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CTET Exam - JAN 2021 : Paper 2 (Main)

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This booklet contains 64 printed pages. 64 AAT-20-II PAPER II / II MAIN TEST BOOKLET Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so. Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet. Bg narjm nwp VH$m Ho$ {nN>bo AmdaU na {XE JE {ZX}em| H$mo mZ go n T>| & Test Booklet No. Test Booklet Code M INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only. The test is of 2 hours duration and consists of 150 questions. There is no negative marking. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page / marking responses in the Answer Sheet. The CODE for this Booklet is M. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this Booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and Answer Sheet No. are the same. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet. This Test Booklet has five Parts I, II, III, IV and V, consisting of 150 Objective Type Questions and each carries 1 mark : Part-I : Child Development and Pedagogy (Q. Nos. 1-30) Part-II : Mathematics and Science (Q. Nos. 31-90) Part-III : Social Studies / Social Science (Q. Nos. 31-90) Part-IV : Language-I (English/Hindi) (Q. Nos. 91-120) Part-V : Language-II (English/Hindi) (Q. Nos. 121-150) Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 EITHER from Part-II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part III (Social Studies/Social Science) as filled by the candidates in their online application form. Part-IV contains 30 questions for Language-I and Part-V contains 30 questions for Language-II. In this Test Booklet, only questions pertaining to English and Hindi language have been given. In case the language/s you have opted for as Language-I and/or Language-II is a language other than English or Hindi, please ask for a Supplement Test Booklet of M Code that contains questions on that language. The languages being answered must tally with the languages opted for in your Application Form. No change in languages is allowed. Candidates are required to attempt questions in Language-II (Part-V) in a language other than the one chosen as Language-I (Part-IV) from the list of languages. Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the Test Booklet for the same. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener is allowed for changing answers. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions of questions/answers, English version will be taken as final. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 8. 9. 10. 11. OMR C ma n Bg narjm nwp VH$m Ho$ A Xa aIm h & O~ AmnH$mo narjm nwp VH$m ImobZo H$mo H$hm OmE, Vmo C ma n {ZH$mb H$a n R>-1 Ed n R>2 na mZ go Ho$db Zrbo/H$mbo ~m b nm B Q> noZ go {ddaU ^a| & narjm H$s Ad{Y 2 K Q>o h Ed narjm | 150 Z h & H$moB F$Um H$ A H$Z Zht h & Bg n R> na {ddaU A {H$V H$aZo Ed C ma n na {ZemZ bJmZo Ho$ {bE Ho$db Zrbo/H$mbo ~m b nm B Q> noZ H$m moJ H$a| & Bg nwp VH$m H$m g Ho$V M h & h gw{Zp MV H$a b| {H$ Bg nwp VH$m H$m g Ho$V, C ma n Ho$ n R>- 2 na N>no g Ho$V go { bVm h & h ^r gw{Zp MV H$a b| {H$ narjm nwp VH$m g m Am a C ma n g m { bVo h & AJa h {^ Z hm| Vmo narjmWu X gar narjm nwp VH$m Am a C ma n boZo Ho$ {bE {ZarjH$ H$mo Vwa V AdJV H$amE & Bg narjm nwp VH$m | nm M ^mJ I II III IV Am a V h , {OZ | 150 d Vw{Z R>> Z h , VWm oH$ 1 A H$ H$m h ^mJ I ~mb {dH$mg d {ejmem Z g . 1 30 ^mJ II J{UV d {dkmZ Z g . 31 90 ^mJ III gm m{OH$ A Z/gm m{OH$ {dkmZ Z g . 31 90 ^mJ IV ^mfm I A J o Or {h Xr Z g . 91 120 ^mJ V ^mfm II A J o Or {h Xr Z g . 121 150 narjm{W m| H$mo Z go m Vmo ^mJ J{UV d {dkmZ m ^mJ gm m{OH$ A Z gm m{OH$ {dkmZ go H$aZo h & O gm {H$ narjmWu Zo AnZo Am ZbmBZ AmdoXZ n | ^am h & ^mJ IV | ^mfm I Ho$ {bE 30 Z Am a ^mJ V | ^mfm II Ho$ {bE 30 Z {XE JE h & Bg narjm nwp VH$m | Ho$db A J o Or d {h Xr ^mfm go g ~ {YV Z {XE JE h & {X ^mfm I Am a m ^mfm II | AmnHo$ mam MwZ r JB ^mfm E A J o O r m {h Xr Ho$ Abmdm h /h Vmo H $n m M H$moS> dmbr Cg ^mfm dmbr n[a{e Q> narjm nwp VH$m m J br{OE & {OZ ^mfmAm| Ho$ Zm| Ho$ C ma Amn Xo aho h dh AmdoXZ n | MwZr JB ^mfmAm| go Ad ob ImZr Mm{hE & ^mfmAm| H$m n[adV Z AZw Zht h & narjmWu ^mfm II ^mJ V Ho$ {bE, ^mfm gyMr go Eogr ^mfm MwZ| Omo CZHo$ mam ^mfm I ^mJ IV | MwZr JB ^mfm go {^ Z hmo & a $ H$m narjm nwp VH$m | Bg moOZ Ho$ {bE Xr JB Imbr OJh na hr H$a| & g^r C ma Ho$db OMR C ma n na hr A {H$V H$a| & AnZo C ma mZnyd H$ A {H$V H$a| & C ma ~XbZo hoVw doV a OH$ H$m moJ {Z{f h & {X A J o Or Am a {h Xr g H$aU Ho$ Zm|/C mam| | H$moB {dg J{V hmo Vmo A J o Or g H$aU A {V mZm Om oJm & Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) : Roll Number : in figures in words Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters) : Candidate s Signature : Invigilator s Signature : Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent M M (2) P-II PART I / I CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY / Directions : Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 1 to 30) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. : ( . 