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CTET Exam - JAN 2021 : Paper 1 (Main)

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This booklet contains 56 printed pages. 56 AAT-20-I PAPER I / I MAIN TEST BOOKLET / Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so. Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet. Bg narjm nwp VH$m Ho$ {nN>bo AmdaU na {XE JE {ZX}em| H$mo mZ go n T>| & Test Booklet No. Test Booklet Code I INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only. The test is of 2 hours duration and consists of 150 questions. There is no negative marking. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page / marking responses in the Answer Sheet. The CODE for this Booklet is I. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this Booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and Answer Sheet No. are the same. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet. This Test Booklet has five Parts, I, II, III, IV and V, consisting of 150 Objective Type Questions and each carries 1 mark : Part-I : Child Development and Pedagogy (Q. Nos. 1-30) Part-II : Mathematics (Q. Nos. 31-60) Part-III : Environmental Studies (Q. Nos. 61-90) Part-IV : Language I - (English/Hindi) (Q. Nos. 91-120) Part-V : Language II - (English/Hindi) (Q. Nos. 121-150) Part-IV contains 30 questions for Language-I and Part-V contains 30 questions for Language-II. In this Test Booklet, only questions pertaining to English and Hindi language have been given. In case the language/s you have opted for as Language-I and/or Language-II is a language other than English or Hindi, please ask for a Supplement Test Booklet of I Code that contains questions on that language. The languages being answered must tally with the languages opted for in your Application Form. No change in languages is allowed. Candidates are required to attempt questions in Language-II (Part-V) in a language other than the one chosen as Language-I (Part-IV) from the list of la nguages. Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the Test Booklet for the same. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener is allowed for changing answers. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions of questions/answers, English version will be taken as final. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 7. 8. 9. 10. OMR C ma n Bg narjm nwp VH$m Ho$ A Xa aIm h & O~ AmnH$mo narjm nwp VH$m ImobZo H$mo H$hm OmE, Vmo C ma n {ZH$mb H$a n R>- 1 Ed n R>- 2 na mZ go Ho$db Zrbo/H$mbo ~m b nm B Q> noZ go {ddaU ^a| & narjm H$s Ad{Y 2 K Q>o h Ed narjm | 150 Z h & H$moB F$Um H$ A H$Z Zht h & Bg n R> na {ddaU A {H$V H$aZo Ed C ma n na {ZemZ bJmZo Ho$ {bE Ho$db Zrbo/H$mbo ~m b nm B Q> noZ H$m moJ H$a| & Bg nwp VH$m H$m g Ho$V I h & h gw{Zp MV H$a b| {H$ Bg nwp VH$m H$m g Ho$V, C ma n Ho$ n R>- 2 na N>no g Ho$V go { bVm h & h ^r gw{Zp MV H$a b| {H$ narjm nwp VH$m g m Am a C ma n g m { bVo h & AJa h {^ Z hm| Vmo narjmWu X gar narjm nwp VH$m Am a C ma n boZo Ho$ {bE {ZarjH$ H$mo Vwa V AdJV H$amE & Bg narjm nwp VH$m | nm M ^mJ I II III IV Am a V h , {OZ | 150 d Vw{Z R>> Z h , VWm oH$ 1 A H$ H$m h ^mJ I ~mb {dH$mg d {ejmem Z g . 1 30 ^mJ II J{UV Z g . 31 60 ^mJ III n m daU A Z Z g . 61 90 ^mJ IV ^mfm I A J o Or {h Xr Z g . 91 120 ^mJ V ^mfm II A J o Or {h Xr Z g . 121 150 ^mJ IV | ^mfm I Ho$ {bE 30 Z Am a ^mJ V | ^mfm II Ho$ {bE 30 Z {XE JE h & Bg narjm nwp VH$m | Ho$db A J o Or d {h Xr ^mfm go g ~ {YV Z {XE JE h & {X ^mfm I Am a m ^mfm II | AmnHo$ mam MwZr JB ^mfm E A J o Or m {h Xr Ho$ Abmdm h /h , Vmo H $n m I H$moS> dmbr Cg ^mfm dmbr n[a{e Q> narjm nwp VH$m m J br{OE & {OZ ^mfmAm| Ho$ Zm| Ho$ C ma Amn Xo aho h dh AmdoXZ n | MwZr JB ^mfmAm| go Ad ob ImZr Mm{hE & ^mfmAm| H$m n[adV Z AZw Zht h & narjmWu ^mfm II ^mJ V Ho$ {bE, ^mfm gyMr go Eogr ^mfm MwZ| Omo CZHo$ mam ^mfm I ^mJ IV | MwZr JB ^mfm go {^ Z hmo & a $ H$m narjm nwp VH$m | Bg moOZ Ho$ {bE Xr JB Imbr OJh na hr H$a| & g^r C ma Ho$db OMR C ma n na hr A {H$V H$a| & AnZo C ma mZnyd H$ A {H$V H$a| & C ma ~XbZo hoVw doV a OH$ H$m moJ {Z{f h & {X A J o Or Am a {h Xr g H$aU Ho$ Zm|/C mam| | H$moB {dg J{V hmo Vmo A J o Or g H$aU A {V mZm Om oJm & Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) : Roll Number : in figures in words Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters) : Candidate s Signature : Invigilator s Signature : Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent I I (2) P-I PART I / I CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY / Directions : Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 1 to 30) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. : ( . 1 30) / : 1. 1. , ; (1) (2) (3) (4) 2. (1) (2) (3) (4) 3. , , , , , (1) / (2) / (3) / (4) 2. 3. After getting hurt during a play activity, Rohan started crying. Seeing this, his father responded, Don t behave like girls, boys don t cry . This statement by the father (1) reflects gender stereotype. (2) challenges gender stereotype. (3) reduces gender bias. (4) promotes gender equality. In a progressive classroom (1) a teacher should follow fixed curriculum. (2) the emphasis should be competition among students. (3) ample opportunities should be provided for construction of knowledge. (4) students should be labelled on the basis of their academic scores. on After observing that students are struggling to proceed further on an ongoing activity, a teacher decides to provide cues and hints in form of what, why, how. According to Lev Vygotsky s theory, this strategy of teacher will (1) demotivate the children to learn. (2) act as a scaffold for learning. (3) cause withdrawal tendency among students. (4) be meaningless in process of learning. P-I 4. (3) I context of socialization of children ? ? (1) (1) (2) (3) (4) - Which of the following is correct in the School is a 4. secondary socialization agent and family is a primary socialization agent. (2) School is a primary socialization agent and peers are secondary socialization agents. (3) Peers are primary socialization agents and family is a secondary socialization agent. (4) Family and mass-media both are secondary socialization agents. 5. Theory of multiple intelligence 5. emphasizes that (1) Intelligence Quotient (IQ) can be measured only by objective tests. (2) Intelligence in one domain ensures - (1) - (2) , (3) (4) intelligence in all other domains. (3) There are several forms of intelligences. (4) There are no individual differences in intelligence. 6. According to Lawrence Kohlberg s theory, Performing an act and doing something because others approves it , represents _________ stage of morality. 6. , , , _____ (1) - Conventional (2) (3) Post-conventional (3) - (4) Formal conventional (4) (1) Pre-conventional (2) I 7. 8. 9. 10. (4) Lev Vygotsky s social-cultural perspective of learning emphasizes importance of _________ in the learning process. (1) Cultural tools (2) Attribution (3) Motivation (4) Equilibration In his theory of cognitive development, Jean Piaget explains cognitive structures in terms of _________. (1) Psychological tools (2) Stimulus-response association (3) Zone of proximal development (4) Schemas Pre-operational stage in Jean Piaget s theory of cognitive development characterizes _________. (1) Development of abstract thinking (2) Centration in thought (3) Hypothetico deductive thinking (4) Ability to conserve and seriate objects. Which of the following statement is correct in context of development ? (1) Development has the same rate of growth across cultures for everyone. (2) Development occurs only through learning that takes place in school. (3) Development occurs only during the period of childhood. (4) Development dimensional. is multi- P-I 7. - , _____ (1) (2) (3) (4) 8. , _____ (1) (2) - (3) (4) / 9. , ? (1) (2) / (3) - (4) 10. ? (1) , (2) (3) (4) P-I 11. 