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ICSE Class X Notes 2025 : History and Civics

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ICSE Analysis of Pupil Performance HISTORY CIVICS & GEOGRAPHY Research Development and Consultancy Division Council for the Indian School Certificate Examinations New Delhi Year 2019 __________________________________________________________________________________ Published by: Research Development and Consultancy Division (RDCD) Council for the Indian School Certificate Examinations Pragati House, 3rd Floor 47-48, Nehru Place New Delhi-110019 Tel: (011) 26413820/26411706 E-mail: council@cisce.org Copyright, Council for the Indian School Certificate Examinations All rights reserved. The copyright to this publication and any part thereof solely vests in the Council for the Indian School Certificate Examinations. This publication and no part thereof may be reproduced, transmitted, distributed or stored in any manner whatsoever, without the prior written approval of the Council for the Indian School Certificate Examinations. FOREWORD This document of the Analysis of Pupils Performance at the ISC Year 12 and ICSE Year 10 Examination is one of its kind. It has grown and evolved over the years to provide feedback to schools in terms of the strengths and weaknesses of the candidates in handling the examinations. We commend the work of Mrs. Shilpi Gupta (Deputy Head) of the Research Development and Consultancy Division (RDCD) of the Council and her team, who have painstakingly prepared this analysis. We are grateful to the examiners who have contributed through their comments on the performance of the candidates under examination as well as for their suggestions to teachers and students for the effective transaction of the syllabus. We hope the schools will find this document useful. We invite comments from schools on its utility and quality. Gerry Arathoon Chief Executive & Secretary October 2019 i PREFACE The Council has been involved in the preparation of the ICSE and ISC Analysis of Pupil Performance documents since the year 1994. Over these years, these documents have facilitated the teaching-learning process by providing subject/ paper wise feedback to teachers regarding performance of students at the ICSE and ISC Examinations. With the aim of ensuring wider accessibility to all stakeholders, from the year 2014, the ICSE and the ISC documents have been made available on the Council s website www.cisce.org. The documents include a detailed qualitative analysis of the performance of students in different subjects which comprises of examiners comments on common errors made by candidates, topics found difficult or confusing, marking scheme for each question and suggestions for teachers/ candidates. In addition to a detailed qualitative analysis, the Analysis of Pupil Performance documents for the Examination Year 2019 also have a component of a detailed quantitative analysis. For each subject dealt with in the document, both at the ICSE and the ISC levels, a detailed statistical analysis has been done, which has been presented in a simple user-friendly manner. It is hoped that this document will not only enable teachers to understand how their students have performed with respect to other students who appeared for the ICSE/ISC Year 2019 Examinations, but also provide information on how they have performed within the Region or State, their performance as compared to other Regions or States, etc. It will also help develop a better understanding of the assessment/ evaluation process. This will help teachers in guiding their students more effectively and comprehensively so that students prepare for the ICSE/ ISC Examinations, with a better understanding of what is required from them. The Analysis of Pupil Performance document for ICSE for the Examination Year 2019 covers the following subjects: English (English Language, Literature in English), Hindi, History, Civics and Geography (History and Civics, Geography), Mathematics, Science (Physics, Chemistry, Biology), Commercial Studies, Economics, Computer Applications, Economic Applications, Commercial Applications. Subjects covered in the ISC Analysis of Pupil Performance document for the Year 2019 include English (English Language and Literature in English), Hindi, Elective English, Physics (Theory), Chemistry (Theory), Biology (Theory), Mathematics, Computer Science, History, Political Science, Geography, Sociology, Psychology, Economics, Commerce, Accounts and Business Studies. I would like to acknowledge the contribution of all the ICSE and the ISC examiners who have been an integral part of this exercise, whose valuable inputs have helped put this document together. I would also like to thank the RDCD team of Dr. M.K. Gandhi, Dr. Manika Sharma, Mrs. Roshni George and Mrs. Mansi Guleria who have done a commendable job in preparing this document. Shilpi Gupta Deputy Head - RDCD October 2019 ii CONTENTS Page No. FOREWORD i PREFACE ii INTRODUCTION 1 QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS HISTORY, CIVICS & GEOGRAPHY 3 QUALITATIVE ANALYSIS History and Civics (H.C.G.-Paper -1) 10 Geography (H.C.G.-Paper -2) 33 INTRODUCTION This document aims to provide a comprehensive picture of the performance of candidates in the subject. It comprises of two sections, which provide Quantitative and Qualitative analysis results in terms of performance of candidates in the subject for the ICSE Year 2019 Examination. The details of the Quantitative and the Qualitative analysis are given below. Quantitative Analysis This section provides a detailed statistical analysis of the following: Overall Performance of candidates in the subject (Statistics at a Glance) State wise Performance of Candidates Gender wise comparison of Overall Performance Region wise comparison of Performance Comparison of Region wise performance on the basis of Gender Comparison of performance in different Mark Ranges and comparison on the basis of Gender for the top and bottom ranges Comparison of performance in different Grade categories and comparison on the basis of Gender for the top and bottom grades The data has been presented in the form of means, frequencies and bar graphs. Understanding the tables Each of the comparison tables shows N (Number of candidates), Mean Marks obtained, Standard Errors and t-values with the level of significance. For t-test, mean values compared with their standard errors indicate whether an observed difference is likely to be a true difference or whether it has occurred by chance. The t-test has been applied using a confidence level of 95%, which means that if a difference is marked as statistically significant (with * mark, refer to t-value column of the table), the probability of the difference occurring by chance is less than 5%. In other words, we are 95% confident that the difference between the two values is true. t-test has been used to observe significant differences in the performance of boys and girls, gender wise differences within regions (North, East, South and West), gender wise differences within marks ranges (Top and bottom ranges) and gender wise differences within grades awarded (Grade 1 and Grade 9) at the ICSE Year 2019 Examination. The analysed data has been depicted in a simple and user-friendly manner. 1 Given below is an example showing the comparison tables used in this section and the manner in which they should be interpreted. The table shows comparison between the performances of boys and girls in a particular subject. The t-value of 11.91 is significant at Comparison on the basis of Gender Gender Girls Boys *Significant at 0.05 level N 2,538 1,051 Mean 66.1 60.1 SE 0.29 0.42 t-value 11.91* 0.05 level (mentioned below the table) with a mean of girls as 66.1 and that of boys as 60.1. It means that there is significant difference between the performance of boys and girls in the subject. The probability of this difference occurring by chance is less than 5%. The mean value of girls is higher than that of boys. It can be interpreted that girls are performing significantly better than boys. The results have also been depicted pictographically. In this case, the girls performed significantly better than the boys. This is depicted by the girl with a medal. Qualitative Analysis The purpose of the qualitative analysis is to provide insights into how candidates have performed in individual questions set in the question paper. This section is based on inputs provided by examiners from examination centres across the country. It comprises of question wise feedback on the performance of candidates in the form of Comments of Examiners on the common errors made by candidates along with Suggestions for Teachers to rectify/ reduce these errors. The Marking Scheme for each question has also been provided to help teachers understand the criteria used for marking. Topics in the question paper that were generally found to be difficult or confusing by candidates, have also been listed down, along with general suggestions for candidates on how to prepare for the examination/ perform better in the examination. 2 QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS STATISTICS AT A GLANCE Total Number of Candidates: 1,96,215 Highest Marks: 100 Mean Marks: Lowest Marks: 02 74.1 3 PERFORMANCE (STATE-WISE & FOREIGN) West Bengal Uttarakhand Uttar Pradesh Tripura Telangana Tamil Nadu Sikkim Rajasthan Punjab Puducherry Odisha New Delhi Nagaland Meghalaya Manipur Maharashtra Madhya Pradesh Kerala Karnataka Jharkhand Himachal Pradesh Haryana Gujarat Goa Chhattisgarh Chandigarh Bihar Assam Arunachal Pradesh Andhra Pradesh Foreign 72.3 70.2 69.3 67.9 77.1 79.2 65.7 78.7 71.2 77.3 72.2 71.4 76.1 71.6 78.0 84.2 68.8 80.3 80.5 70.8 74.2 77.4 73.1 83.8 66.4 77.0 74.8 81.7 55.3 73.7 85.6 The States of Maharashtra, Goa and Assam secured highest mean marks. Mean marks secured by candidates studying in schools abroad were 85.6. 4 GENDER-WISE COMPARISON GIRLS BOYS Mean Marks: 75.5 Mean Marks: 73.0 Number of Number of Candidates: 89,284 Candidates: 1,06,931 Comparison on the basis of Gender Gender Girls Boys N Mean SE t-value 89,284 1,06,931 75.5 73.0 0.06 0.06 30.16* *Significant at 0.05 level Girls performed significantly better than boys. 5 REGION-WISE COMPARISON East North Mean Marks: 72.1 Mean Marks: 70.0 Number of Candidates: 62,745 Number of Candidates: 69,209 Highest Marks: 100 Lowest Marks: 15 Highest Marks: 100 Lowest Marks: 02 Mean Marks: 79.2 REGION Number of Candidates: 38,455 Highest Marks: 100 Lowest Marks: 12 South Mean Marks: 82.6 Number of Candidates: 25,380 Mean Marks: 85.6 Number of Candidates: 426 Highest Marks: 100 Lowest Marks: 40 Foreign 6 Highest Marks: 100 Lowest Marks: 16 West Mean Marks obtained by Boys and Girls-Region wise 71.5 68.9 North 73.0 80.4 71.3 East 83.8 78.1 South 86.2 81.7 West 84.9 Foreign Comparison on the basis of Gender within Region Region North (N) East (E) South (S) West (W) Foreign (F) Gender Girls Boys Girls Boys Girls Boys Girls Boys Girls Boys *Significant at 0.05 level N Mean SE 30,351 38,858 28,313 34,432 19,120 19,335 11,275 14,105 225 201 71.5 68.9 73.0 71.3 80.4 78.1 83.8 81.7 86.2 84.9 0.10 0.10 0.11 0.10 0.10 0.11 0.13 0.12 0.86 0.95 REGION (N, E, S, W) 7 t-value 18.78* 11.98* 14.85* 11.55* 1.03 MARK RANGES : COMPARISON GENDER-WISE Comparison on the basis of gender in top and bottom mark ranges Marks Range Top Range (81-100) Bottom Range (0-20) *Significant at 0.05 level Gender Girls Boys Girls Boys N Mean SE 42,204 45,300 33 110 90.1 89.9 18.3 18.9 0.03 0.02 0.58 0.21 Boys Girls t-value 6.21* -0.96 All Candidates Marks Range (81-100) 89.9 81 - 100 90.1 90.0 71.3 61 - 80 Marks Range (81-100) 71.5 71.4 51.7 41 - 60 52.1 51.9 33.5 Marks Range (0-20) 21 - 40 34.1 33.7 18.9 0 - 20 18.3 18.7 8 GRADES AWARDED : COMPARISON GENDER-WISE Comparison on the basis of gender in Grade 1 and Grade 9 Grades Grade 1 Grade 9 *Significant at 0.05 level Gender Girls Boys Girls Boys N Mean SE 23,118 24,079 33 110 94.3 94.1 18.3 18.9 0.02 0.02 0.58 0.21 Boys Girls t-value 5.06* -0.96 All Candidates 94.1 94.3 94.2 1 Grade 1 84.7 84.7 84.7 2 75.7 75.7 75.7 3 66.6 66.7 66.7 4 Grade 1 56.6 56.8 56.7 5 47.8 47.8 47.8 6 Grade 9 37.9 38.2 38.0 7 8 9 9 25.1 25.3 25.2 18.9 18.3 18.7 QUALITATIVE ANALYSIS HISTORY AND CIVICS (H.C.G.