1 30) / : 1. 1. 2. 3. 4. During the period of childhood, development (1) is slow and cannot be measured. (2) is multi-layered and complex. (3) consists only of quantitative changes. (4) is disorderly and disjointed. Zone of proximal development is (1) the area between a child s current level of independent performance and the level of performance that the child could achieve with the help of adults and more skilled peers. (2) a range of tasks that the child should be able to do as per her age but cannot. (3) the process where two individuals who begin with different understandings arrive at a shared understanding. (4) the process in which children learn to perform tasks as set by the elder members in a society. According to Jean Piaget, children in formal operational stage (1) are capable of hypotheticodeductive reasoning and propositional thought. (2) are bound by centration and irreversibly of thought. (3) cannot conserve, classify and seriate. (4) begin to engage in make-believe and symbolic play. At which stage of Lawrence Kohlberg s theory of moral development do individuals believe that actively maintaining the current social system ensures positive human relationships and societal order ? (1) The punishment and obedience orientation (2) The social-order maintaining orientation (3) The instrumental purpose orientation (4) The universal ethical principle orientation 2. 3. 4. (1) (2) (3) (4) ? (1) (2) (3) (4) , (1) (2) (3) , (4) ? (1) (2) - (3) (4) P-II (3) 5. Which of the following is a correctly matched pair of type of intelligence and end-state performance possibilities as per Howard Gardner s theory of multiple intelligences ? Types of Intelligence 6. 5. - - ? End-state performance possibility (1) Spatial Therapist (2) Intra-personal Salesperson (3) Linguistic Sculptor (4) Bodily-kinesthetic Athlete - (1) (2) (3) (4) - According to Lev Vygotsky (1) 7. M language plays an important role in cognitive development of children. 6. (1) (2) children learn language through a language acquisition device . (2) (3) children s cognitive development occurs in stages. (3) (4) maturation of schemas leads to cognitive development in children. (4) In a progressive classroom, assessment of learners during the process of teaching-learning (1) is not at all helpful in children s learning. (2) creates a hindrance in the process of children s learning. (3) is helpful in identifying high , low and non achievers for the purposes of giving feedback to the parents. (4) is very important since it gives insights into children s understanding and helps the teacher to reflects on her pedagogy. 7. (1) (2) (3) , (4) , - M 8. 9. 10. 11. (4) An effective classroom strategy to reduce gender stereotyping and broadening developmental possibilities for all sexes is (1) to ignore and dismiss biological differences among the sexes. (2) to reinforce gender roles portrayed in the society. (3) forming groupings. (4) forming mixed-sex activity groups and promote discussion. same-sex an asset and resource (2) a hindrance (3) a problem (4) a systemic issue (1) the teacher uses the textbook as the only source of knowledge. (2) the teacher segregates the children based on their abilities. (3) the teacher uses rewards and punishments to direct children s behaviour. (4) the teacher is flexible and caters to needs of individual children. According to which theorist cultural tools play an important role in cognitive development of children ? Lev Vygotsky (2) Jean Piaget (3) Albert Bandura (4) B.F. Skinner ? (1) (2) (3) (4) - 9. ____ (1) (2) (3) (4) 10. - , (1) (2) , (3) (4) 11. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) . . ability A child-centered classroom is one in which (1) 8. as Multilingualism in a classroom needs to be understood as _________ by the teachers. (1) P-II P-II (5) 12. Which of the following is NOT a suitable learning material for students who are partially sighted ? (1) Large-print books 13. 14. 