12. 13. 14. (5) Sequence of development among children from birth to adolescence is (1) sensory, concrete, abstract. (2) abstract, sensory, concrete. (3) concrete, abstract, sensory. (4) abstract, concrete, sensory. Individual differences in a progressive classroom should be treated as (1) a hindrance to the process of learning. (2) a failure on the part of teacher. (3) criteria for making ability-based groups. (4) important for planning teaching-learning process. (1) performance oriented goals. (2) undifferentiated instructions (3) segregation of students based on their social identity. (4) providing opportunities aiming at maximizing potential of individual children. According to Right of Persons with Disabilities Act (2016), which of the following term is appropriate to use ? Retarded student (2) Handicapped student (3) Student with physical disability (4) Student with crippled body 11. 12. of In an Inclusive classroom emphasis should be on (1) I 13. 14. ? (1) , , (2) , , (3) , , (4) , , ? (1) (2) (3) - (4) - _____ (1) - (2) / (3) (4) (2016) , ? (1) (2) (3) (4) I 15. 16. 17. 18. (6) In order to address the needs of students who are facing learning difficulties, a teacher should NOT (1) use multiple audio-visual aids. (2) use constructive approaches. pedagogical (3) do individualized planning. educational (4) practice rigid structures pedagogy and assessment. Low comprehension (2) Divergent thinking (3) Hyperactivity (4) Inattentiveness In order to address learners from diverse backgrounds, a teacher should (1) avoid talking about aspects related to diversity. (2) draw examples settings. (3) use standardized assessment for all. (4) use statements that strengthen negative stereotypes. Problem-solving facilitated by from abilities 15. , ? (1) - (2) (3) (4) 16. ? (1) / (2) (3) (4) 17. , (1) (2) (3) (4) 18. - ? (1) (2) (3) (4) for _________ is the primary identifying feature of creativity. (1) P-I diverse can (1) focusing on drill and practice. (2) encouraging fixed process solving the problems. (3) encouraging use of analogies. (4) generating fear among students. be of P-I 19. 20. 21. 22. (7) Motivation to learn can be sustained by (1) punishing the child. (2) focusing goals. (3) giving very easy tasks to children. (4) focusing on rote-memorisation. on I 19. ? (1) (2) - (3) (4) 20. _____ (1) (2) (3) (4) - 21. - ? (1) - (2) (3) (4) / 22. , , (1) (2) , - (3) (4) mastery-oriented Shame _________ (1) has no relation to cognition. (2) can have negative impact on cognition. (3) is very effective to motivate the children to learn. (4) should be generated frequently in teaching-learning process. Which of the following is most effective mode of teaching-learning ? (1) Rote memorization of content (2) Exploration of between concepts (3) Observation without analysis (4) Imitation and repetition relationships A teacher should analyse the various errors made by students on a given task because (1) she can decide degree punishment accordingly. (2) understanding of errors are meaningful in the teachinglearning process. (3) she can segregate those who made more errors in comparison to others. (4) learning is solely correction of errors. based of on I 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. (8) It is difficult for children to learn when (1) information is presented disconnected chunks. (2) they are intrinsically motivated. (3) learning is socially contextualized. (4) content is represented through multiple ways. high arousal, high fear. (2) low arousal, high fear. (3) moderate arousal, no fear. (4) no arousal, no fear. Constructivist view of learning suggests that children ________ construction of their own knowledge. (1) have no role to play in (2) are solely dependent on adults for (3) play an active role in (4) are solely dependent on textbooks in Which of the following belief is good for learning ? (1) Ability is improvable. (2) Ability is fixed. (3) Efforts don t make any difference. (4) Failure is uncontrollable. Conceptual understanding among students is likely to improve in the settings which emphasise on (1) competitions. (2) textbook-centric pedagogy. (3) frequent examinations. (4) inquiry and dialogue. 23. , (1) - (2) (3) (4) - 24. ? (1) , (2) , (3) , (4) , 25. (1) (2) (3) (4) - 26. - ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 27. - , ? (1) (2) - - (3) (4) in Best state of learning is (1) P-I P-I 28. 29. (9) During a task, Saina is talking to I 28. , herself about ways she can proceed on the task. According to Lev Vygotsky s / ideas on language and thought; this , kind of private speech is a sign of ? (1) Cognitive immaturity. (1) (2) Self-regulation. (2) : (3) Ego-centricism. (3) - (4) Psychological disorder. (4) Evaluation practices should aim at 29. (1) labelling of students. (2) segregation of students for ability- (1) (2) - (3) (4) - - based groups. (3) identifying students needs and requirements. (4) identification of high-achievers for prize distribution. 30. Individual differences in development 30. of children can be attributed to ? (1) heredity only. (1) (2) environment only. (2) (3) neither heredity nor environment. (3) (4) interplay (4) of environment. heredity and I (10) PART II / II MATHEMATICS / P-I Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. : / : 31. 31. 32. 33. In how many ways, 48 small squares of 1 cm 1 cm can be arranged so that the resulting area is 48 cm2 ? (1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 2 In school assembly, students of a class are standing in a line. Ruhi is 19th from both ends. How many students are present in that class ? (1) 38 (2) 37 (3) 36 (4) 40 Asmita reaches school for a meeting 15 minutes before 8.30 am. She reached half an hour earlier than her colleague who is 40 minutes late for meeting. What is the scheduled time of the meeting ? (1) 8.15 am (2) 9.10 am (3) 8.45 am (4) 8.05 am 48 , 48 cm2 ? 1 cm 1 cm (1) (2) (3) (4) 32. 19 ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 33. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / 6 4 5 2 38 37 36 40 8.30 am 15 , 40 ? (1) 8.15 am (2) 9.10 am (3) 8.45 am (4) 8.05 am P-I 34. 35. (11) A number is larger than half of 100. It is more than 6 tens and less than 8 tens. The sum of its digits is 9. The tens digit is the double of the ones digit. What is the number ? I 34. 100 6 8 9 ? (1) 72 (1) 72 (2) 63 (3) 54 (2) (3) 63 54 (4) 81 (4) 81 The rates of various stationery items are given below : A packet of crayons - ` 15.50 A packet of pencils - ` 14.00 A packet of sketch pens - One scissors 35. ( - ) - ` 15.50 - ` 14.00 ` 22.50 - ` 22.50 - ` 17.00 - ` 17.00 One eraser - ` 2.00 - ` 2.00 One sheet of glazed paper - ` 2.50 A pack of decorative stickers ( ) - ` 2.50 - ` 5.00 Sohail buys one packet of crayons, two packets of pencils, one packet of sketch pens, one scissors, 5 sheets of glazed papers and one pack of decorative stickers. How much would he be required to pay ? (1) ` 98.00 (2) ` 86.50 (3) ` 100.50 (4) ` 102.00 , , , , 5 ? (1) (2) (3) (4) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ` 5.00 ` 98.00 ` 86.50 ` 100.50 ` 102.00 I 36. (12) A train starts from Patna on 30th May, P-I 36. 