-PAPER-1) PART I (30 Marks) Attempt all questions from this Section Question 1 (a) What is the normal term of office of the Lok Sabha? [1] (b) State the meaning of the term Question Hour. [1] (c) Name the Presiding officer of the Lok Sabha. [1] (d) State any one condition when the Parliament can legislate on subjects in the State List. [1] (e) Write any one circumstance when the President can declare a National Emergency. [1] (f) What happens when a motion of No-Confidence is passed against a Minister? [1] (g) On whose advice can the President appoint the Council of Ministers? [1] (h) What is meant by Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? [1] (i) On what grounds can a Supreme Court Judge be removed from office? [1] (j) State one point of distinction between a District Judge and a Sessions Judge. [1] 10 Comments of Examiner (a) Majority of the candidates were able to answer this question very well. However, a few candidates confused the term of office of the Lok Sabha with that of the Rajya Sabha and wrote, six years. (b) Majority of the candidates were able to answer this question correctly. Some candidates, however, seemed to have no idea of what Question Hour meant. (c) Most of the candidates wrote the correct answer which was, the Speaker. However, a few candidates mentioned Prime Minister. (d) A few candidates were not able to specify that during an emergency, or on the request of two or more states, the Parliament could make a law on the State list. (e) A few candidates mentioned natural calamities, floods or earthquakes as the circumstances for declaring the National Emergency. (f) Majority of the candidates were able to answer this question correctly. However, a few candidates, instead of resign wrote removed. (g) Majority of the candidates were able to write the correct answer. (h) Most of the candidates did not have a clear concept of the term Appellate Jurisdiction. A few candidates mixed it with the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. (i) A few candidates explained Impeachment (Process) for the removal of a judge of Supreme Court instead of giving specific grounds like, grave misconduct etc. for the removal. (j) Most of the candidates wrote the correct answer. However, a few candidates got confused and wrote the functions of a District Judge as that of a Sessions Judge and vice-versa. 11 Suggestions for teachers - A comparative study of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha will ensure better clarity of the topic in the minds of students. - Clarify different procedures of the Parliament by organising a mock session of the Parliament in the school which will help students in appreciating the parliamentary procedures like Question Hour, Zero Hour, etc. - Specify that the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha is not the Prime Minister, but the Speaker and that the Prime Minister presides over the meetings of the Council of Ministers. - Explain the various conditions under which the Parliament can make a law on the State List. - Explain three types of emergencies that can be declared by the President and the circumstance under which these emergencies can be declared. - Discuss the principle of collective responsibility in detail. - Explain that the leader of the majority party i.e. the Prime Minister suggests the names of his Council of Ministers and they are then appointed by the President on his advice. - Explain that the word appellate has been derived from the word appeal. It means if a person is not satisfied with judgement of the High Court, he can file an appeal in the Supreme Court against the judgement of the High Court. - Differentiate between impeachment and the grounds of removal of a Supreme Court Judge. - Explain, in a tabular form, the powers and functions of a District Judge and Session Judge and the types of cases they are supposed to deal. MARKING SCHEME Question 1 (a) 5 years (b) Question hour represents the first hour of every working day of the house (11:00 a.m. 12:00 noon) the members can ask questions from the government on matters of public interests (Scrutiny) (Any one point) (c) Speaker (d) (i) During an emergency or President s rule in a State (ii) When two or more States request the Parliament (iii) (i) When the Rajya Sabha declares by 2/3rd majority that a subject has assumed national importance. (One point) Danger of foreign aggression or war (ii) Danger to peace and security of the country (iii) Civil war (Internal disturbance) (iv) Insurgency (v) Armed rebellion (e) (One point) (f) The entire Ministry resigns en bloc (the government will resign). (g) Prime Minister advises President in appointment of Council of Ministers. (h) (i) (Full answer) Hears Appeals from a person / organisation when they are not satisfied. (ii) (iii) (i) Special Leave of Appeal Appeals from the judgements of High Court or Lower court can be filed in the Supreme Court (One point) Charges of proven misbehavior Incapacity Violation of constitution/grave mis-conduct (j) (One point) Sessions Court- Criminal cases (robbery, dacoities and murder). Court of the District Judge- Civil Cases (Land and Property disputes and money transactions) District Judge presides over District Court and Sessions Judge over Session Courts. Session Judge has no administrative power but District Judge has. 12 Question 2 (a) What was the General Service Enlistment Act? [2] (b) Name the two books that Dadabhai Naoroji authored explaining the Drain of India s [2] Wealth . (c) Name each of the organizations founded by Jyothiba Phule and Raja Rammohan Roy. [2] (d) Write any two contributions of Lala Lajpat Rai to the National Movement. [2] (e) State any two provisions of the Indian Independence Act of 1947 that was to decide the [2] fate of the Princely States? (f) Write any two reasons for the acceptance of the Mountbatten Plan by the Congress. [2] (g) State any two objections imposed by the Treaty of Versailles on the German military [2] power. (h) Name the Signatory Countries of the Triple Alliance. [2] (i) What is meant by the term Veto power? [2] (j) Why was the League of Nations established? [2] Comments of Examiner (a) Majority of the candidates answered the question Suggestions for teachers correctly. A few candidates mentioned other Acts - Explain the General Service Enlistment Act clearly with its consequences and the reaction of the Indian soldiers to it. - Teach the names of famous books written by the leaders as mentioned in the scope of the syllabus. - While teaching socio-religious reform movements, lay stress on the contributions made by the reformers and also the organizations founded by them. - Ensure that the students have a clear understanding of the contributions of the leaders in the national movement. also passed by the British. (b) Most of the candidates wrote the name of only one book which was Poverty and Un-British Rule in India. (c) Most of the candidates wrote the correct answer. However, a few candidates, instead of mentioning Brahmo Samaj, wrote Arya Samaj. (d) Most candidates wrote the correct answer. A few candidates, however, mixed up the contributions of Lala Lajpat Rai with that of Bal Gangadhar Tilak. 13 (e) Some candidates mentioned the provisions of the Indian Independence Act other than the ones deciding the fate of the Princely States, as asked for in the question. A few candidates mixed up the provisions of the Indian Independence Act with the provisions of the Cabinet Mission or the Mountbatten Plan. (f) Instead of mentioning the reasons for the acceptance of the Mountbatten Plan, a few candidates explained the provisions of the Plan. (g) Some candidates could not comprehend the question correctly and wrote those provisions of the Treaty of Versailles which were not related to the crippling of the German military power. (h) Many candidates, instead of naming the signatory countries of the Triple Alliance, named those of the Triple Entente. (i) Majority of the candidates explained the Veto Power correctly. A few candidates mentioned the names of the permanent members of the Security Council. - Explain the provisions of the Indian Independence Act point-wise and with separate headings for each point. - Clearly explain the reasons for the Congress to accept the Mountbatten Plan. - Clarify to the students all clauses of the Treaty of Versailles as each one of them sought to curb the power of Germany. - With the help of a flow chart, teach the signatory countries according to their respective groups, during both the world wars. - Make it clear to the students that a veto power is actually a negative vote by any of the permanent members of the Security Council. - Explain to the students that the League of Nations was a peace keeping organization formed after the First World War. It was established to maintain international peace and security. - Advise the students to read the question carefully and answer as per its requirement. (j) Majority of the candidates wrote the correct answer. MARKING SCHEME Question 2 (a) Passed in1856. According to this Act, the Indian Soldier in the East India Company could be sent overseas on duty. It was a taboo for Indian Soldiers, especially the Brahmins to go overseas To go overseas went against their religious sentiments. (Any one point) (b) Poverty and Un-British Rule in India (c) (i) Satya Shodhak Samaj Jyothiba Phule (ii) Brahmo Samaj Raja Rammohan Roy. 14 (d) Founded Punjabi, Vande Mataram (Urdu Daily), People (English Weekly), Young India (monthly magazine) Inspired the youth through his prolific writing Joined the Congress in 1888. Elected as the President of Congress in 1920, Was the first President of the All-Indian Trade Union Congress (in 1920). Founded the Servants of People Society for welfare of the downtrodden. Laid the foundation of the D.A.V. College, Lahore Went to America and joined the Ghadar Party to mobilise opinion in favour of Indian freedom struggle Opened orphanages, hospitals and schools Led a protest against the Simon Commission and succumbed to injuries inflicted upon him in a lathi charge Fought against the partition of Bengal Advocated Swadeshi (Separate Government) and Boycott (e) (Any two points) (i) The Princely States would become Independent from the British authority. (ii) All treaties and agreements made by the British with reference to the States would lapse. (iii) States could remain independent or (iv) Join either India or Pakistan. (Any two points) (f) (i) It was the only solution to the communal problem/ no other option. (ii) The League had joined the Interim Government to obstruct and not to cooperate. (iii) The only alternative was a federation with a weak centre. (iv) Any further continuation of the British rule would mean greater calamity. (v) Further delay would cause a civil war. (vi) Partition would rid the Constitution of separate electorates. (vii)A smaller India with a strong central authority was better than a bigger state with a weak centre. (Any two points) (g) (i) The army was restricted to a force of 1 lakh soldiers. (ii) The navy was limited to 15,000 men and 24 ships 15 (iii) Air force and submarines were banned. (iv) Rhine valley was demilitarized. (Any two points) (h) Germany, Austria-Hungary & Italy (i) (All three countries) The Permanent members of Security Council have veto power i.e. a negative vote that is exercised to make strong decisions or raise objections from any of the five members. Council is powerless to act if any of the five members uses the Veto power. (One point) (j) (i) For Peace and Security. (ii) To avoid future wars. (iii) To maintain just and honourable relations (iv) All States were to respect each other s independence (v) All States were to refer their disputes to the League of Nations for a peaceful settlement. (vi) Member States were not supposed to maintain huge armies, warships and destructive armaments. (vii) To enforce corrective action against member States for disobeying treaties and disturbing world peace and order (Two points) PART II (50 Marks) SECTION A Attempt any two questions from this Section Question 3 The Parliament is the body of people s representatives who have Supreme power in a democracy. With reference to the Union Legislature answer the following: (a) How are the members of the Rajya Sabha elected? [3] (b) Why is it called a Permanent house? [3] (c) State any two Financial and any two Legislative powers of the Indian Parliament. [4] 16 Comments of Examiners (a) Some candidates, instead of writing the manner of the election of the members of the Rajya Sabha, wrote about its composition. A few candidates were confused between the direct and indirect elections. (b) Majority of the candidates answered this question very well by writing the required