15. (2) Three charts dimensional maps (3) Talking books, felt bulletin boards (4) Small-print worksheets M 12. ? (1) (2) - (3) , (4) 13. - and The underlying belief behind inclusive education is (1) segregation of children on the basis of their abilities and provisioning of vocational training accordingly. (2) diagnostic labelling of children based on their handicaps for identification of their limitations. (3) provisioning of special education institutions for children with different handicaps. (4) the philosophy that all children have a right to get equal education in a regular school. Needs of gifted and creative children can be addressed by (1) giving challenging tasks and activities to prevent boredom. (2) giving questions that convergent thinking. (3) providing specific instructions to solve problems. (4) administrating tests. (1) (2) (3) (4) 14. require memory based Children with dyslexia can be identified by (1) finding out their social and cultural context. (2) a thorough physical health checkup. (3) analyzing their writing skills. (4) assessing their ability to solve complex higher-order problems. reading and 15. , , - ? (1) (2) (3) (4) ? (1) (2) (3) (4) - M 16. 17. (6) Which of the following is NOT an effective strategy to address learners from disadvantaged and deprived backgrounds ? (1) Talk to the learners to understand their needs and challenges faced by them. (2) Asking the learners to enroll for tuition outside of school so that the teacher does not have to pay much attention to them. (3) Motivate the students to set moderately challenging goals and provide appropriate instructional support. (4) Form collaborative groups to work on activities and encourage students to support each other. Physical and emotional health children _________ their learning. (1) does not have any influence on (2) plays an important role in (3) is not related to (4) has an insignificant role in of P-II 16. 17. 18. 18. To promote meaningful learning in the classrooms, a teacher should (i) help students to regulate their own emotions and motivation. (ii) categorize and label students according to their performance and make ability-grouping. (iii) promote dialogue and discussion among children to build multiple perspectives. (iv) ignore diversity in the classroom and follow standard methods of instruction. (1) (i), (iii) (2) (ii), (iii) (3) (i), (iii), (iv) (4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) ? (1) (2) , (3) (4) ____ (1) (2) (3) (4) ____ (i) (ii) - (iii) (iv) (1) (2) (3) (4) (i), (iii) (ii), (iii) (i), (iii), (iv) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) P-II (7) 19. Learning is a _________ and _________ process. (1) complex; active (2) simple; linear (3) simple; individual (4) complex; passive M 19. , ____ ____ (1) ; (2) ; (3) ; (4) ; , , , ____ (1) (2) (3) (4) 20. A teacher should _________ the social, cultural, religious and linguistic diversity in her classroom to facilitate meaningful learning. (1) dismiss (2) ignore (3) understand (4) neglect 20. 21. It is important to create _________ learning environment in the classroom rather than _________ one. (1) collaborative; competitive (2) competitive; collaborative (3) fearful; facilitative (4) competitive; facilitative 21. ____ ____ (1) ; (2) ; (3) ; (4) ; 22. Which of the following is an example of effective motivational strategy to encourage students to learn ? (1) Providing scaffolding especially when students learn a new skill. (2) Emphasis on completion of work rather than learning. (3) Giving tasks that are very easy. (4) Creating a lot of opportunities for competition. 22. 23. Which of the following statements about children s thinking is NOT correct ? (1) Children construct their own theories about various phenomenon around them. (2) Children cannot think of concepts on their own and the primary role of teachers is to provide information. (3) Children actively think about various phenomenon around them and have an urge to explore. (4) Children are born with curiosity to learn about the world around them. 23. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) ? (1) - (2) (3) - ( - ) (4) M 24. (8) Children s failure in school (1) suggests that P-II 24. children from (1) (2) (3) (4) deprived backgrounds are not capable of learning. (2) indicates that school has not been able to cater to the needs and interests of these children. (3) proves that these children have genetic birth defects and hence should be pulled out from school. (4) signifies that parents have not been able to support their children to learn. 25. By working in groups, teaching and 25. - (1) (2) , (3) (4) , / 26. ____ - helping each other, children (1) are able to reflect on their own thought processes and shift to a higher level of cognitive activity. (2) can develop misconceptions which interferes with their learning. (3) get distracted and hence it is an ineffective pedagogical strategy. (4) develop competitive tendencies that hinder learning. 