2020 at 23:40 hours and reaches Mumbai on 1st June, 2020 at 5:15 hours. What is the total travel time of train ? 37. 30 , 2020 23:40 1 , 2020 5:15 ? (1) 28 20 (2) 29 35 (1) 28 hours 20 minutes (2) 29 hours 35 minutes (3) 29 hours 15 minutes (3) 29 15 (4) 28 hours 25 minutes (4) 28 25 In a five digit number, the digit at the 37. hundreds place is three-fourth of the digit at ten thousands place and the digit at tens place is two-third of the digit at hundreds place. The digit at tens place is square of the smallest prime number and the digit at thousands place is the largest single digit prime number. If the digit at unit - , place is the largest single digit odd number, then the number is (1) 87649 (1) 87649 (2) 49327 (2) 49327 (3) 83419 (3) 83419 (4) 42937 (4) 42937 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / P-I 38. (13) What should be subtracted from the I 38. sum of 8008, 8088 and 8808 to obtain 17863 8008, 8088 8808 ? 17863 ? 39. (1) 6121 (2) 6131 7041 (3) 7041 7141 (4) 7141 (1) 6121 (2) 6131 (3) (4) A bucket of 16 litres capacity is filled 39. 16 to the brim with water. Water from this bucket is to be transferred into - smaller utensils. A mug filled to capacity has to be dipped 50 times to (Mug) 50 completely transfer the water in the - bucket into the utensils. What is the ? capacity of the mug ? (1) 225 mL (2) 250 mL 275 mL (3) 275 mL 320 mL (4) 320 mL (1) 225 mL (2) 250 mL (3) (4) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / I 40. 41. (14) P-I A taxi meter shows charges of ` 50 for the first two kilometres of journey and ` 16 for every subsequent kilometre travelled. Manju pays ` 258 as fare to travel from her house to the railway station. How far is the railway station from her home ? (1) 12 km (2) 13 km (3) 15 km (4) 18 km 40. The following table shows marks obtained out of 100 by Maria and Shehnaz in five subjects : 41. English Maria 74 Shehnaz 81 Maths 88 78 Social Science 65 77 Hindi 73 72 2 ` 50 ` 16 ` 258 ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 90 82 Science Based on the table above identify the correct statement from among the following : (1) Maria has scored more marks than Shehnaz in all the subjects except the languages. (2) Maria has scored more marks than Shehnaz in only two subjects. (3) Shehnaz s aggregate marks in Maths and Science are more than Maria s aggregate marks in these subjects. (4) The aggregate marks of Maria and Shehnaz are equal. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / 12 km 13 km 15 km 18 km 100 74 81 88 78 65 77 73 72 90 82 : (1) , (2) (3) (4) P-I (15) I 42. Which of the following is a desirable teaching-learning practice in the context of Mathematics ? (1) Open ended questions should be avoided to prevent confusion. (2) Intuitive understanding of concepts should be encouraged. (3) Open book tests should be avoided. (4) Students should be told to follow the prescribed steps of solving problems. 42. ? (1) ( ) (2) (3) (4) 43. Following are some questions posed by the teacher in the mathematics classroom : A. What is the area of the rectangle whose one side is 5 cm and perimeter is 30 cm ? B. Find a set of numbers whose median is 4. C. List all prime numbers between 43. : A. , 5 cm 30 cm ? B. 4 C. 0-8 D. , (1) A B C D (2) A, B C D (3) A B, C D (4) A C B D 0-8. D. (1) (2) (3) (4) Tell me anything mathematical information you know about rectangles. A & B are closed ended questions and C & D are open ended questions. A, B & C are closed ended and D is open ended question. A is closed ended and B, C & D are open ended questions. A & C are closed ended and B & D are open ended questions. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / I 44. (16) Which of the following is least likely to impact teaching-learning P-I 44. in - ? mathematics ? (1) Enhanced quality of feedback (2) Using results of assessment to (1) (2) modify teaching (3) Knowing assessment ways in affected (3) which the Providing complete solutions to Rohit realises that square is both a (4) students wrong answers. 45. confidence of learners. (4) 45. rhombus and a rectangle. He is at what stage of Van Hiele s visual thinking ? , ? (1) Level 0 (Recognition) (1) 0 ( ) (2) Level 1 (Analysis) (2) 1 ( ) (3) Level 2 (Relationships) (3) 2 ( ) (4) Level 3 (Deduction) (4) 3 ( ) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / P-I 46. (17) The sum of any two whole numbers I 46. is a whole number. This property of whole numbers is referred to as 47. (1) closure property (2) (1) commutative property (2) (3) associative property (3) (4) distributive property (4) Which of the following statements regarding mathematics 47. teaching- learning is incorrect ? (1) ? (1) Mathematical learning is a social process involving dialogue. (2) Culture and context has no role in constructing (2) mathematical Mathematical knowledge can be (3) created in primary class students through observation of pattern and generalisations. (4) knowledge. (3) Argumentation and negotiation play an important role in creating mathematical knowledge. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / (4) I 48. 49. (18) Which of the following statements is/are true regarding teaching Numbers at primary level ? A. Intuitive understanding of numbers should be encouraged. B. Writing numbers should be taught in sequence. C. Writing of numbers as Numerals should preceed counting. P-I 48. ? A. B. C. D. (1) A B (2) B C D. Order irrelevance of numbers should be encouraged. (1) A and B (2) B and C (3) A and D (3) A D (4) C and D (4) C D Which of the following is the most important aspect of teaching of mathematics at primary level ? (1) Making mathematics part children s life experiences. (2) Developing rigour in calculations. (3) Preparing for higher education and employment. (4) Promoting and technology. preparing 49. of for SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ? (1) (2) (3) (4) P-I 50. 51. 52. (19) Which of the following activities is most likely to develop spatial reasoning among students ? (1) Identifying patterns in a numberchart (2) Solving Sudoku puzzles (3) Identifying tessellating figures (4) Drawing bar graphs to represent data Which of the following is most suitable for teaching children the concept of fractions ? (1) Abacus (2) Geoboards (3) Number charts (4) Cuisenaire rods Which of the following statements is NOT correct with regard to nature of mathematics ? I 50. ( ) ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 51. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 52. ? (1) Argumentation skill is important in construction of mathematical knowledge. (1) (2) Mathematical concepts hierarchical in nature. are (2) (3) Primary level mathematics is concrete and does not require abstraction. (3) (4) Mathematics uses special vocabulary to communicate ideas precisely. (4) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / I 53. (20) In which of the following statements, P-I 53. number three is used in ordinal sense ? ? (1) (1) I live on the third floor of this building. (2) This house has three rooms. (3) All (4) (2) members. (3) This box contains many sets of (4) groups have three team three pencils. 54. Identify the correct statement. (1) 54. If two figures have same area, : (1) If two figures have same (2) The units of perimeter and area (3) are same. (4) , perimeter, their areas are equal. (3) , their perimeters are equal. (2) The shape of figure determines the perimeter. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / (4) P-I 55. 56. (21) Identify the correct statement with respect to the mathematics curriculum. (1) The foundation of algebraic thinking can be laid at primary level. (2) The concept of fractions should be introduced only at upper primary level. (3) The concept of negative numbers should be introduced at primary level for better understanding. (4) The concept of area-measurement should be introduced only at upper primary level. Identify the correct statement with regard to introducing the concept of triangles at primary level. (1) Definition of a triangle should be provided first. (2) Children should only be exposed to equilateral triangles to avoid confusion. (3) Children should be exposed to triangles of all types but exposure to other figures should be avoided. (4) Children should be exposed to triangles of all types and also to other figures. I 55. 56. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / (1) (2) (3) (4) - (1) (2) (3) (4) I 57. (22) In a division sum, the divisor is 5 P-I 57. , times the quotient and twice the 5 remainder. If the remainder is 5, what 5 , ? is the number ? 58. (1) 52 (2) 15 (3) 25 (4) 48 The sum of five consecutive numbers 58. is 20. What is the sum of first three (1) 52 (2) 15 (3) 25 (4) 48 20 ? consecutive numbers ? (1) (1) 5 (2) 9 (3) 11 (4) 12 5 (2) 9 (3) 11 (4) 12 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / P-I 59. (23) A wire in the form of a square I 59. encloses an area of 144 cm2. How much area is enclosed if the same wire is bent in the form of a rectangle of (1) 124 cm2 (1) 124 cm2 (2) 48 cm2 (2) 48 cm2 (3) 128 cm2 (3) 128 cm2 (4) 96 cm2 (4) 96 cm2 Amongst the following fractions, the 60. largest and second largest fractions, : : 5,3,1,2,3 6 4 2 3 5 5,3,1,2,3 6 4 2 3 5 5 3 and 6 4 (2) 5 3 and 6 5 (3) 3 2 and 5 3 (4) 3 1 and 4 2 , respectively are (1) 16 cm ? length 16 cm ? 60. 144 cm2 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / (1) 5 3 4 6 (2) 5 3 5 6 (3) 3 2 3 5 (4) 3 1 2 4 I (24) P-I PART III / III ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES / Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. : / : 61. 61. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 62. ( ) ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 63. ? (1) (2) (3) . (4) . 64. : A. B. C. / D. : (1) A B (2) C D (3) B, C D (4) A, C D 62. 63. 64. Which one of the following is NOT a Union Territory of India ? (1) Laddakh (2) Jammu & Kashmir (3) Manipur (4) Chandigarh Which among the following produce crude oil (Petroleum) ? (1) Bombay High and West Bengal (2) Assam and Odisha (3) Gujarat and Tamil Nadu (4) Bihar and Bombay High The Constitution of our country was prepared under the leadership of (1) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi (2) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel (3) Dr. Bhim Ambedkar (4) Sarvapalli Dr. Radha Krishnan Rao Baba Saheb Consider the following functions for plants : A. To give support to the plant B. To provide humus C. To store food D. To absorb water and minerals The functions of roots are (1) A and B only (2) C and D only (3) B, C and D (4) A, C and D P-I 65. (25) Pochampalli is a town of Southern I 65. , , ? State of India which is famous for its beautifully designed bright-coloured Pochampalli sarees and for the special kind of weave which is also called Pochampalli. This town is now a part of 66. (1) Karnataka (2) Kerala (3) Telangana (4) Tamil Nadu (1) (2) (3) (4) in iron. (1) Jaggery, Amla, Tomato (1) , , (2) Amla, Spinach, Jaggery (2) , , (3) Amla, Cabbage, Tomato (3) , , (4) Cabbage, Amla, Spinach (4) , , Select from the following a group of 66. eatables each member of which is rich 67. Select from the following a group of 67. far as we can see. (1) Doves, Crows, Peacocks (1) , , (2) Eagles, Pigeons, Parrots (2) , , (3) Crows, Kites, Nightingales (3) , , (4) Eagles, Kites, Vultures (4) , , birds each member of which is able to see distinctly the object four times as I 68. (26) In which one of the following states P-I 68. most villagers construct their wooden houses 3 to 3.5 m above the ground on 3 3.5 strong bamboo pillars with sloping ? roofs ? 69. (1) (2) Assam (3) Odisha (4) (1) Rajasthan (2) Laddakh (3) (4) With respect to the location of Delhi 69. on the map of India the directions of ( ) the locations of Gandhinagar (Capital ( ) : of Gujarat) and Patna (Capital of 70. Bihar) respective are (1) - - (1) south-east and south-west (2) - - (2) south-west and south-east (3) - - (3) north-east and south-west (4) south-west and north-east (4) - - Which one of the following did 70. experiments with pea plants and found that pea plant has some traits which come in pairs - such as rough or smooth, tall or short, yellow or green etc. ? , , , (1) . . . Gregor Johann Mendel (2) (3) George Mestral (3) (4) Charles Darwin (4) (1) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan (2) P-I 71. 72. 73. (27) Which of the following is one of the six themes suggested in the EVS syllabus as per NCF 2005 ? (1) Material (2) Natural Resources (3) Things we make and do (4) How things work What should be avoided in anecdotal records ? I 71. 2005 ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 72. ? a. Identifying mainly problematic situations a. b. Making judgement statements of b. c. Identifying weaknesses strengths and c. d. Identifying child s areas of interests and relationships, etc. d. (1) a and b (1) a b (2) c and d (2) c d (3) a, b and c (3) a, b c (4) a, c and d (4) a, c d How will you plan for an integrated EVS classroom ? 73. ? (1) Combine two or more subject areas into one lesson. (1) (2) Separate all the subjects into a different plans. (2) (3) Arrange separate teachers for science and social science. (3) (4) Arrange separate teacher specializing in environmental science (4) I 74. 75. 76. (28) Puneet gave his class V learners an outline of human body and asked them to draw the digestive system before teaching chapter on food. Puneet wanted to (1) test if learners labelled diagrams. could make (2) elicit learners digestion. ideas about (3) identify learners drawing skills. (4) evaluate learners on the process of digestion. with P-I 74. 5 (1) (2) (3) (4) 75. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 76. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) good Which of the following is not correct with respect to formative assessment ? (1) It is to be reported in every quarter of report card. (2) It helps the teacher in taking timely action for enhancing learning. (3) It is to monitor student s progress. (4) Any information on learning of child can help in formative assessment. Smita wanted to sensitize her learners about gender disparity and stereotypes related to work. What should Smita choose to do in her class from the following suggestions ? (1) Present students with stereotypical models. (2) Show flashcards of different kinds of work. (3) Ask only boys to sweep the classroom daily. (4) Invite a student s mother to class who is an auto driver. P-I 77. 78. (29) Smayan of class V usually does not do his given class work. The best measure to address the situation could be to (1) talk to him to find his difficulty and adjust class work accordingly. (2) make another child help complete his class work. (3) talk to parents and counsel them. (4) give him alternative and simpler home work. Muskan organized a debate on the topic Use of diesel vehicles in transportation should be prohibited . What is the purpose of organizing this debate by Muskan in classroom ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 79. I 77. 