points. (c) Some candidates could not distinguish between the Financial and Legislative powers of the Indian Parliament and mixed up the points in their answers. Suggestion for teachers - Explain the direct and indirect method of elections, emphasizing that the members of the Lok Sabha are elected by direct elections while Rajya Sabha members are elected indirectly by members of the State Assemblies. - Teach the students that the Rajya Sabha is a permanent house as it cannot be dissolved by the President. One third of its members retire every second year and new members are elected but the house is never dissolved. - Explain the meaning of financial and legislative powers of the Indian Parliament. MARKING SCHEME Question 3 (a) Elected by the members of elected Legislative Assemblies. Indirectly elected on the basis of proportional representation with a single transferable vote. (b) 1/3 of its members retire every two years The house is never dissolved as a whole (c) Financial Powers Passes the Budget of the Union Parliament, Determines the Salaries & Allowances of the members of Parliament, No taxes can be imposed unless approved by the Parliament, Passes the Supplementary grants Vote on account, Passes the Money Bill. (Any two points) Legislative Powers Makes laws on subjects in the Union List Makes laws on subjects in the State List (under certain conditions) 17 Makes laws on subjects in the Concurrent list Possesses Residuary power. Approves Ordinances. Power during an Emergency Makes amendments to the Constitution (Any two points) Question 4 The Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister, is the most Powerful Institution in the Indian Polity. In this context, answer the following: (a) State briefly the position of the Prime Minister in the Parliamentary system of [3] Government. State any two powers the Prime Minister has as a leader of the Nation. (b) Distinguish between the Council of Ministers and the Cabinet. [3] (c) Write any four functions of the Cabinet . [4] Comments of Examiners (a) Most of the candidates were able to write the correct answer. However, some candidates were not clear regarding the powers of the Prime Minister as a leader of the Nation. A few candidates mentioned his functions in relation with the Council of Ministers and the President. (b) A few candidates could not distinguish between the Cabinet and the Council of ministers and explained the three categories of ministers. (c) While many candidates scored well in this question. However, a few candidates were confused between the features and the functions of the Cabinet. 18 Suggestion for teachers - Clearly explain the students the power, position and functions of the Prime Minister and that he is the real head of the nation and has an important role as the leader of the nation. - Ensure that the students are able to differentiate between the Cabinet and Council of Ministers. Emphasize on the meaning of terms like portfolio of ministers and the reasons for the importance of the cabinet ministers. - Teach the difference between the functions of the Cabinet and its features. - Train students to read & understand the question and answer as per its requirement. MARKING SCHEME Question 4 (a) Position: The Prime Minister is the de facto or the real leader of the nation. He is the Leader of the Lok Sabha. He is the chief spokesperson of the Government. He is the defender of Government policies. He intervenes in case of controversial issues. Addresses nation during emergency or on important occasions. Represents and visits countries for economic and social issues of the nation. Chairman of Niti Aayog and Atomic Energy Commission (b) Decides what kind of relations India would have with other countries. Keeps President informed of the decision of the Cabinet. S.No. Council of Ministers 1. Consists of all the three categories of ministers. 2. The PM may or may not consult them 3. Rarely meets as a whole 4. Does not advise the President (Any three points) Cabinet Is a group of senior ministers holding important portfolios The PM always consults them. Meets as frequently as possible Advises the President through the PM 5. Larger Group Smaller Group 6. May or may not hold important portfolios Hold important portfolios (Any three points) (c) Powers of the Cabinet: Formulates policies and implements them. Coordinates the functioning of various Ministers. Introduces Bills Amends the Constitution Advises the President to summon the Houses of Parliament. Prepares President s Special Address Advices the President to issues Ordinances Prepare Money and Non-Money Bills ( This is a separate point ) Recommends proclamation of Emergency to the President. Decides all major appointments made by the President. Preparation of annual budget Acts as source of information (Any four points) 19 Question 5 India has a single integrated judicial system that is Independent and Supreme. With reference to the Judiciary, answer the following: (a) (i) Who appoints the Judges of the High Court? [3] (ii) State any two qualifications required for a person to be appointed as a High Court judge. (b) Explain briefly the term Court of Record with reference to the High Court. [3] (c) List any four writs that the High Court can issue for the enforcement of Fundamental [4] Rights. Comments of Examiners (a) (i) Most of the candidates were able to answer this Suggestion for Teachers question correctly. However, a few candidates, - Explain the Executive powers of the President clearly. - Tell the students that all major appointments, including the appointments of the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are made by the President. - Highlight the major qualifications required for the appointment of judges. - Emphasise that a complete answer, including the statement that the record of cases is kept for future references and precedents by the lower courts, is imperative in a question on Court of Records. Simply writing that the court keeps the record of all cases, is insufficient. - Teach the examples of writs emphasising on the correct spellings of all the writs. instead of the President mentioned the Governor. (ii) A number of candidates gave the correct qualifications of a High Court Judge. (b) Most of the candidates were able to answer this question quite well. However, a few candidates missed some important points regarding Court of Record with reference to the High Court. (c) Most of the candidates were able to answer this question correctly. 20 MARKING SCHEME Question 5 (a) (i) (ii) (b) 1. President 1. One should be a citizen of India. 2. One should have held a judicial office in India for at least 10 years. 3. One should have been advocate of a High Court for at least 10 years. 4. He should not be over 62 years of age. (Any three points) A Court of Record is one whose judgements are recorded or for evidence and testimony. (For future references) 2. They are not to be questioned when they are produced before any court. 3. The judgements are in the nature of precedents that is the High Court and other Courts are bound to give a similar decision in a similar case. 4. The law laid down by the High Court is binding on all subordinate courts and administrative tribunals in the State. 5. The Court has the power to punish anyone who commits contempt of the court. (Any two points) (c) Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo Warranto and Certiorari. (Any two writs) SECTION B Attempt any three questions from this Section Question 6 The Second half of the 19th century witnessed the growth of a strong feeling of Nationalism. With reference to the statement, answer the following: (a) Write any three repressive Colonial policies of the British. [3] (b) State any three ways in which the Press played an important role in developing [3] nationalism amongst Indians. (c) Explain briefly any three differences in the methods adopted between the Early Nationalists and Radicals, in the National Movement. 21 [4] Comments of Examiners (a) Most of the candidates were able to attempt this question quite well. However, some candidates were not sure whether to write the repressive policies of Lord Curzon or Lord Lytton. The Universities Act and Partition of Bengal were also given as examples of this policy in a few answer scripts. (b) Most of the candidates were able to answer this question correctly. A few candidates, however, only mentioned the names of the books and the newspapers. (c) Majority of the candidates mentioned the beliefs and aims of the Early Nationalists and Radicals rather than mentioning the methods adopted by them in the National Movement. Most of the candidates were not clear regarding the objectives, beliefs and methods of both the groups. Suggestions for teachers - Clarify to the students, the time frame of repressive policies during the early part and later part of the 19th century. The students should be able to recall that Lord Curzon belonged to the early part of the 20th century. - Explain the role of books and newspapers in developing nationalism amongst Indians. - Train the students to read and understand the question carefully. The demand of the question must be understood before writing its answer. MARKING SCHEME Question 6 (a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) Organised the Grand Delhi Durbar Introduced the Vernacular Press Act Introduced the Indian Arms Act Reduced the maximum age to take up the ICS examination from 21 to 19 years. Removed the import duties on the British goods and harmed the Indian industry. Ilbert Bill Controversy (Any three points) (b) The press: (i) Spread the message of patriotism (ii) Spread the ideals of liberty, freedom and equality (iii) Popularised the ideas of Home Rule and Independence (iv) Carried on daily criticism of the British policies (v) Exposed the true nature of British rule in India (vi) Helped in the exchange of views among people from different parts of the country (vii) Made the Indians aware of what was happening in the world. (viii) Aroused public opinion in the country (Any two points) (c) Early Nationalists (Any two points) (i) They believed in the policy of constitutional agitation within the legal framework, and slow orderly political progress. 22 (ii) They held meetings where speeches were made and resolutions for popular demands were passed. (iii) They made use of the press to criticise government policies, (iv) They sent memorandums and petitions. (v) They made use of three P s Petitions, Prayers and Protests. (vi) A British Committee of the Indian National Congress was set up in London in 1889, which published a weekly journal, India, to present India s case before the British public. (vii) Deputations of Indian leaders were sent to Britain. These political leaders carried on active propaganda in Britain. Radicals: Methods: (Any two points) (i) Swadeshi (ii) Boycott (iii) National Education (iv) Passive Resistance (v) Revivalism (vi) Personal Sacrifices (vii) Mass movement (viii)Aggressive or assertive method Question 7 With reference to the picture given below, answer the following questions: (a) (i) Identify the Memorial built for those who were killed in this incident. (ii) Where did this incident take place? (iii) Name the movement launched by Gandhi in 1920 as a consequence. 