26. In a _________ classroom teachers adapt their assessment pedagogy to cater students. to and vary individual (1) teacher-centric (1) - (2) progressive (2) (3) textbook-centric (3) - (4) behaviouristic (4) P-II (9) 27. Which of the following statements about development is correct ? 28. 29. 30. (1) There is a lot of cultural diversity in the development of children. (2) Children across the world follow the same sequence and exact time of development. (3) Development occurs in a neat, orderly set of stages predetermined by genetic factors. (4) Development is simple and unidimensional. Which of the following is a major hallmark of the period of middle childhood ? M 27. ? (1) - (2) (3) , (4) - 28. ? (1) Emergence of make-believe play. (1) - (2) Development of logical thought that is concrete in nature. (2) (3) Rapid development of motor skills and overall physical growth. (3) (4) Development of scientific reasoning and ability to think abstractly. (4) School _________ children. socialization of 29. ____ (1) does not play any role in (1) (2) plays very little role in (2) (3) is a primary agency of (3) (4) is a secondary agency of (4) Which of the following theorists proposed that children s thinking is qualitatively different from that of adults ? (1) Jean Piaget (2) Lev Vygotsky (3) Howard Gardner (4) Lawrence Kohlberg 30. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) M (10) P-II IMPORTANT : Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 EITHER from Part - II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part - III (Social Studies / Social Science). 31 III 90 II PART - II / - II MATHEMATICS AND SCIENCE / Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. 31. 32. 33. If 0.139 + 0.75 + 2.105 (1.001) 1.1 = 2 k, then the value of k is (1) 0.8925 (2) 0.982 (3) 0.1071 (4) 0.1075 3 5 and b = , then which of the 4 6 following does not lie between a and b ? (1) 0 1 (2) 2 2 (3) 5 7 (4) 9 If a = The product of 1.7 104 and 12.5 10 6 is expressed in the standard form as k 10n. The value of (2k + n) is (1) 2.125 (2) 1.125 (3) 2.25 (4) 3.25 : / : 31. 0.139 + 0.75 + 2.105 (1.001) 1.1 = 2 k , k (1) (2) (3) (4) 32. 3 (1) 0 (2) (4) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / 5 a = 4 b = 6 , a b ? (3) 33. 0.8925 0.982 0.1071 0.1075 1 2 2 5 7 9 1.7 104 12.5 10 6 k 10n (2k + n) (1) 2.125 (2) 1.125 (3) 2.25 (4) 3.25 P-II 34. Two numbers are in the ratio 3:5. If (11) M 34. 12 is added to both the numbers, then the ratio becomes 5:7. The sum of the given two numbers is 35. (1) 32 (2) 40 (3) 48 (4) 56 The marked price of an article is ` 840. A shopkeeper gives a discount 35. of 15% on the marked price and still makes a profit of 19%. What is the cost price of the article ? 36. (1) 32 (2) 40 (3) 48 (4) 56 ` 840 15% , 19% ? (1) ` 540 (2) ` 580 ` 600 (3) ` 600 ` 640 (4) ` 640 (1) ` 540 (2) ` 580 (3) (4) If 3:5 12 , 5:7 5x 7 4x 3 + 2 = + 4x, then the 3 4 36. value of (8x + 5) is (1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 9 (4) 13 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / 5x 7 4x 3 + 2 = + 4x 3 4 (8x + 5) (1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 9 (4) 13 , M 37. (12) Let P-II 37. P = 12xy 10y2 18x2, P = 12xy 10y2 18x2, Q = 14x2 + 12y2 + 9xy, and Q = 14x2 + 12y2 + 9xy, R = 5y2 x2 + xy R = 5y2 x2 + xy then (P + Q) R = 38. 39. (1) 22xy 3x2 + 3y2 (2) 22xy + 3x2 3y2 (3) 20xy 7x2 (4) 20xy 3x2 3y2 3y2 1 If x4 + 4 = 322, x 0, then one of the x 1 values of x is x (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8 (P + Q) R = If 15x2 26x + 8 = (Ax + B) (Cx + D), where A and C are positive integers, then what is the value of (2A + B C 2D) ? 38. (1) 22xy 3x2 + 3y2 (2) 22xy + 3x2 3y2 (3) 20xy 7x2 3y2 (4) 20xy 3x2 3y2 x4 + 1 1 = 322, x 0 , x 4 x x 39. (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8 15x2 26x + 8 = (Ax + B) (Cx + D) , , A C , (2A + B C 2D) ? (1) 0 (1) 0 (2) 1 (2) 1 (3) 2 (3) 2 (4) 3 (4) 3 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / P-II 40. In ABC and DEF, if AB = EF, BC = DE and CA = FD, then 41. 42. 43. (1) ABC DEF (2) ABC FED (3) ABC EFD (4) ABC DFE Which of the following can be the sides of a right angled triangle ? (1) 20 cm, 21 cm and 31 cm (2) 35 cm, 77 cm and 88 cm (3) 15 cm, 32 cm and 57 cm (4) 65 cm, 72 cm and 97 cm The number of edges of a polyhedron, which has 7 faces and 10 vertices, is (1) 13 (2) 14 (3) 15 (4) 17 In ABC, the side AB is produced to E and side CA is produced to D. If BAD = 125 and EBC = 100 then which of the following is true ? (1) ABC is an isosceles triangle. (2) AB > BC (3) Difference between ABC and ACB is 35 Difference between BAC and ACB is 20 (4) (13) 40. M AB = EF, DEF BC = DE CA = FD , ABC (1) ABC DEF (2) ABC FED (3) ABC EFD (4) ABC DFE 41. ? (1) 20 cm, 21 cm 31 cm (2) 35 cm, 77 cm 88 cm (3) 15 cm, 32 cm 57 cm (4) 65 cm, 72 cm 97 cm 42. 