , (2) , (3) , (4) , ? (1) (2) (3) (4) : _____ _____ (1) , (2) , (3) , (4) , A A (54) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK P-I P-I (55) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK A (56) READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY: 1. The manner in which the different questions are to be answered has been explained in the Test Booklet which you should read carefully before actually answering the questions. 2. Out of the four alternatives for each question, only one circle for the correct answer is to be darkened completely with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen on Side-2 of the OMR Answer Sheet. The answer once marked is not liable to be changed. 3. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Answer Sheet. 4. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Test Booklet Code or Number and Answer Sheet Code or Number), another set will be provided. 5. The candidates will write the correct Test Booklet Code and Number as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet. 6. A machine will read the coded information in the OMR Answer Sheet. Hence, no information should be left incomplete and it should not be different from the information given in the Admit Card. 7. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic device or any other material except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/ room. 8. Mobile phones, wireless communication devices (even in switched off mode) and the other banned items should not be brought in the examination halls/ rooms. Failing to comply with this instruction, it will be considered as using unfair means in the examination and action will be taken against them including cancellation of examination. 9. Each candidate must show on demand his / her Admit Card to the Invigilator. 10. No candidate, without special permission of the Centre Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his / her seat. 11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall/ Room without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. The candidates are also required to put their left hand THUMB impression in the space provided in the Attendance Sheet. 12. Use of Electronic / Manual Calculator is prohibited. 13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Examining Body with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall/Room. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Examining Body. 14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances. 15. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator in the Hall / Room. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. A 1. 2. OMR 3. 4. 5. 7. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 2

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

 

  Print intermediate debugging step

Show debugging info


 


Tags : CTET Examinations Solved Question Papers, Central Teacher Eligibility Test, CBSE, Central Board of Secondary Education, ctet exams model / sample papers with answers, paper 1, paper 2, ctet preparation, ctet specimen / mock papers, ctet books, ctet india portal, ctet question bank, ctet question papers with answers, ctet model test papers, ctet last year papers, previous years fully solved question papers with solutions, free online ctet paper, ctet syllabus, india ctet board sample questions papers last 10 years, ctet guess papers, ctet important questions, 2016, 2015, 2014, 2013, 2012, 2011.  

© 2010 - 2025 ResPaper. Terms of ServiceContact Us Advertise with us

 

ctet chat