78. She wants to sensitize students on the need to ban diesel vehicles completely in transportation. It would help in knowing student s views and correcting them. She wants to sensitise students on advantages of using modern vehicles. It helps students in appreciating multiple perspectives on this issue. Mapping skills in EVS help develop (1) the skill of drawing landscapes (2) the skill of calculating (3) recording skill (4) understanding of relative position of places predicting and 79. V (1) (2) (3) - (4) - - ? (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) I 80. (30) The integrated nature of EVS helps to (1) P-I 80. (1) (2) (3) (4) 81. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 82. - 5 - ? a. b. c. 1000 d. reduce the curriculum load and introduce specific topics. (2) reduce curriculum load and help children to learn meaningfully. (3) follow child-centered approach and introduce larger number of concepts. (4) learn from information and description provided. 81. Which of the following is NOT a broad indicator of EVS assessment ? 82. (1) Co-operation (2) Concern for justice (3) Concern for equality (4) Concept mapping There is a paragraph in class V EVS textbook based on Al-Biruni s observation of construction of ponds in India some thousand years ago. What would be the purpose of including this paragraph ? a. It helps learners to identify sources of history. b. It helps learners to improve their recording of observations. c. It helps learners to appreciate technology present in India some 1000 years back. d. It helps learners to appreciate the role of evidence in history. (1) a, b, c (2) a, c, d (3) only a & d (4) only a & c (1) (2) (3) (4) a, b, c a, c, d a d a c P-I 83. (31) With over fifty students in her class, I 83. Vani wants to engage them in an activity which involves maximum number of senses to enhance learning. Which of the following activities will be suitable for this purpose ? , ? (1) skills. (2) (2) encouraging group discussion. (3) (3) using smart classroom for relevant - (4) (1) inviting resource persons from community to demonstrate their a-v material. (4) organizing field trip to a nearby place. 84. Why does Iqra encourage her learners 84. to read newspaper and magazines in EVS ? (1) These are entertaining resources available. (2) These help learners to engage - ? (1) (2) (3) (4) with the real world. (3) These help learners to become independent. (4) These help learners become competitive. 85. Questioning as a strategy in teachinglearning of EVS is used for 85. - (1) Maintaining discipline (1) (2) Drawing attention (2) (3) Promoting adherence to rules (3) (4) Arousing curiosity in classroom (4) - I 86. 87. (32) In which one of the following states P-I 86. the meaning of Torang is jungle ? ? (1) Assam (1) (2) Odisha (2) (3) Mizoram (3) (4) Jharkhand (4) X school is located at Y. Although your school is just opposite but you cannot go straight because of the busy highway in between. So, you first go 125 m 125 m due south, then cross a 100 m , long subway which is due east and finally reach your school at Y which is 125 m 125 m due north. With respect to Y X school at Y your house at X is ? Your house is located at X and your 87. Y Y 100 m (1) 125 m due south (1) 125 m (2) 100 m due east (2) 100 m (3) 100 m due west (3) 100 m (4) 125 m due north (4) 125 m P-I 88. (33) I average speed of the train was nearly 4 , 2020 22.30 6 , 2020 04:30 1145 km , ? (1) 36.5 km/h (1) 36.5 km/h (2) 38.5 km/h (2) 38.5 km/h (3) 40.5 km/h (3) 40.5 km/h (4) 42.5 km/h (4) 42.5 km/h A boy boarded a train on 4th June, 88. 2020 at Nagarcoil for Madgaon. The train departed at 22:30 hours from Nagarcoil and reached Madgaon at 04:30 hours on 6th June, 2020. If the distance covered by the train during this time interval is 1145 km, the 89. Which one of the following statements 89. is NOT true for the honeybees and beehives ? (1) ? (1) (2) (3) (4) Every beehive has one queen bee that lays eggs. (2) Male bees are very important for the hives. (3) Most of the bees in the hive are worker bees. (4) There are only a few males in the hive. 90. Today we cannot think of food without chillies. These were brought to our country by traders coming from (1) Afghanistan (2) England (3) South America (4) South Africa 90. (1) (2) (3) (4) I (34) PART IV LANGUAGE I ENGLISH P-I IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part IV (Q. No. 91-120), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE I only. Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 91 to 99), by selecting the correct/ most appropriate options : 1. Each drop represents a little bit of creation and of life itself. When the monsoon brings to northern India the first rains of summer, the parched earth opens its pores and quenches its thirst with a hiss of ecstasy. After baking in the sun for the last few months, the land looks cracked, dusty and tired. Now, almost overnight, new grass springs up, there is renewal everywhere, and the damp earth releases a fragrance sweeter than any devised by man. 2. Water brings joy to earth, grass, leafbud, blossom, insect, bird, animal and the pounding heart of man. Small children run out of their homes to romp naked in the rain. Buffaloes, which have spent the summer listlessly around lakes gone dry, now plunge into a heaven of muddy water. Soon the lakes and rivers will overflow with the monsoon s generosity. Trekking in the Himalayan foothills, I recently walked for kilometres without encountering habitation. I was just scolding myself for not having brought along a waterbottle, when I came across a patch of green on a rock face. I parted a curtain of tender maiden hair fern and discovered a tiny spring issuing from the rock-nectar for the thirsty traveller. 3. I stayed there for hours, watching the water descend, drop by drop, into a tiny casement in the rocks. Each drop reflected creation. That same spring, I later discovered, joined other springs to form a swift, tumbling stream, which went cascading down the hill into other streams until, in the plains, it became part of a river. And that river flowed into another mightier river that kilometres later emptied into the ocean. Be like water, taught Laotzu, philosopher and founder of Taoism. Soft and limpid, it finds its way through, over or under any obstacle. It does not quarrel; it simply moves on. 91. Children respond to the first rains of summer by 92. (1) giving shouts of joy. (2) floating paper boats in water. (3) running and playing in the rain. (4) singing songs. The tiny spring issuing from the rock is hidden by (1) thick moss. (2) maiden hair fern. (3) bushes and creepers. (4) tall grass. P-I 93. (35) To become part of a river, a tiny drop has to 94. (1) have a lot of strength. (2) depend on external forces. (3) suffer a lot. (4) merge its identity. I 97. contains an error ? He knew that he will (a) (b) on his promise . (d) Which of the following words is most similar in meaning to the word pounding as used in para 2 of the passage ? 95. (1) shaking (2) benumbing (3) palpitating (4) sinking 98. most opposite in meaning to the word descend (para 3) as used in the passage ? 