7 10 43. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / (1) 13 (2) 14 (3) 15 (4) 17 , AB E CA D ABC BAD = 125 EBC = 100 , ? (1) ABC (2) AB > BC (3) ABC ACB 35 (4) BAC ACB 20 M 44. 45. 46. (14) In trapezium PQRS, PQ || SR and the ratio of PQ to SR is 3:2. If the area of the trapezium is 480 cm2 and the distance between PQ and SR is 12 cm, then the length of SR is (1) 24 cm (2) 32 cm (3) 36 cm (4) 48 cm 44. A rectangular sheet of paper 88 cm 10 cm is folded without overlapping to make a cylinder of height 10 cm. What is the capacity (in litres) of the cylinder ? 22 (Take = ) 7 (1) 5.54 (2) 6.16 (3) 7.392 (4) 8.624 45. The volume of a cube is 2197 cm3. What is its lateral surface area (in cm2)? (1) (2) (3) (4) 47. P-II (1) (2) (3) (4) 24 cm 32 cm 36 cm 48 cm , 10 cm ( ) 88 cm 10 cm 22 ) 7 5.54 6.16 7.392 8.624 ? ( = (1) (2) (3) (4) 46. 2197 cm3 (cm2 ) ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 676 576 845 1014 What is the mean of the range, mode and median of the data given below ? 5, 10, 3, 6, 4, 8, 9, 3, 15, 2, 9, 4, 19, 11, 4 (1) 8 (2) 9 (3) 10 (4) 12 PQRS , PQ || SR PQ SR 3:2 480 cm2 PQ SR 12 cm , SR 47. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / 676 576 845 1014 , , ? 5, 10, 3, 6, 4, 8, 9, 3, 15, 2, 9, 4, 19, 11, 4 (1) 8 (2) 9 (3) 10 (4) 12 P-II 48. (15) M decimal numbers in the middle school ? ? (1) (1) Which of the following is most 48. appropriate strategy for introducing the concept of multiplication of two The algorithm should be used to introduce the concept. (2) (2) The process should be visually represented. (3) Multiplication as (3) repeated addition should be emphasized. (4) Multiplication as inverse (4) of division should be emphasized. 49. Which of the following is a narrow 49. aim of teaching mathematics ? (1) To encourage systematic reasoning among students. (2) To develop students ability to argue the truth and falsity of statements. (3) To make students proficient in handling numbers and number operations. (4) To develop students generalization abilities. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / , - , ? (1) (2) (3) (4) M 50. (16) Which of the following is most appropriate students strategy for to solve P-II 50. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 51. teaching mathematical problems ? (1) Guess and verify approach should be strictly discouraged. (2) The list of formulae required for solving the given set of problems should be provided in the begin by beginning. (3) Teacher should explaining the steps required for obtaining the solutions of the problems. (4) Students should be encouraged to view a problem from many perspectives. 51. Identify the incorrect statement from among the following : (1) Hypothesis have construction of a role in mathematical knowledge. (2) The notion of argumentation is central to mathematics. (3) Mathematical (1) (2) (3) communication involves precise use of language. (4) Conjectures do not have utility in constructing mathematical knowledge. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / (4) P-II 52. Which of the following is a desirable strategy for assessing students learning in mathematics ? (1) Same tasks should be given to all students for parity. (2) Students incorrect answers should be ignored. (3) Students justification of their responses should be an important basis of assessment. (4) Development of mathematical vocabulary should not be a basis of assessment. 53. 54. For a given figure to be a triangle, the condition that it is a union of three segments is (1) a necessary but not a sufficient condition. (2) a sufficient but not a necessary condition. (3) both necessary and sufficient condition. (4) neither necessary nor sufficient condition. Consider the following statements : (17) M 52. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 53. 54. A = If n is even, then n2 is even. B = If n2 is not even, n is not even. C = If n2 is even, then n is even. D = If n is not even, then n2 is not even. Which of the following statements is true ? (1) C is converse of A. (2) D is converse of A. (3) B is inverse of A. (4) D is contraposition of A. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / (1) (2) , (3) (4) : A = n , n2 B = n2 , n C = n2 , n D = n , n2 ? (1) C, A (2) D, A (3) B, A (4) D, A M 55. (18) P-II Which of the following teachinglearning resources in mathematics cannot be used for visually challenged students ? (1) GeoGebra (2) Taylor s abacus (3) Tiles (4) GeoBoard 55. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 56. Which of the following statements is true ? (1) Mathematics consists of all the theorems proved in mathematics books. (2) A person good in arithmetical computation is also good in Mathematics and vice-versa. (3) Intuition has no role in generating mathematical knowledge. (4) Mathematical statements can be conditional. 56. ? (1) (2) : (3) (4) 57. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding differently abled children of dyslexia in mathematics learning in an inclusive classroom ? (1) Dyslexia has an impact in a person s co-ordination of verbal and spatial aspects of numbers. (2) Visual patterns in mathematics help in overcoming difficulties experienced by dyslexic children. (3) Dyslexic children may have difficulty in writing down their ideas in systematic and organized manner. (4) Dyslexia impacts only language learning not mathematics learning. 57. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / P-II 58. The number of distinct prime factors of the largest 6-digit number is 59. 60. (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 If the 8-digit number 179x091y is divisible by 88, then what is the value of (x y) ? (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 11 13 15 ,b= and c = be three 13 14 17 fractions. Which of the following is true ? Let a = (19) M 58. 59. 60. 6- (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 8- 179x091y, 88 , (x y) ? (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 11 (1) 13 11 15 < < 14 13 17 (1) 13 11 15 < < 14 13 17 (2) 15 13 11 < < 17 14 13 (2) 15 13 11 < < 17 14 13 (3) 11 15 13 < < 13 17 14 (3) 11 15 13 < < 13 17 14 (4) 11 13 15 < < 13 14 17 (4) 11 13 15 < < 13 14 17 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / 13 15 a = 13, b = 14 c = 17 ? M (20) Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. 61. Which of the following represents correct matching set ? P-II : / : 61. (a) helps in the (i) Cartilage movement of body by contraction and relaxation. (b) Hard structure which forms the skeleton (ii) Muscles (c) Part of skeleton which can be bent (iii) Rib-cage (d) Joins the chest (iv) Bones bone and back bone together to form an enclosure (1) (a) (i), (b) (iii), (c) (ii), (d) (iv) (2) (a) (ii), (b) (iv), (c) (i), (d) (iii) (3) (a) (iii), (b) (ii), (c) (i), (d) (iv) (4) (a) (iv), (b) (iii), (c) (ii), (d) (i) 62. 63. 64. Which of the following glands in human beings secretes more than two hormones ? (1) Adrenal (2) Pituitary (3) Pancreas (4) Thyroid Which of the following statements is true ? (1) All metals are solids. (2) All metals are hard. (3) All non-metals are gases. (4) All non-metals are non-ductile. Y is a man-made fibre obtained from a natural source. What could be Y ? (1) Rayon (2) Nylon (3) Acrylic (4) Jute ? (a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) - (d) (iv) (1) (2) (3) (4) 62. 63. 64. (a) (i), (b) (iii), (c) (ii), (d) (iv) (a) (ii), (b) (iv), (c) (i), (d) (iii) (a) (iii), (b) (ii), (c) (i), (d) (iv) (a) (iv), (b) (iii), (c) (ii), (d) (i) ? (1) (2) (3) (4) ? (1) (2) (3) (4) ( ) - ( ) Y ? (1) (2) (3) (4) Y P-II 65. (21) Study the following table : Fuel M 65. Calorific value State Ignition A High solid high B Moderate gas high C Moderate gas moderate D Low liquid low temp. Which is best suited as domestic fuel ? 66. 67. 68. (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D Species restricted to a particular area are referred to as (1) Endangered species (2) Extinct species (3) Endemic species (4) Migratory species Metal X displaces metal Y from its salt solution but is not able to displace metal Z from its salt solution. Identify the most reactive metal. (1) X (2) Y (3) Z (4) Cannot be determined. Light rays from an object fall on a surface and get reflected in a completely diffused manner. What can you say about the nature of image of the object ? (1) It will be virtual and of same size. (2) It will be real and enlarged. (3) It will be virtual and enlarged. (4) No image will be formed. : - A B C D ? (1) (2) (3) (4) A B C D 66. (1) (2) (3) (4) 67. X , Y - Z ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 68. X Y Z : ? (1) (2) (3) (4) M 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. (22) In order to slide a huge box lying on the ground in her room, Reshma should apply a force which is greater than which of the following forces ? (1) Static friction (2) Gravitational force (3) Normal force (4) Muscular force Identify the correct statement from among the following : (1) The lower the frequency of the vibration, higher is the pitch. (2) The loudness of sound is determined by the frequency of vibration. (3) Sound cannot travel through vacuum. (4) Pitch of sound is determined by its amplitude. Which of the following sets comprises liquids which are poor conductors of electricity ? (1) tap