23 [3] (b) Explain briefly the reason for the suspension of this particular movement by Gandhi in 1922. [3] (c) State any four impacts of the movement. [4] Comments of Examiners (a) (i) Majority of the candidates could identify the Suggestions for teachers given picture. - Train students to identify the pictures (ii) Most of the candidates wrote the correct place in of not only the monuments, but also which the incident occurred. Some candidates, of leaders along with their importance. however, mentioned Punjab instead of Amritsar. Highlight the important events (iii) Majority of the candidates named the movement connected with the incidents. correctly barring a few candidates, who wrote - Ensure that students understand the named it as the Civil Disobedience Movement. impact of each movement launched (b) The reason for the suspension was explained correctly by Mahatma Gandhi clearly. as the Chauri Chaura incident by almost all the candidates. (c) The impact of the movement was written correctly by most of the candidates. However, a few candidates got confused with the other movements launched by Mahatma Gandhi and mixed up the points. MARKING SCHEME Question 7 (a) Jallianwala Bagh Memorial Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar Non-Cooperation Movement. (b) The tragedy at Chauri Chaura, a village in Gorakhpur district in Uttar Pradesh. A procession of about 3,000 peasants marched to the police station to protest against the police officer. Police fired at the peasants. Peasants reacted and set the police station on fire. 22 policemen were killed. Gandhiji, who believed in Ahimsa was greatly shocked and withdrew the movement on February 12, 1922. A police officer had beaten some farmers picketing a liquor shop. (Narration of Incident with any of the three points cited in the answer) 24 (c) Impact of Non-Cooperation Movement: The National Movement became a Mass Movement (Gave a national base to the Congress Party) Instilled Confidence, Patriotism among people. Congress became a revolutionary party Undermined the power and prestige of British government Fostered Hindu-Muslim unity. Promoted Social reforms (like removal of untouchability/promotion of khadi/setting up of national schools) Promoted the cult of Swaraj. Showed the true nature of the British. Spread Nationalism to every part of the country Affected British trade Showed power of passive resistance (Any four points) Question 8 With reference to the National Movement from 1930 to 1947, answer the following: (a) State any three features of the Programme of the Civil Disobedience Movement [3] launched in 1930. (b) What was the significance of the Second Round Table Conference held in 1931? [3] (c) State any four clauses of the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946. [4] 25 Comments of Examiners (a) Most of the candidates were able to write the correct features of the Programme of the Civil Disobedience Movement. However, a few candidates mentioned the features of the programmes of Non-cooperation and the Quit India Movement. (b) The explanation given by several candidates was incomplete. Instead of writing the significance of the Second Round Table Conference, many candidates wrote on the Gandhi-Irwin Pact. (c) Majority of the candidates correctly wrote four clauses of the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946, barring a few candidates, who mentioned the clauses of the Mountbatten Plan and the Indian Independence Act. Suggestions for teachers - Explain to the students the reasons for the launch of each movement. - Train the students to highlight at least ten points of the various movements and to underline the key words. - Explain the main points of the Second Round Table Conference and also the reasons for its failure. - Explain to the students the clauses of the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946, the clauses of Mountbatten Plan and the Indian Independence Act and emphasize that clauses cannot be misquoted and should be presented in a factual manner. MARKING SCHEME Question 8 (a) Gandhi reached Dandi on 5th April,1930 and next morning Gandhi violated the salt-laws by picking up some salt left by the sea waves. Gandhi s campaign against the salt-laws was a signal to disobey civil laws. Civil Disobedience campaign involved: Defiance of salt laws. Boycott of liquor/schools and colleges/ Government jobs. Boycott of foreign cloth and British goods of all kinds. It also involved non-payment of taxes and land-revenue and violation of laws of different kinds, including forest laws. Spread to NWFP where Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan took the campaign against the government and he was called as Frontier Gandhi. Paralysed the British Government. (Any three points) (b) Gandhi was chosen as the sole representative of the Congress for the Second Round Table Conference. 26 The Second Round Conference devoted most of its time to the communal question and the representation of minorities-the Muslims, Sikhs, the Christians and Anglo-Indians-in legislatures both at the Centre and in the Provinces. Gandhi was disgusted to find that most leaders were concerned only about seats in the legislatures for their respective communities. The question of Independence or of setting up a Responsible Government receded into background. Gandhi returned empty handed as he could not persuade the British government to grant Freedom or even the Dominion Status to India. (Any three points) (c) (i) There would be a Federal Union comprising the British Provinces and the Princely states. (ii) The Union government would be empowered to deal with defense, foreign affairs and communications. (iii) The Union would have its own executive and legislature composed of members elected by all provinces. (iv) A Constituent Assembly comprising 389 members would be set up to frame the new Constitution of the Indian Union. Of these members, 296 would be elected from the British Provinces and 93 members from the Princely States. (v) The British Provinces would be divided into three groups on communal basis Group A, B and C. The provinces could opt out of the groups and join another by majority of votes (Provincial autonomy). (vi) The Provinces would enjoy full autonomy for all subjects of administration other than the Union subjects. (vii) An Interim Government would be formed at the Centre with 14 members. (viii) India would be free to remain within the British Commonwealth or secede from it.(Freedom to join Commonwealth) (Any four points) Question 9 With reference to the Rise of Dictatorships and the Second World War, answer the following: (a) State any three reasons for the Rise of Fascism in Italy. [3] (b) Explain any three consequences of World War II. [3] (c) Name the two rival blocs that fought against each other during World War II and state [4] its signatory countries. 27 Comments of Examiners (a) Many candidates confused the Rise of Fascism with the Rise of Nazism. A few candidates mentioned the causes of the Second World War. (b) Majority of the candidates answered the question correctly. A few candidates mentioned the consequences of the World War I instead of World War II. (c) Some candidates, instead of writing Axis and Allied Powers, mentioned Capitalist and Communist blocs. A few candidates also mixed up the names of the signatory countries. Suggestions for teachers - Explain in detail, the Rise of Fascism and Nazism, laying stress on the definitions of Fascism and Nazism. - Clearly bring out while teaching, the distinction between the consequences of World War I and World War II. - Ensure that students have a clear concept about the rival blocs during the two world wars and that they correctly remember the names of the member countries of the two rival blocs. - Instruct the students to read and understand the question before making any attempt to answer it. MARKING SCHEME Question 9 (a) Rise of Fascism in Italy Dissatisfaction with the treaty of Versailles Economic crisis Political instability (Failure of democracy/corrupt democratic) Class conflicts Failure of League of Nations Leadership provided by Mussolini Fear of Communism Rise of Dictatorship (Totalitarianism) (Any three points) (b) Consequences of Second World War: Destruction of life and property. Defeat of the Axis Powers by the Allied Powers. Many new weapons of mass destruction were invented and used. 28 (c) Formation of the UN. The world was divided into two power blocs the Democratic or Capitalist bloc led by the USA and the Communist bloc led by the erstwhile Soviet Union. Beginning of Cold War between two power blocs. Division of Germany Japan became weak and its emperor reduced to constitutional head. Imperialism came to an end. Fall of dictatorship Decolonisation USA and the Soviet Union became super powers. (Any three points) Axis Germany Italy & Japan Allies Britain, France, USSR and later USA joined the Allies. (Any three countries) Question 10 The necessity to maintain International peace led to the establishment of the United Nations Organisation. With reference to the statement, answer the following: (a) Write any three functions of UNESCO that preserves our Cultural Heritage . [3] (b) State the Composition of the Security Council. [3] (c) Write any four functions of the General Assembly. [4] 29 Comments of Examiners (a) Many candidates instead of writing the functions of the UNESCO which preserve our Cultural Heritage, wrote its general functions relating to education and science. (b) Majority of the candidates stated the composition of the Security Council correctly, barring a few candidates who wrote the composition of the General Assembly. (c) Attempted well by most of the candidates. However, a few candidates mixed up the functions of the General Assembly with that of the Security Council. Suggestions for teachers - Explain with examples, the functions of UNESCO regarding education, science and culture. - Train students to present facts while answering questions relating to composition of the Security Council. - By means of a flow chart, distinguish between the Permanent and Non-Permanent members of the Security Council. - Ensure that students learn at least five notable functions of the General Assembly and other organs of the UN. - Advise students to write answers emphasising on key words and points. MARKING SCHEME Question 10 (a) Preservation of Cultural Heritage: UNESCO provides technical advice and assistance, equipment and funds for the preservation of monuments and other works of art. It has prepared a World Heritage List to identify the monuments and sites which are to be protected. It aims to protect the world inheritance of books, works of art and rare manuscripts. It gives encouragement to artistic creations in literature and fine arts. It pays attention towards the cultural development through the medium of films. It sends cultural missions to different countries so that there would be development of contacts which may promote peace and prosperity. It helps the member states in the preservation of their cultural heritage. It encourages translation of rare manuscripts. It plays a vital role in distributing knowledge about Human Rights. (Any three points) (b) Composition: The Council consists of 15 members. 30 It has five permanent members China, France, Russia, Britain and the United States of America. The regional representation of the ten non-permanent members is: (i) Afro-Asian Countries - 5 (ii) Latin American Countries 2 (iii) West European and other Countries 2 (iv) East European Countries - 1 The ten non-permanent members are elected by the General Assembly by a two-third majority for a term of two years. A retiring member is not eligible for immediate re-election. The Presidency of the Council rotates monthly, according to the English alphabetical listing of its member states. (Any three points) (c) Functions of General Assembly: To make recommendations for the peaceful settlement of disputes To promote political, social and economic cooperation To receive and consider reports from the Security Council and other organs of UN. To consider and approve the budget of the UN. To regulate the working of other organs and agencies of UN. To elect the non-permanent members of the Security Council. To elect judges of the ICJ. To appoint Secretary General on the recommendation of Security Council. To amend the UN Charter. Functions under Uniting for Peace Resolution 1950. New members are admitted by the General Assembly on the recommendation of Security Council. (Any four points) Note: For questions having more than one correct answer/solution, alternate correct answers/solutions, apart from those given in the marking scheme, have also been accepted. 31 GENERAL COMMENTS Topics found Topics difficult/ confusing by candidates Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Financial and Legislative Powers of the Parliament. Powers of the Prime Minister as a Leader of the nation. found d Topics found difficult/ confusing by candidates Court of Record of High Court. Repressive Colonial Policies of British. ifficult/ confusing bythecandidates Differences in the methods of Early Nationalists and Radicals. Clauses of the Cabinet Mission Plan. Name of two rival blocs during the World War II and the signatory countries. Suggestions for candidates Study the entire syllabus, avoid selective study. Be attentive in the classroom when explanations and discussions are in progress. Regular revision is important. Study every topic studied with sub-headings, to achieve clarity. Try to comprehend the topic instead of just learning it. Do ample written practice of questions, keeping in mind the format of the question paper. Read and understand the question carefully. The demands of the question must be identified before writing the answer. Give importance to the facts of the answer, rather than on its length. Be brief and to the point. Repetition of points must be avoided. Present answers neatly in legible handwriting. 