96. flow (2) ascend (3) hover (4) zoom Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ? (1) (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (d) go back (c) Which of the following statements is not true ? Which one of the following words is (1) Which part of the following sentence (1) There is renewal everywhere. (2) New grasses spring up. (3) The sweltering heat comes to an end. (4) The damp earth releases a sweet fragrance. 99. The earth does not look _______ before the onset of the monsoon. Almost overnight new grass spring up. (1) cracked (1) Preposition (2) brown (2) Pronoun (3) Adjective (3) dusty (4) Adverb (4) tired I Directions : Read the poem given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 100 to 105) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options : I think that I shall never see A poem lovely as a tree. A tree whose hungry mouth is prest Against the earth s sweet flowing breast; A tree that looks at God all day, And lifts her leafy arms to pray; (36) P-I 102. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the poem ? (1) The tree welcomes the snow on its bosom. (2) The tree symbolizes strength and stability. (3) The tree allows birds to build their nests in it. (4) It lives closely with rain. A tree that may in Summer wear A nest of robins in her hair; 103. Name the figure of speech used in Upon whose bosom snow has lain; Who intimately lives with rain. Poems are made by fools like me, But only God can make a tree. 100. The tree presses its mouth against the lines 3 and 4. (1) Simile (2) Personification (3) Metonymy (4) Alliteration sweet earth s flowing breast to (1) express its gratitude to it. 104. Identify and name the figure of speech used in Poems are made by fools like (2) draw sustenance from it. me . (3) draw inspiration from it. (1) Metaphor (4) express its love for it. (2) Personification (3) Simile (4) Hyperbole 101. The tree prays to God by (1) swinging its branches. (2) lifting her arms. (3) producing fruit and flowers. (4) providing shade to travellers. 105. The word, mouth in line 3 refers to the ________ of the tree. (1) crown (2) branches (3) trunk (4) roots P-I Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate options. 106. A language teacher firstly, asks students to introduce themselves to each other in the class. Then she asks (37) I 109. In a language class students are memorizing the dialogues through drill and practice and the teacher is correcting mistakes their pronunciation, immediately. teacher is following the other. This activity will help them to (1) Direct method (2) Natural method (3) Audiolingual method (4) CLT method (1) BICS (2) CALP (3) PPPP (4) ELT 107. Literature should be included in language classroom because (1) (2) corrects an error directly after the student has made the error. (2) points out the error in general and lets the student try to correct himself first. (3) ignores the error as it may hamper their learning. (4) asks other students to help him as peer tutoring is must in schools. it develops moral values among the learners. (4) (1) it gives exposure to different grammatical forms and structures. (3) 110. The oral errors of the students can be best corrected if the teacher it helps learners to be budding writers. it exposes them to are practising the dialogues in chorus. The them to introduce their friend to each increase They different genres, culture and social issues. 108. A teacher makes her learners respond to her actions and speech only by bodily movements. What is this known as ? 111. As a pair activity the teacher gives her learners almost the same pictures and asks them to find the difference between the two students, ask each other questions to discover how the two pictures are different. This can be a (1) Total Physical Response (1) grammar activity (2) Task Based Language Teaching (2) speaking activity (3) Communicative Approach (3) cloze based activity (4) Play-way method (4) crosswords activity I 112. A student of class IV is having some problem in writing. She may have (1) dyslexia (2) dysgraphia (3) dysphasia (4) dyscalculia 113. It specifies the rules which govern the arrangement of words into phrases, clauses and sentences. (1) Discourse (2) Semantics (3) Syntax (4) Cohesion 114. A teacher of class VI has labelled the classroom objects such as blackboard, door, window, fan, table, chair etc. in different languages (Hindi, English, Urdu, Sanskrit etc). Here the classroom as a whole (1) is learning through grammar translation method. (2) is creating a language confusion in students. (3) is focusing on three language formula. (4) is a rich resource for promoting multilingualism. 115. The assessment process not only assesses students learning but also assesses teacher s teaching process. This statement is (1) fully wrong (2) fully right (3) partially right (4) baseless 116. The language which is learnt from environment without any explicit teaching is (1) First language (2) Second language (3) Third language (4) School language (38) P-I 117. A teacher is facing the problem of students poor spelling. She listed the probable causes for it and then decided to frame some steps to overcome it. This whole process is (1) Problem solving (2) Improving spelling (3) Action research (4) Applied research 118. Reading picture book means (1) exposing learners to different styles of drawing. (2) to help learners to understand and analyse the pictures. (3) to help learners to draw neat and colourful pictures. (4) that children love pictures and it will be a fun loving class. 119. Before starting a new chapter from a textbook, a teacher should at first focus on ________. (1) the background setting of story, its history etc. (2) the work profile of the poet/writer. (3) relating the story with the previous experiences of learners. (4) the grammatical structures in the chapter and difficult words. 120. Teacher asks learners to read aloud in the English class. This way of reading will (1) enable learners to develop reading skill with understanding. (2) enable learners to read with correct pronunciation using the punctuation marks. (3) enable a learner to be a fast reader. (4) help the teacher to complete the syllabus within the stipulated time. P-I (39) IV I I : IV . . 91 120) I 91. (91 99 ) , ? (1) (2) (3) (4) , 92. , , , , , ? (1) (2) (3) , (4) - 93. , - , (1) (2) (3) (4) , 94. , , , ? , (1) (2) , (3) (4) - I 95. 96. (40) ? (1) (2) (3) (4) _____ 97. (1) (2) (3) (4) - (1) (2) (3) (4) P-I ( 100 105 ) , - , , , , , - , , - , , , , 100. 98. 99. ? - , (1) (1) (2) (2) (3) (3) (4) (4) ? 101. (1) (1) (2) (2) (3) (3) (4) (4) P-I 102. (41) I : (1) (2) (3) (1) (4) (2) (3) (4) 106. _____ 103. (1) (2) (3) (4) 107. ? 104. - (1) + (2) + (3) + (4) + 108. (1) (2) - : (3) - (4) - 105. - _____ , , (2) , , (3) (3) , , (4) (4) , , (2) _____ - (1) (1) _____, I 109. 110. (42) (1) (2) : (3) (4) P-I 112. (1) - (2) (3) (4) - ? ? 113. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 111. ? _____ (1) (2) - (3) (4) ? 114. : _____ (1) (1) (2) (2) (3) (3) (4) (4) P-I 115. 116. 117. (43) _____ I 118. _____ _____ (1) (1) , (2) (2) , (3) (3) , (4) (4) , ? (1) (2) - (3) - (4) - _____ 119. 120. - _____ (1) (2) - (3) (4) - , (1) (1) (2) (2) (3) (3) (4) (4) I (44) PART V LANGUAGE II ENGLISH P-I IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part V (Q. No. 121-150), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE II only. Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 121 to 128) by choosing the correct/most appropriate options : 1. 