32 QUALITATIVE ANALYSIS GEOGRAPHY (H.C.G.-PAPER-2) PART I (30 Marks) Attempt all questions from this Part Question 1 (a) (i) Give the six-figure grid reference for the temple that is located to the south west of Pithapura settlement. [2] (ii) Give the four-figure grid reference for a settlement where people of the region meet socially and for trade at least once in a year. (b) (i) What is the pattern of drainage seen in the grid square 2118? [2] (ii) What is the pattern of settlement seen in the grid square 1923? (c) What do each of the two numbers (281 printed in black colour and 20 printed in red colour) in the grid square 1818 indicate? [2] (d) (i) [2] Name any two man-made features in grid square 2419. (ii) Name any two natural features in grid square 2118. (e) What is the significance of the following? [2] (i) Fire line in grid square 2417. (ii) Water body found in grid square 2221. (f) Calculate the area of the region between 16 and 19 Eastings and 18 and 22 Northings. Give your answer in kilometre square. [2] (g) Give a reason for each of the following: [2] (i) The water in some of the wells in the north west quarter of the map is not fit for drinking. (ii) The region near Anadra and Gulabganj has many causeways. (h) (i) What is the main means of irrigation used by people living in the area shown on the map? [2] (ii) What is the main occupation of the people of the region shown on the map? (i) Which according to you is the most important settlement? [2] Give a reason to support your answer. (j) Name any two means of transport used by the people living in the area shown on the map extract. 33 [2] Comments of Examiners (a) (i) Many candidates did not give the six-figure grid reference for the temple that was located to the south-west of Pithapura settlement. Several candidates placed third and sixth digits in the six-figure grid reference incorrectly i.e. third number was placed at sixth place and sixth at the third place. For example: writing 205211 instead of 201215. (ii) Most of the candidates answered it correctly. Some candidates, however, interchanged eastings and northings, such as 2216 instead of 1622, which made their answer incorrect. (b) (i) Some candidates, instead of radial drainage pattern wrote radical /centripetal/water flowing in all directions /trellised / dendritic. (ii) Several candidates, instead of nucleated /compact/clustered pattern wrote nuclear/linear/houses are close, etc. (c) For 281 , some candidates, instead of spot height wrote height/approximate height/ longitude. For 20 , printed in red, a few candidates wrote kilometre stone instead of distance stone/milestone. (d)(i) Majority of the candidates identified the man-made features correctly. However, some candidates wrote temple or tank which was not found in this square. (ii) In this subpart natural features were identified correctly by majority of the candidates. However, some candidates wrote trees/river instead of stream/contour line/ridge. (e)(i) Most of the candidates wrote the significance of the fire line correctly. Some candidates, however, wrote its meaning instead of its significance. (ii) Majority of the candidates did not write the significance of water body found in 2221. Several candidates wrote the name of the reservoir such as tank/reservoir/water storage and so on. 34 Suggestions for teachers - Ensure that the students understand the concept of six figure and four figure grid references thoroughly by giving them regular practice. - Tell students that Eastings are to be written before Northing. Left side easting and lower side northing must be taken into consideration. - Give students regular practice and make sure that they understand the writing method of eastings and northings while writing the fourfigure grid reference. - Clarify the drainage pattern to the students and give sufficient practice to identify the drainage patterns. - Emphasise on correct spelling of all the important terms. - Explain the settlement patterns by using diagrams and then show the students the example of various types on the toposheet. - Be well equipped with the information on toposheet in order to guide the students properly. - Train students about the method to read the index and explain the concept-based questions on this topic. - Make the students aware that the answer of what the numbers in a grid indicate, is also given in the index below the map. - Explain concepts such as, trees are natural or grown by man; a river is broader than a stream; a contour line is made on map only and so is not a feature; ridge is an elongated hill, etc. (f) A large number of the candidates calculated the area of the region correctly. However, some candidates did not write the unit. (g)(i) Majority of the candidates gave the correct reason for the water which was not fit for drinking in some of the wells in the north west quarter of the map. However, some candidates wrote that the water was not fit for drinking as it was dirty / polluted / contaminated /filled with sand or silt. (ii) Most candidates were not able to write the correct reason and wrote that people had to travel so there were causeways. Some candidates wrote the meaning of causeway. A few wrote that a causeway was a bridge. (h)(i) Some candidates wrote tube well instead of lined perennial well. (ii) Most candidates wrote the correct occupation. However, some candidates wrote animal rearing and forestry, having overlooked the word main occupation. (i) Majority of the candidates were able to write the most important settlement. Some candidates, however, wrote the type of settlement pattern. Some candidates were unable to write the reason to support their selection of the most important settlement. (j) Some candidates wrote the mode of transport instead of means such as, carts, car, automobile, etc. A few candidates wrote general answers such as, roadways and railways. 35 - Lay stress on expressing area, volume, temperature, pressure etc. with proper units. - Advise students to show calculations of the area of a region as per the requirement of the question, as per the scale of the map and to write the answer in the unit asked for in the question. - Guide students to make use of the terms which are printed on the map. - Clarify to students the meaning of terms printed on the map to enable them to answer the questions asked in the examination. - Clearly explain the difference between a causeway and a bridge . - Guide students in using correct terms for the conventional symbols shown on the toposheet. Insist on terms such as lined perennial well rather than accepting the term well. - Teach land use pattern by using colours as the main clue for identifying the same. - Give adequate practice to students in answering questions on - important settlement, comparison of settlement, general pattern, etc. - Explain the difference between means of transport and mode of transport giving suitable examples. - Tell students that in questions involving interpretation of toposheet, general answers such as, roadways and railways, are not accepted. - Train students to read the question completely, in order to understand what is to be written as the answer. MARKING SCHEME Question 1 (a) (b) (c) (i) 201215/202215 (ii) 1622 / 1520/1519/1620 (i) 2118 Radial pattern. (ii) 1923 Nucleated / Compact / Clustered. (Any one term) 281 Spot height/altitude of 281 m above mean sea level 20 Distance stone along the metalled road/milestone (d) Man-made features Cart track / lined perennial well / permanent hut / unlined perennial well / cultivated land/ footpath (Any two) Natural features Hill / seasonal stream / rocky slope / forest area/ valley/ spur (Any two) (e) (i) Fire line is made to protect the forest from spread of forest fire. (ii) It is a reservoir where river water is stored by constructing a dam / embankment. This water is used for irrigation through canal/ for providing water for nearby areas. (f) 12 km2 (g) (i) The water in some of the wells is brackish/salty/saline (ii) There are many streams/ seasonal streams in the region and causeways have to be built when metalled roads are constructed to enable it to cross the stream (h) (i) lined perennial well/lined well (ii) Cultivation/agriculture/farming. (i) Anadra - it has a metalled road passing near it / Dispensary / Dak-Bungalow / Post and Telegraph office / Police Chowki. (j) Metalled road / Cart track / Pack track / Foot path. 36 (Any two) Question 2 On the outline map of India provided: (a) Shade and label the Gangetic Plain. [1] (b) Shade and label an area of laterite soil in North India. [1] (c) Mark and label the Karakoram Mountains. [1] (d) Mark and name the Palk Strait. [1] (e) Shade and label the river Cauveri. [1] (f) Mark and name Mumbai. [1] (g) Mark and name the Nathu La Pass. [1] (h) Mark and name Digboi. [1] (i) Shade and name the Deccan Plateau. [1] (j) Shade and label the river Jhelum. [1] 37 Comments of Examiners (a) Most of the candidates did not shade the Gangetic plain correctly. In several answer scripts, the shading went up to Nepal and Bangladesh. (b) Some candidates marked the area of laterite soil in North India, anywhere in India. Shading of the area of this soil was too vast in a few answer scripts. (c) A few candidates marked the range without realizing that a triangle is used for a peak and not for a range. (d) Many candidates were unable to mark Palk Strait correctly. Some candidates extended it into the Gulf of Mannar. Some shaded the region between India and Sri Lanka instead of making an arrow head. (e) Most candidates marked the river Cauvery correctly. (f) Majority of the candidates marked Mumbai correctly. Some candidates, however, made a bigger dot for marking its location. Some candidates shaded it into sea. (g) Most candidates were unable to mark Nathu La Pass correctly. Several candidates marked it as horizontal lines such as = which was incorrect. (h) Most of the candidates were unable to mark Digboi correctly. Several candidates marked it more to the north. Many candidates marked it closer to the river. (i) Deccan plateau went much beyond its boundary in the northern side, in some answer scripts. (j) Some candidates got confused between the tributaries of river Indus and marked river Jhelum incorrectly. 38 Suggestions for teachers - Teach the students to mark a strait by using a dotted line or an arrow. - Emphasise that the port cities must be marked on the land portion and must not extend into the sea.Tell students that since indentation is already given clearly on the map, they should, avoid making a dot on that. It may be shown with the help of an arrow head. - Guide students to mark Satpura, Nilgiri, Eastern and Western Ghats very lightly on the map and then shade the Deccan Plateau between them. - Train students to mark Deccan as a whole or as dissected. - Guide students to shade all rivers from their head to the mouth and tributaries to be marked from their head to the point where they join the main river. - Tell the students to avoid over shading of the area to be marked. - Ensure that marking in the maps of all the places mentioned in syllabus is practised by the students regularly. - Advise students to consult an atlas, instead of going by the maps given in text books and provide the students with self-prepared maps. - Give adequate practice to the students in map marking by conducting frequent tests in the class. MARKING SCHEME Question 2 39 PART II (50 Marks) Attempt any five questions from this Part Question 3 (a) (i) What type of wind is Monsoon ? What is its direction during summer? [2] (ii) Mention two characteristics of the Indian monsoon. (b) With reference to the summer season in India, answer the following questions: [2] (i) Mention the duration of the summer season in India. (ii) What is the atmospheric pressure condition during summer season over the central part of India? (c) Give a reason for each of the following: [3] (i) Goa receives heavier rainfall than Puducherry. (ii) Mawsynram receives the highest average annual rainfall. (iii) Mangaluru is cooler than Delhi in summer season. (d) Month Temp. C Rainfall cm Study the data of distribution of temperature and rain for station X and answer the questions that follow: [3] JAN FEB MAR APR MAY JUN JUL AUG SEP OCT NOV DEC 10 11 23 35 39 42 40 33 30 25 13 11 2 1 