2. 3. The study of handwriting is known as graphology and it has been practised for hundreds of years. Professional forensic graphologists have worked on many court cases to use handwriting to link suspects with crimes. Handwriting is particularly important legally in the case of signatures and proving whether signatures are real or forged can be pivotal. Graphologists also work to verify whether autographs are real or fake. Some handwriting analysts also study writing samples to determine personality types and some businesses commission this analysis before hiring new employees. The method is even sometimes used to help couples see if they are compatible. According to graphologists, there is very little you can t tell from a persons handwriting. 4. From psychological conditions like high blood pressure and schizophrenia to personality traits like dominance and aggression : if you write by hand, graphologists can analyse you. 5. Everything from the size of your letters to how closely you space words can reveal intricate details of your personality. In general, the size of your letters can reveal whether you are shy or outgoing. Compared to a standard lined sheet of paper, if you write with tiny letters that do not reach the top line, you are likely to have a timid and introverted personality. If you write with large letters that go over the topline, you are likely to be the opposite : outgoing, confident and attention seeking. 6. Studies suggest that people who space words widely like freedom and independence, whereas those choosing to write with small spaces prefer to be among others and do not like to be alone. 121. A graphologist can give accurate information about (1) a person s popularity graph. (2) a person s mental health. (3) setbacks a person is likely to face in future. (4) a person s chances of success. 122. A person who writes with large letters that cross over to the top line is likely to be (1) outgoing. (2) introverted. (3) aggressive. (4) diffident. 123. An attention seeking, confident person writes with (1) tiny letters. (2) cursive letters. (3) large letters. (4) rounded letters. 124. Read the following statements : A. Graphology has been practised for thousands of years. B. A person s handwriting reveals (1) everything about him. A is true and B is false. (2) A is false and B is true. (3) Both A and B are true. (4) Both A and B are false. P-I 125. Which one of the following words is similar in meaning to the word, verify (Para-2) as used in the passage ? (1) Clarify (2) Confirm (3) Notify (4) Discover (45) I Directions : Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 129 to 135) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. 1. There is something we all want to do, although few of us readily admit it : Get rid of guests. 2. For nine months in the year, only my closest friends come to see me. Then, when temperatures start soaring in the plains, long-lost acquaintances suddenly remember that I exist, and people whom I am barely able to recognize appear at the front door, willing to have me put them up for periods ranging from six days to six weeks. 3. Occasionally, I am the master of the situation I inform them that the cottage is already bursting, that people are sleeping on the floor. If the hopefuls start looking around for signs of these uncomfortable guests, I remark that they have all gone out for a picnic. 4. The other day I received visitors who proved to be more thick-skinned than most. The man was a friend of a friend of an acquaintance of mine. I had never seen him before. But on the strength of this distant relationship, he had brought his family along. 5. I tried the usual ploy but it didn t work. The man and his family were perfectly willing to share the floor with any others who might be staying with me. 6. So I made my next move. I must warn you about the scorpions , I said. The scorpion-scare is effective with most people. But I was dealing with professionals. The man set his son rolling up the carpet. Sometimes centipedes fall from the ceiling , I said desperately. 126. Which one of the following words is opposite in meaning to reveal (Para5) as used in the passage ? (1) Blacken (2) Repeal (3) Conceal (4) Teal 127. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ? Graphologists can verify whether the autographs are real or fake ? (1) Adverb (2) Preposition (3) Pronoun (4) Conjunction 128. Which of the following statements is not true ? Handwriting is used by graphologists to (1) nail criminals. (2) verify genuineness of signatures. (3) help couples to determine their suitability to each other. (4) predict about a person s future criminal tendency. I 7. 8. 9. (46) We were now interrupted by someone knocking on the front door. It was the postman with a rejected manuscript, his arrival inspired me to greater inventiveness. I m terribly sorry , I said, staring hard at a rejection slip. I m afraid I have to leave immediately. A paper wants me to interview the Maharishi. I hope you won t mind. Would you like the name of a good hotel ? Oh, don t worry about us , said the woman expansively. We ll look after the house while you are away. 129. Which one of the following ploys does the author not use to get rid of unwanted guests ? (1) The place scorpions. is infested with (2) Centipedes fall from the ceiling. (3) There is acute water scarcity. (4) He has already too many guests. 130. Which of the following does not apply to the unwelcome guests ? P-I 132. Which one of the following words is similar in meaning to the word, readily (Para 1) as used in the passage ? (1) frankly (2) easily (3) efficiently (4) plainly 133. Which one of the following words is opposite in meaning to the word, soaring (Para 2) as used in the passage ? (1) hovering (2) exasperating (3) falling (4) deteriorating 134. Which part of the following sentence contains an error ? Both Raghunath as well as Ravish (a) have given their consent (b) (c) to the new proposal (d) (1) (d) (1) They are utterly shameless. (2) (a) (2) They want to enjoy themselves at the author s expense. (3) (c) (4) (b) (3) They are thick-skinned. (4) They don t have enough money to stay at a hotel. 131. The postman delivered to the author (1) a letter inviting him to interview the Maharishi. (2) his rejected manuscript alongwith a cheque. (3) his rejected manuscript alongwith a rejection slip. (4) a letter commissioning him to write a new novel. 135. Which of the following is true ? People who visit the author at the onset of the summer are (1) his old school mates. (2) his closest friends and relatives. (3) people whom he hardly knows. (4) his colleagues. P-I Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate options. 136. Which one of the following activities comes under CALP ? (1) Writing book reviews (2) Making reservations (3) Answering calls (4) Making an appointment for a saloon 137. The branch of linguistics that deals with the explanation of the relation between language and society is known as _________ (1) Societal language (2) Psycholinguistics (3) Sociolinguistics (4) Anthropological linguistics 138. Formative assessment helps in (1) assessing a teacher s efficiency in teaching. (2) providing qualitative feedback to learners to improve. (3) creating an environment where learners can compete with each other. (4) engaging learners in meaningful tasks and preparing them for competitive exams. 