0 5 15 62 71 81 59 12 10 3 (i) Is Station X in the coastal area or in the interior of the country? (ii) Calculate the total annual rainfall for Station X. (iii) Name the wind that brings most of the rainfall to Station X. 40 Comments of Examiners (a) (i) Many candidates gave vague answers. Some candidates wrote the meaning of the term monsoon instead of the type of wind Monsoon is. As regards the direction, some candidates wrote sea to land instead of south west direction. (ii) Some candidates wrote factors affecting monsoon instead of characteristics of the Indian monsoon. (b) (i) Some candidates included the S.W. Monsoon season also in the duration and wrote March to September as the duration of summers. (ii) Several candidates wrote high pressure in place of low pressure. (c) (i) Many candidates were unable to write why Goa gets more rain than Puducherry. Some candidates explained either about Goa or Puducherry. (ii) A number of candidates were able to give the correct reason for Mawsynram receiving the heaviest rainfall. Some candidates, however, did not write the key words and key points such as, windward side/Garo-Khasi hills/clouds trapped due to position of hills, etc. (iii) Most candidates were able to write the correct reason for Mangaluru being cooler than Delhi in summer season. However, some candidates, instead of coastal location and interior location gave the difference in altitude as the reason. A few candidates wrote only about one city. (d)(i) Majority of the candidate wrote the correct location as per the given data. However, some candidates wrote coastal instead of interior. (ii) Suggestions for teachers - Explain thoroughly to students about the monsoon, its mechanism, types, origin and its direction. - Make a clear comparison between monsoon winds and the land and sea breeze. - Discuss the concept of Ferrel s Law to make the students understand the wind direction over the Indian territory. - Explain to the students the difference between factors affecting monsoons and characteristics of monsoons. - Make the students understand the seasons in India and ensure that they learn their duration. - Lay stress on reasoning-based questions in practice tests to ensure better understanding. - Make use of maps, smart boards, and diagrams etc to ensure concept building. - Train the students to explain about both the cities in their answers in questions where two cities are mentioned. - Give sufficient practice to the students in answering questions based on climatic data. - Lay stress that in questions related to calculations, it is important to write the unit. Most of the candidates calculated the total annual rainfall for the station X correctly. Some candidates, however, did not write the unit in their answer. (iii) Most candidates were able to write the correct name of the wind that brings most of the rainfall to Station X. However, some candidates gave the answer as, N.E. Monsoon and even western disturbance. 41 MARKING SCHEME Question 3 (a) (i) It is a periodic wind. Its direction during summer is southwest. (ii) Erratic in nature / Unevenly distributed / mostly orographic type / occurs mainly in four months. (b) (i) March, April, May / March to May (ii) In central part of India there is low pressure. (c) (i) Goa is located on the windward side of western ghats so Arabian Sea Branch of south west monsoon bring heavier rainfall and Puducherry is located on the eastern coast and receives lighter rainfall from North East Monsoon. (ii) Mawsynram experiences Orographic rainfall as it is located on windward side of Garo hill. Bay of Bengal branch of South West Monsoon brings heavy rain to this area/ funnel shape of Garo, Khasi, Jaintia hill lead to trapping of clouds leading to more rains. (iii) Mangalore has a coastal location, but Delhi lies in the interior. Due to distance from the sea, Mangalore is cooler than Delhi in summer. (d) (i) It is in the interior. (ii) 321 cm. (ii) South West Monsoon Question 4 (a) (i) Name the Indian soil which is formed due to the weathering of basic igneous rocks. [2] (ii) Name two states of India where this type of soil is found. (b) Name the following: [2] (i) An important transported soil of India. (ii) Soil that is rich in iron oxide. (c) Give a geographical reason for each of the following: [3] (i) Terrace farming is an ideal soil conservation method for hilly regions. (ii) Dry farming is preferred in areas with red soil. (iii) Wind is a common agent of soil erosion in arid regions. (d) [3] Briefly answer the following: (i) Mention one way in which man is responsible for soil erosion. (ii) How can deepening of the river bed help in preventing soil erosion? (iii) Mention a physical characteristic of Laterite soil. 42 Comments of Examiners (a)(i) Majority of the candidates were not able to answer this question as they associated the basic igneous rock with red soil. Several candidates just read the word weathering and wrote all the names of in-situ soils such as red, laterite and black. (ii) A large number of the candidates were unable to answer this question as it was interlinked with the first part. (b) (i) Most of the candidates wrote the name of an important transported soil of India correctly. (ii) Majority of the candidates answered this question correctly. (c) (i) Some candidates, wrote a lengthy explanation but with key words were missing. Some candidates related it to wind erosion. A few candidates simply wrote the meaning of terrace farming instead of explaining its relevance for hilly areas. (ii) Several candidates, instead of explaining the characteristics of red soil, wrote the meaning of dry farming. (iii) This question was attempted correctly by majority of the candidates. (d) (i) This was a well attempted question. (ii) Some candidates could not comprehend the meaning of deepening of the river bed and its association with soil. (iii) Physical characteristic of laterite soil was answered correctly by most of the candidates. Some candidates wrote its chemical composition and acidic nature which was not correct. . 43 Suggestions for teachers - Revise the topic on rocks (acid igneous, basic igneous and metamorphic rocks) thoroughly and train them to answer such questions. - Teach the areas where each type of soil is found by using a map so that the students are able to correlate. - Clearly explain to the students the transported or ex-situ soils, with examples. - Discuss the properties/characteristics of each type of soils found in India as per the scope of the syllabus. - Explain clearly the different agents of erosion (wind and running water) and conservation methods that are used for them. - Teach all agents of soil erosion including man along with his role in the same. Discuss methods adopted to check the impact of the same. - Explain the advantages of desilting and how it helps in controlling floods and in turn reduce soil erosion. - Clarify to students that physical characteristics relate to colour, texture and moisture retentivity of soil while chemical characteristics relate to the chemical composition of soil. - Give adequate practice to students in answering reasoning questions. - Conduct oral and written tests on application-based questions. - Train the students to write specific and to the point answers. MARKING SCHEME Question 4 (a) (i) Black soil/ Regur/Black cotton soil (ii) Maharashtra / Gujarat / Madhya Pradesh / Andhra Pradesh / Karnataka / parts of Tamil Nadu (Any two) (b) (i) Alluvial soil (ii) Red soil / Laterite soil (c) (Any one) (i) Terraces check the speed of running water and thus reduce the chance for erosion. (ii) Red soil is ideal for dry farming because it is porous and does not retain moisture. (iii) Soil erosion by wind is common in arid regions because arid areas do not support vegetation and since there are no roots to hold the soil together, the wind can carry away the loose soil easily/wind speed is high due to absence of obstruction. (d) (i) Man is responsible for soil erosion because of large scale deforestation done for agriculture / industrialisation / urbanisation / he allows his livestock to overgraze land / faulty farming practices/ mining/construction/ quarrying, excessive usage of chemical fertiliser, pesticide or insecticide/ shifting agriculture. (Any one) (ii) Deepening the river bed increases the capacity of the river to hold water which then will not overflow to cause soil erosion. (iii) It is red in colour / dry / porous / hardens when dry / coarse/ does not retain moisture/ soft and friable/ colour varies from red to brown to yellow. (Any one) Question 5 (a) Give two reasons to explain as to why we need to conserve our forest resource. [2] (b) (i) Mention two conditions required for the growth of Littoral Forest. [2] (ii) State one characteristic feature of the forest found in the Nilgiri Hills. (c) (i) Give two reasons to explain as to why the Tropical Evergreen Forests are difficult to exploit for commercial purpose. [3] (ii) Name any two trees found in Tropical Evergreen forests. (d) Briefly explain each of the following: (i) The trees in the Tropical Desert Forest have stunted growth. (ii) There is a gradual increase in the forest cover in India in recent times. (iii) The trees in Monsoon Deciduous forests, shed their leaves for about 6-8 weeks during March and April. 44 [3] Comments of Examiners (a) Most of the candidates attempted this question well. (b) (i) Instead of writing two conditions required for the growth of littoral forest, some candidates wrote the characteristics of the forest. (ii) Feature of the forest found in the Nilgiri Hills was answered correctly by many candidates. Some candidates, however, could not identify/recall the vegetation type. (c) (i) Most of the candidates answered correctly. (ii) Some candidates, instead of writing the names of two trees found in tropical evergreen forests, wrote the names of tropical deciduous trees. (d)(i) Many candidates were unable to write the correct reason for trees of tropical deciduous forest having a stunted growth as they could not relate it to scarcity of water. (ii) Several candidates, instead of writing different methods adopted for forest conservation in India, wrote about the need to increase the forest cover. (iii) Some candidates wrote the characteristics of the forest belt, instead of giving reasons for trees in Monsoon Deciduous forests shedding their leaves during March and April. 45 Suggestions for teachers - Before starting the topic on natural vegetation, discuss at length the importance of forest as a resource. - Explain in a tabular form, the difference between conditions for growth of all types of natural vegetation belts found in India and their characteristics. - Ask students to learn the names of the trees found in each vegetation belt of India. - Reinforce the learning by frequently questioning students in different ways on the concepts taught. - Give written assignments to the students for them to gain confidence. - Develop the reasoning skills of the students to enable them to answer application-based questions. MARKING SCHEME Question 5 (a) (b) Forests must be conserved because they have a favourable effect on the climate or temperature and rain / help in soil conservation / flood control measure / maintains the ecological balance / habitat of wild life / provide forest products / places of tourist interest / become a source of humus/ check extension of sand dune/prevent global warming/recharge ground water. (Any two) (i) Temperature 26 C to 29 C / Rainfall more than 200 cm / coastal climate/ areas of tidal influence/ salty water area. (ii) Vegetation consists of mixed deciduous and coniferous forests. The vegetation varies according to altitude. Consists of tropical montane forest- has deciduous, evergreen and alpine vegetation (Any one point) (c) (d) (i) Thick under growth / inaccessible Trees are not in pure stand/mixed stand. Heavy rainfall. Lack of transportation. Hard wood difficult to cut. Dark and dense/marshy area/ very tall trees/water logging. (Any two points) (ii) Rosewood, Ironwood, Ebony, Cinchona, Mahogany, bamboo. (Any one) (i) This is due to non-availability of enough water for growth of trees. (ii) This is due to check on deforestation / banning shifting agriculture / government initiative such as agroforestry, farm forestry, social forestry, Van Mahotsav, afforestation and re-afforestation. (iii) Lack of sufficient moisture for leaves to withstand dry weather conditions/ to conserve moisture/ to reduce loss of water through transpiration, to have less surface area/subsoil water is not enough for trees to retain leaf cover/to survive heat and drought condition during autumn, spring and early summer. Question 6 (a) The modern means of irrigation are gaining popularity. [2] Give two reasons to justify this statement. (b) Mention two factors that favour the development of tube well irrigation in Punjab. [2] (c) Give a reason for each of the following: [3] (i) Most of the South Indian states are not suitable for development of canal irrigation. (ii) There is an urgent need for water conservation in India. 46 (iii) Development of irrigation is essential for the growth of the agriculture sector of India. (d) Briefly explain the following terms: [3] (i) Inundation canal. (ii) Rooftop rainwater harvesting. (iii) Surface water. Comments of Examiners (a) Many candidates, not being very clear on the modern means of irrigation, wrote about the traditional methods as well. Several candidates wrote about the need for irrigation instead of advantages of modern means. Some candidates wrote that modern means were becoming popular as they were cheaper. (b) Some candidates, instead of writing factors favouring tube-well irrigation in Punjab wrote conditions necessary for tube-well development in general. (c) (i) Most of the candidates wrote the correct answer. Some candidates, however, wrote the answer in relation to inland transport and some students wrote about the factors necessary for canal irrigation. (ii) This was a well attempted question. (iii) Most candidates attempted this question well. (d) (i) Most candidates wrote the correct answer. (ii) Some candidates gave general answers such as, that rain water is collected. (iii) Some candidates wrote that surface water is the water found on the surface of the earth without giving any examples. 47 Suggestions for teachers - Explain to the students: the difference between the traditional and modern means of irrigation along with the advantages and disadvantages of both the categories. advantages of any means of irrigation with reference to the particular area/state, related to the physiological and hydrological conditions of the area. the type of terrain necessary for the development of various means of irrigation. the water crisis faced by India today and the reasons thereof along with the remedies for combatting the water shortage. - Relate the chapter on irrigation with the chapter on climate and explain the need for irrigation. - Clearly explain the two types of canals, their need along with the advantages and disadvantages of both types. - Clarify to the students, the meaning of ground water or surface water, with examples. - Teach the students the difference between rainwater harvesting and rooftop rainwater harvesting. MARKING SCHEME Question 6 (a) (b) (c) No loss of water due to evaporation and leakage. Use water economically/No wastage of water/help to conserve water. Do not cause soil erosion. Suitable for areas of low rain, high efficiency. (Any two points) Ground water level is high / high water table. Soft nature of rocks which makes digging tube wells easy / soft soil. Availability of cheap HEP / fertile agricultural area. Productive area to compensate cost of tube well construction (Any two points) (i) South Indian states have uneven terrain hence they are not suitable for constructing canals / rivers are seasonal / hard rocks make it difficult to construct canals. (Any one point) (ii) To meet the increasing demand of growing population. To provide water for irrigation and industrial use/ increase crop production. To reduce the water scarcity /pollution of water/ depleting ground water/wastage of water/rain is seasonal and unreliable. (Any one point) (d) (iii) Rainfall in India is seasonal/uncertain/unevenly distributed/annual crops need water all through the year/to maximize the agricultural production. To attain self sufficiency Certain crops need more water For success of green revolution (Any one point) (i) The canals that are taken out from the rivers without any regulating system like weirs, etc at their head / the canal that are filled with water only during floods (ii) Rainwater can be collected over rooftop and collected water channelized through small PVC pipes into the underground pits, wells, etc. (iii) Water found on the surface of the earth in the form of rivers, lakes, ponds, etc. is called surface water. Question 7 (a) Give two advantages of using bio-gas as a source of power. [2] (b) Name the following: [2] (i) A metallic mineral for which the Balaghat district of Madhya Pradesh is famous. (ii) The multi-purpose project based on the River Sutlej. (c) Give a reason for each of the following: (i) Odisha has benefitted greatly from the Hirakud project. 48 [3] (ii) Copper is used to make electric wires. (iii) India s location is advantageous for the generation of solar power. (d) Briefly answer the following: [3] (i) Name a mineral used to generate nuclear power. (ii) Why is petroleum often referred to as liquid gold ? (iii)State one disadvantage of using coal as a source of power. Comments of Examiners (a) Advantages of using biogas as a source of power was answered correctly by most of the candidates. (b) (i) Some candidates wrote iron ore and some magnesium instead of manganese. Suggestions for teachers - (ii) Some candidates wrote only Bhakra Dam. (c) (i) Most candidates answered this subpart of the question correctly. - (ii) This subpart of the question was attempted well by most candidates. (iii) Most candidates wrote the correct reason for the question; India s location is advantageous for the generation of solar power. (d) (i) Some candidates named the mineral used to generate nuclear power as coal/petroleum/natural gas which was incorrect. - - (ii) Some candidates did not understand the question and wrote about the colour of petrol as yellow, thus relating it to gold. Discuss in detail, the advantages and disadvantages of conventional sources of power and ensure that the students learn it by conducting regular tests. Teach the mining areas and uses of minerals in a tabular form to make learning and revision easier for students. Instruct the students to write complete name of multipurpose projects. Explain the reason to consider petroleum as liquid gold. Conduct oral and written tests regularly to ensure that students have learnt the facts. (iii) Many candidates wrote the calorific value of coal instead of its disadvantage as a source of power. MARKING SCHEME Question 7 (a) (b) Bio-gas is clean / non-polluting / cheap / the sludge left behind act as a rich fertilizer/ can be installed with less capital investment/cost effective/eco-friendly/easily available/ reduce dependence on fossil fuel/ renewable/ sustainable. (Any two) (i) Manganese or Copper or Bauxite (ii) The Bhakra Nangal Dam/ Bhakra Nangal project (c) (i) The Hirakud project generates power / provides water for irrigation for both the kharif and rabi crops / controls floods on the River Mahanadi/ / soil conservation/ fish culture/ industrial growth/water supply/inland waterways. 49 (Any one) (ii) Copper is a good conductor of electricity / is ductile and malleable and so is used to make electric wires. (Any one) (iii) India lies between 8 N and 37 N with the Tropic of Cancer running through it and so receives a lot of sunlight with 300 clear days in a year. This is advantageous for the generation of solar power. (d) (i) Uranium / Thorium / Beryllium/Plutonium/Zirconium (Any one) (ii) Petroleum is a versatile mineral. It generates power / used as a fuel for vehicles and in factories / used as a raw material for products like plastics, tarpaulin, wax etc. / by-products like kerosene are very useful / Not even the smallest part of the crude oil goes waste or remains unused and is therefore called liquid gold /because of high economic value. (iii) It leads to pollution / it is exhaustible / it is non-renewable / heavy transport cost/ problem of disposal of residue/ health hazard. Question 8 (a) Mention two steps taken by the government to boost agricultural [2] production in India. (b) (i) Name two varieties of millet grown in India. [2] (ii) What is the soil requirement for growing millet? (c) Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow: [3] (i) Mention the climatic condition that is suitable for the cultivation of this crop. (ii) Name the state that produces the largest amount of this crop. (iii) In which cropping season is this crop grown in India? (d) Give a geographical reason for each of the following: (i) Cultivation of wheat is confined to the northern part of India. (ii) Practicing mixed farming gives security to farmers. (iii) Ratoon cropping is gaining popularity among sugarcane cultivators. 50 [3] Comments of Examiners (a) Most candidates answered this part correctly. Suggestions for teachers (b)(i) Most candidates were able to name two varieties of millet grown in India correctly. - (ii) The soil requirement for growing millet was given correctly by most candidates. (c) (i) Most candidates mentioned the climatic condition that is suitable for the cultivation of this crop correctly. However, some candidates wrote the incorrect temperature range. Some candidates mentioned the soil also, which was not asked for. (ii) Most candidates wrote correct answers. - - (iii) Many candidates, instead of writing kharif, wrote Summer/June to September, etc. (d) (i) Some candidates related wheat cultivation being confined to North India to alluvial soil. They did not mention the correct geographical reason for cultivation of wheat confined to the northern part of India. - - (ii) Some candidates gave the meaning of mixed farming instead of its advantages. (iii) Some candidates did not mention the crop associated with Ratoon cropping. - - 51 Explain the meaning of food crops, cash crops and plantation crops with examples. Also bring out the differences amongst these crops. Advise students to prepare a table/chart of climatic and soil requirement of each crop to make learning easier. Explain the distribution of the crop by using a map. Relate the chapter on agriculture with chapters on climate, water resources and soil, for better understanding. Clarify the types of cropping seasons in India and give the examples of the crops grown in each cropping season. Teach the highlights of different types of farming with the advantages of each. Guide students to mention the name of the crop for those questions in which any term related to it is asked. Clearly explain terms such as ratooning, ginning, retting, etc. Train the students to write the answers to the point, using correct terms, in order to explain a concept. MARKING SCHEME Question 8 (a) (b) Promoting availability of good seeds to the farmers (high yielding variety). Setting up of agriculture price commission to give better price for agricultural products. Providing easy loans to the farmers. (NABARD). Starting new irrigation projects. Consolidation of land holding. Subsidies on fertilizers, free electricity/ diesel to run the water pump. Introduction of green revolution Setting up of agricultural universities (Any two) (i) Jowar/ Bajra/ Ragi (ii) Sandy alluvium/ black/ red (c) (Any one) (i) Temperature: 18 C to 32 C. Rainfall: 50 cm to 80 cm / 200 frost free days/ bright sunshine during harvest. (ii) Maharashtra/Gujarat (iii) Kharif (d) (i) Ideal temperature of 10 C to 20 C that is suitable growth of wheat is available in north India / In north India winter rain occurs which is found suitable for its growth/ 50 cm - 100 cm rain in north-west India. Wheat is a temperate crop. India is a warm country so cool climate is found in north during winter. (Any one) (ii) During drought and crop failures it provides income from livestock/ extra income. (iii) Mature faster/ saves time and money/ less labour required/cost effective. (Any one) Question 9 (a) Where do the following iron and steel plants get their supply of iron ore from? (i) [2] Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant. (ii) Vishakhapatnam Steel Plant. (b) (c) Karnataka has developed as an important state for the growth of the Silk industry. Give two reasons to justify the statement. With reference to sugar industries answer the following questions: (i) Why should these industries be located close to the sugarcane growing areas? 