139. Communicative language teaching method in English lays stress on giving opportunities to learners to participate in a purposeful talk in the classroom as it promotes (1) the use of mother tongue freely in the classroom. (2) learners to encounter with real life situations. (3) their written expression in the classroom. (4) learners to minimize spelling and grammatical errors. (47) I 140. As per Stephen Krashen, The effective language teacher is someone who can provide input and help make it _________ in a low anxiety situation. (1) easier (2) grammatical (3) comprehensible (4) fluent 141. A teacher divides the class into groups of five and asks them to discuss what they would do if they were caught in one of the following situations : Their friend falls down in the play field and is hurt .. They are trapped in a building on fire . They are stuck up in a traffic jam . This activity is based on ________ (1) Grammar translation method (2) Audio lingual approach (3) Communicative Language Teaching (CLT) Approach (4) Structural Approach 142. The one that cannot be further divided into smaller grammatically meaningful components is _________ (1) a phoneme (2) a morpheme (3) a diphthong (4) syntax I 143. Alka, a student of class III often makes a mistake between /sh/ and /s/. As a language teacher your interpretation will be (1) Alka is a careless student. (2) It s due to influence of her dialect or language. (3) Alka s pronunciation is not clear hence you will give her more practice. (4) As a teacher you will ignore such silly mistakes. 144. A language teacher asks students to make a butterfly with paper by following her instructions. This activity will help the students to develop _________. (1) paper making skill (2) listening comprehension (3) paper folding skill (4) reading comprehension 145. A language teacher asks students to collect flowers to make a flower scrap book. She also asks them to write the name of each flower in their language and in English. This activity will help her to promote _________. (1) a love for nature (2) integration of subjects (3) multilingualism (4) language across the curriculum 146. In which of the following the role of the learner is that of an independent learner ? (1) Teaching Aid (2) Building as a Learning Aid (3) Teaching learning materials (4) Integrated materials (48) P-I 147. Creating a reading corner in the classroom helps ________ (1) children to learn and revise their syllabus thoroughly. (2) to provide opportunities to children to select books independently as per their interest. (3) the children but burdens the teacher to maintain a register and keep record of their work. (4) to share the responsibility of the librarian as the books are issued by the teacher. 148. Small kids at their initial stage love to move pen and pencil in to and fro or up and down position. This way of writing is _________ (1) drawing (2) scribbling (3) invented writing (4) zig-zag writing 149. In a language classroom a teacher is asking students to interact in groups and then share their personal response to the poem with each other. This task promotes social interaction as advocated by _________ (1) Chomsky (2) Piaget (3) Skinner (4) Lev Vygotsky 150. In a language classroom you have asked students to write down the directions for reaching your home from school. When students have written down the directions, they will then present their directions in pairs to each other. This activity will help to increase (1) their CALP (Cognitive Academic Language Proficiency). (2) their Basic Interpersonal Communication Skills (BICS). (3) their directional sense which a student often confuses. (4) the integration of language with science. P-I (49) V I II : V . . 121 150) II ( . 121 128 ) / 122. , , , 121. - 123. 124. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) , (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) 125. _____ (1) (1) (2) (2) (3) (3) (4) (4) I 126. - 127. 128. (1) + (2) : + (3) : + (4) + - ? (1) (2) (3) (4) _____ (1) (2) (3) (4) (50) P-I , : , , - , , - 129. (1) (2) (3) (4) 130. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 131. - ? (1) (2) (3) (4) ( . 129 135 ) / : , 50 P-I 132. (51) (1) (2) (3) (4) I : 136. 133. : 134. (1) (2) (3) (4) 137. (1) (2) (3) (4) 138. 135. - ? (1) (2) - (3) (4) - (1) (2) (3) : (4) - (1) - / (1) (2) (2) (3) (3) (4) (4) I 139. (52) - P-I 142. (1) - (2) - (3) (4) , - - ? (1) (2) - (3) 140. (4) - 141. (1) (2) - (3) (1) (4) (2) - (3) (4) 143. , - 144. - , - : _____ (1) (1) (2) (2) (3) (3) (4) (4) P-I (53) 145. _____ I 148. (1) (2) (3) (4) - ? (1) (2) (1) , (2) , (3) , (4) , 149. 146. _____ _____ (3) (4) , _____ _____ (1) , (2) , (3) , (4) , 150. 147. _____ (1) (2) (3) (4) ? (1) (2) - (3) (4) I (54) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK P-I P-I (55) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK I (56) READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY: 1. The manner in which the different questions are to be answered has been explained in the Test Booklet which you should read carefully before actually answering the questions. 2. Out of the four alternatives for each question, only one circle for the correct answer is to be darkened completely with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen on Side-2 of the OMR Answer Sheet. The answer once marked is not liable to be changed. 3. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Answer Sheet. 4. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Test Booklet Code or Number and Answer Sheet Code or Number), another set will be provided. 5. The candidates will write the correct Test Booklet Code and Number as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet. 6. A machine will read the coded information in the OMR Answer Sheet. Hence, no information should be left incomplete and it should not be different from the information given in the Admit Card. 7. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic device or any other material except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/ room. 8. Mobile phones, wireless communication devices (even in switched off mode) and the other banned items should not be brought in the examination halls/ rooms. Failing to comply with this instruction, it will be considered as using unfair means in the examination and action will be taken against them including cancellation of examination. 9. Each candidate must show on demand his / her Admit Card to the Invigilator. 10. No candidate, without special permission of the Centre Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his / her seat. 11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall/ Room without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. The candidates are also required to put their left hand THUMB impression in the space provided in the Attendance Sheet. 12. Use of Electronic / Manual Calculator is prohibited. 13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Examining Body with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall/Room. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Examining Body. 14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances. 15. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator in the Hall / Room. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. I 1. 2. OMR 3. 4. 5. 7. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 2

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