52 [2] [3] (ii) Name two by-products of the sugar industry. (iii) Mention one leading sugar producing state in North India and one in South India. (d) Give a reason for each of the following: [3] (i) Ahmedabad is an important cotton textile producing centre in India. (ii) Cottage industries are significant for our economy (iii) Petrochemical industries are usually located close to the oil refineries. Comments of Examiners (a) In subparts (i) and (ii), some candidates, instead of the mines, wrote the names of States. (b) Most candidates wrote correct reasons to justify the statement - Karnataka has developed as an important state for the growth of the Silk industry. (c) (i) This subpart of the question was well attempted by most candidates. (ii) By-products of sugar industry were written correctly by majority of the candidates. (iii) Some candidates wrote general names without stating whether it is in North India or in South India. (d) (i) Most of the candidates answered it correctly. (ii) Most of the candidates attempted it correctly. (iii) Some candidates could not relate the question to the availability of the raw material. 53 Suggestions for teachers - Advise students to note whether mines/place or State has been asked, and then answer accordingly. - Teach the factors of location of those industries that are given in scope of syllabus. - Discuss the classification of industries in detail. - Give adequate practice to students to answer reasoning and applicationbased questions. - Instruct students to read the question carefully before answering. - Train the students on the proper presentation of answers and advise them to follow the instructions given in the question paper. MARKING SCHEME Question 9 (a) (i) Iron Ore Dalli-Rajhara Range / Singhbhum/Keonjhar/ Durg/Bastar/ Chandipur. (Any one) (ii) Iron Ore Bailadila mines in Chhattisgarh/ Bastar. (b) Climate is suitable for sericulture / large market / skilled workers/ latest technology available / favourable government policies/ non-alkaline water or soft water present/ licenced distributers present. (c) (i) Sugarcane starts losing its sucrose after it is cut / to reduce the transportation cost/ must be crushed within 48 hours/ sugarcane is perishable. (ii) Molasses / bagasse / press mud. (Any two) (iii) North India Uttar Pradesh / Bihar / Haryana / Punjab (Any one) South India Maharashtra / Karnataka / Tamil Nadu / Andhra Pradesh / Telangana (Any one) (d) (i) Humid climate/availability of raw material/availability of skilled and unskilled labours/availability of cheap hydroelectricity/good transport network/ port nearby/ market/ capital or credit facility available/ soft water available/ government support. (Any one) (ii) Provides employment Brings in foreign exchange Need less built up area Can be started with less capital investment Uses local raw material Keeps the traditions alive from one generation to another Fulfil local need/ low cost of transport (Any one) (iii) Raw materials used in petrochemical industries are mainly derived from petroleum hence these industries are located close to oil refineries. Question 10 (a) Roadways are an important means of transport in India . [2] Give two reasons to justify the statement. (b) (i) Why are South Indian rivers not ideal for the inland water transport? [2] (ii) Mention one advantage of coastal shipping. (c) Give a reason for each of the following: (i) Nearly seventy percent of Indians do not use air transport. (ii) A well-developed transport network is important for industrial growth. 54 [3] (iii) Water transport is not as popular as land transport in India. (d) (i) The railway is an important means of transport as compared to airways. State two reasons to support the statement. [3] (ii) Mention one disadvantage of rail transport. Comments of Examiners Suggestions for teachers (a) Most of the candidates answered it correctly. (b) Sub parts(i) and (ii) of this question were attempted correctly by most candidates. (c) (i) Most of the candidates answered it correctly. (ii) Many candidates were unable to relate transport to industries and thus wrote vague answers. (iii) Most of the candidates answered it correctly. (d) Most of the candidates answered sub parts(i) and (ii) of this question correctly. - Teach the importance of the means of transport. - Explain the characteristics of rivers of North India and South India to enable the students to understand why South Indian rivers are not ideal for the inland water transport. - Discuss coastal shipping in detail. - Relate a well-developed transport network to growth of industries and the economy as a whole. - Teach the advantages and disadvantages of all means of transport. MARKING SCHEME Question 10 (a) (b) (i) They are cheap means of transport. They link villages to the urban areas. They can be constructed in the remote areas / difficult terrain / high altitudes / steep slope. They provide door-to-door service. They are safer means of transport for perishable items. Flexible usage. (Any two points) South Indian rivers are seasonal in nature. They have rapids and water falls and cataracts. They will have little water in hot season. Undulating terrain Short river/swift river (Any one point) (ii) Less maintenance cost / cheapest means of transport / ideal for export and import of 55 bulky goods / causes less pollution/ fuel efficient. (c) (i) (Any one point) Air transport is very expensive hence it is not used by many people/ carry less luggage/not comfortable for long journey/ no airport in small town. (ii) Transportation helps in easy movement of raw materials and finished goods/ connect backward areas/ mobility of skilled and unskilled labour/ decentralised growth. (iii) Water transport is limited to areas which have navigable water source. It is slow and not well connected. (d) (i) It carries bulky raw materials and heavy goods. It is cheaper than airways. Caters to more number of passengers at one time. Can carry more amount of goods. Comfortable for long journey (Any two points) (ii) The flow of goods and passengers are hampered in India as the railways operation is on three gauges. Shifting from one gauge to another is time consuming and expensive. Perishable items cannot stand the delay. The tracks are not able to carry increased goods and accidents are becoming frequent. Poor maintenance of tracks. Outdated engines and compartments. It causes pollution. Overcrowded Delays (Any one point) Question 11 (a) What impact does the waste accumulation have on the following? (i) Quality of air around us. (ii) Quality of water around us. [2] (b) Mention two ways in which the decomposition of waste in open areas can affect human health. [2] (c) (i) What can an individual do to reduce waste at home? [3] (ii) Why must segregation of waste be done before disposal? (iii) How has composting proven to be a great help in managing waste? 56 (d) Give a reason for each of the following: [3] (i) Trees must be planted in the industrial areas. (ii) Chemical fertilizers must be replaced by organic manure. (iii) Plastic and polythene products must be banned. Comments of Examiners (a) Most of the candidates answered the impact of waste accumulation on the quality of air and water around us correctly. (b) Two ways in which decomposition of waste in open areas can affect human health were written correctly by most candidates. However, some candidates wrote general points. (c) (i) Most of the candidates were able to answer this part correctly. (ii) Some candidates wrote the meaning of segregation instead of writing the reason for segregation of waste to be done before disposal. (iii) Most candidates answered correctly. (d) (i) Most candidates were able to give a reason for why trees must be planted in the industrial areas. (ii) Most candidates attempted this subpart of the well. (iii) This part was answered correctly by most of the candidates. However, some candidates wrote vague answers such as - it is bad for environment and humans. 57 Suggestions for teachers - Train students to read questions carefully before attempting them. - Explain clearly to the students: The impact of waste accumulation on the quality of air/water. Effect of decomposition of waste in open areas on human health. Different methods of waste disposal and their advantages with examples. - Discuss in detail the disadvantages of using synthetic products relating it to present environmental issues faced by our country. - Regularly revise the topics with students. - Train students to write the answers to the point and instruct them to use correct terms in order to explain a concept. - Give adequate practice to the students to answer reasoning and applicationbased questions. MARKING SCHEME Question 11 (a) (i) Waste accumulation results in air pollution which may cause acid rain and several air- borne diseases/ bad odour/release harmful greenhouse gases/ chemicals near the underground water by leakage. (ii) Water pollution affects human health and also animal life on land it also affects aquatic animals adversely/ eutrophication/biomagnification. (b) (c) It may lead to foul smell and several diseases such as malaria, cholera etc., may be caused due to flies and other insects that carry the disease causing bacteria which grow in the decomposing waste / it produces harmful gases which pollute the air around us / rainwater may carry the pathogens from the waste to our water bodies and so pollute the water which affects human health/ biomagnification. (Two points) (i) Individual may use carry bags / adopt reusable containers and utensils / use rechargeable batteries / use computer storage system rather than paper / recycle used paper. compost solid kitchen waste/ reduce usage/reuse by following 3R. (One point) (ii) It will help in safe disposal and will cause lesser pollution. (iii) It not only reduces waste accumulation but also increases plant growth. (d) (i) Trees give out oxygen and take in carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide emitted by industries/trees control noise pollution/air pollution/ maintain temperature. (ii) The chemicals in chemical fertilizers combine with plant nutrients and the plants are consumed by animals and humans which is harmful (benefits of organic manure or harmful effects of chemical fertilisers may be written) (iii) Plastic and polythene products must be banned because they are non-biodegradable and take hundreds of years to decompose. If these plastics are ingested by animals like cattle or marine life like whales, it can lead to their death. They cause clogging of drains/ pollute soil/ obstruct the seepage of water. 58 GENERAL COMMENTS Topics found difficult / confusing by candidates Suggestions for candidates Toposheet: six figure reference, reason for presence of causeway, main means of irrigation and transport and significance of water body found in 2221. Map pointing: area of laterite soil in north, Gangetic plain and Digboi. Identifying the type of wind, calculation of total annual rainfall and reasoning related to factors affecting climate of India. Identifying vegetation belt in Nilgiri Hills, reasons for deepening of river bed helping in preventing soil erosion, benefits of modern means of irrigation, how transport helps in industrial growth, usefulness of segregation of waste before disposal. Manmade and natural features. Identifying most important settlement. Physical characteristic of laterite soil. Soil formed by weathering of basic lava rocks. Conditions for littoral forests. Mixed farming. Cropping seasons. Mining areas of minerals. Climatic requirement of crops. Cottage industry and cotton textile industry. Location of petro-chemical industries. Study the chapters thoroughly. Avoid selective studies. Prepare tables/charts/notes etc. to revise before examination. Study the subject for acquiring knowledge and understanding of the subject and not for marks alone. Understand the concepts instead of merely cramming the concepts. Practise topographic sheet and map-based questions regularly. Concentrate on acquiring accuracy in map pointing by practicing it regularly. Master the technique to take note of key words. Learn to answer critical and analytical questions. Read books, newspapers and periodicals regularly. Solve past years question papers. Read the instructions given on the question paper attentively. Use the 15 minutes reading time judiciously to make a proper choice of questions by reading the requirements of the question carefully. Choose the questions in which you are sure of answering all the parts. Do not answer extra questions unnecessarily. Concentrate on the questions you need to attempt. Read through the paper on completion to avoid mistakes. 59

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