water, shampoo, honey (2) salt solution, lemon juice, vinegar (3) shampoo, vegetable oil, distilled water (4) sugar solution, vinegar, lemon juice Which of the following sets comprises chemical changes ? (1) Boiling of water, breaking of glass, rusting of iron (2) Dissolving salt in water, digestion of food, shredding of paper. (3) Cooking of food, boiling of water, dissolving sugar in water. (4) Rusting of iron, burning of paper, digestion of food Neena was cycling to the market to buy some grocery items. The market is 4 km away from her home. She travels at a speed of 12 km/h for first 10 minutes. On her way she meets her friend Nikhat and stops to chat with her for 15 minutes. She resumes her journey at a speed of 8 km/h. What is her average speed for the journey ? (1) 6 km/h (2) 8 km/h (3) 10 km/h (4) 4 km/h P-II 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) _____ (1) , (2) (3) (4) ? (1) , , (2) , , (3) , , (4) , , ? (1) , , (2) , , - (3) , , (4) , , 4 km 10 12 km/h 15 8 km/h ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 6 km/h 8 km/h 10 km/h 4 km/h P-II (23) M 74. Which of the following will not be helpful in the process of separating a mixture of salt and water ? (1) Decantation (2) Filteration (3) Distillation (4) Boiling 74. 75. Which of the following properties of light can be used to explain the phenomenon of shadow formation ? A. Light travels in a straight line. B. Light travels at a high speed. C. Light is composed of seven colours. D. Light does not pass through opaque objects. (1) A and B (2) B and C (3) C and D (4) D and A 75. 76. Identify the correct statement from among the following : (1) The proportion of fine particles in sandy soil is relatively higher than in the clayey soil. (2) The amount of large and fine particles is about the same in clayey soil. (3) The proportion of large particles in loamy soil is relatively higher than in the sandy soil. (4) The proportion of fine particles in clayey soil is relatively higher than in the loamy soil. 77. Deficiency of vitamin X causes bleeding of gums. This vitamin is essential for absorption of mineral Y and X is found in food Z . Identify X, Y and Z. (1) X-vitamin D, Y- calcium, Z-milk product (2) X-vitamin C, Y-iron, Z-citrus fruits (3) X-vitamin B, Y-calcium, Z-green leafy vegetables (4) X-vitamin A, Y-phosphorus, Z-poultry products 76. 77. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) ? A. B. C. ( ) D. (1) A B (2) B C (3) C D (4) D A : (1) (2) (3) (4) X ( ) Y X Z X , Y Z : (1) X- D, Y- , Z- (2) X- C, Y- , Z- (3) X- B, Y- , Z- (4) X- A, Y- , Z- M 78. 79. 80. (24) Which of the following statement best describes the nature of science ? (1) science is a system of beliefs. (2) science is social in nature. (3) scientists are totally objective in their work. (4) the scientific method is the only guide for conducting research. Cognitive validity curriculum means in science P-II 78. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 79. - (1) inclusion of how concepts of science evolve over time. (1) (2) adaptation of content as per the cognitive level of learners. (2) (3) dilution of content (3) - (4) inclusion of appropriate elements of science. (4) fun According to N.C.F. 2005 in the upper primary stage science curriculum, which of the following is recommended ? a. Concepts should be linked to making sense of everyday experience. b. Concepts should be arrived at from activities/experiments. c. Concepts should be taught through disciplinary approach. d. Along with concepts, laws and theories need to be introduced (1) a, b and c (2) a and b (3) a, b and d (4) a and d 80. . . . 2005 , ? a. b. / c. d. (1) a, b c (2) a b (3) a, b d (4) a d P-II 81. (25) From the following, identify the statement that is true about science. (1) Scientists rely heavily on imagination to carry out their work. (2) All scientific ideas are discovered and tested by controlled experiments. (3) (4) 82. 83. M 81. When a theory has been supported by a great deal of scientific evidence, it becomes law. (1) (2) (3) (4) , In time, science will be able to solve most of society s problems. Ishu was given an individual task of collecting weather reports for a week. Identify where Ishu went wrong from the assessment indicators given below : 82. (1) She tabulates data from a website everyday. (1) (2) She arrives at conclusion that rain may or may not take place in the coming week. (2) (3) (4) (3) She concludes that decreased humidity increases the likelihood of rainfall. (4) She understands that range of maximum and minimum temperature varies everyday. Which of the following is a useful strategy to understand conceptual gaps in learners ? (1) organizing quiz sessions (2) observing practical skills (3) using concept maps (4) giving homework regularly 83. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) M 84. 85. (26) To encourage more girls to take up sciences, you may adopt all of the following strategies, except (1) use gender sensitive language and encourage your students to do so. (2) be mindful that girls always dominate discussion in science classroom. (3) invite women scientists to visit your classroom. (4) engage students in examining myths and stereotypes about science. P-II 84. 85. Science teachers need to ask more divergent questions because a. it stimulates and develops critical thinking. b. it directs students to correct answers. c. it helps develop thinking strategies d. it helps in assessing creative behaviour in a learner. (1) a, b, c (2) a, c, d (3) only b (4) only a 86. Using demonstrations in classroom predominantly involves learners in (1) visual and auditory learning (2) visual learning only (3) visual, auditory and kinesthetic learning (4) auditory and kinesthetic learning 87. Give the sequence of planning for your science classroom using inquiry approach in teaching concept of density. a. allow students to determine relationship between objects that float and sink. b. allow students to play with water in a tub with different objects. c. ask students to design a small boat that can carry 1 kg of weight. (1) a b c (2) c b a (3) b c a (4) b a c , , (1) (2) (3) (4) a. b. c. d. (1) (2) (3) (4) 86. 87. a, b, c a, c, d b a (1) (2) (3) , (4) a. b. c. 1 (1) (2) (3) (4) a b c c b a b c a b a c P-II 88. (27) Y is a plant which does not have M 88. Chlorophyll. What could Y be ? (1) 89. Cuscuta ( ) Y ? Y (1) ( ) (2) (2) Algae (3) Pitcher plant (3) ( ) (4) Maple tree (4) Which of the following statements is 89. correct ? (1) (1) (2) Absorption of digested food takes Assimilation of food takes place in large intestine. (4) place in large intestine. (3) Large intestine is wider and shorter than small intestine. (2) ? (3) (4) Large intestine has finger like projection called villi. 90. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding life cycle of silk worm and production of silk fibres ? (1) ? (1) The larvae of silk moths are called as caterpillars. (2) 90. The pupa (2) develops into (3) Silk fibres are proteins secreted by The silk yarn is obtained from the cocoon of the silk moth. caterpillars. (4) / caterpillar. (3) (4) M (28) P-II IMPORTANT : Candidates have to do Question Nos. 31 to 90 EITHER from Part II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part - III (Social Studies / Social Science). PART - III / SOCIAL STUDIES / SOCIAL SCIENCE Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. 31 II 90 III - III / A, B C A. - B. , C. (1) A B , C (2) A C , B (3) B C , A (4) A, B C : 31. Consider the statements A, B, C about Autumn season in India and choose the correct answer : A. This season is also known as the south-west monsoon season. B. Winds blow from the Bay of Bengal and Arabian sea towards the land in this season. C. This season is marked by the onset and advance of monsoon. (1) A and B are true, C is false. (2) A and C are true, B is false. (3) B and C are true, A is false. (4) A, B, C all are false. 32. Which of the following rivers form the Sunderban Delta ? (1) Ganga and Brahmaputra (2) Narmada and Tapi (3) Mahanadi and Godavari (4) Krishna and Kaveri 32. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 33. Identify the atmospheric layer from the given features A and B : A. Meteorites burn up in this layer on entering from the space. B. Temperature declines with increasing height in this layer. (1) Troposphere (2) Stratosphere (3) Mesosphere (4) Thermosphere 33. A B : A. - B. (1) (2) (3) (4) 34. Insolation is associated with (1) Air pressure (2) Seasonal winds (3) Solar energy (4) Exosphere and its gases 34. (1) (2) (3) (4) 31. P-II 35. (29) M : a. i. b. ii. c. iii. d. iv. - Match the following with appropriate choices : a. Coniferous i. Eastern forests margin of the continents b. Mediterranean ii. Hardwood vegetation trees c. Tropical iii. Softwood evergreen evergreen forests trees d. Temperate iv. West and evergreen south-west forests margin of the continents (1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (3) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i (4) a-i, b-iv, c ii, d-iii 35. 36. Consider the two statements and choose the correct option : Statement (A) : Sahara once used to be a lush green plain. Statement (B) : Cave painting in sahara depicts rivers, crocodiles, elephants, lions, cattle and goats. (1) (A) is false, but (B) is true. (2) (A) is true, but (B) is false. (3) Both (A) and (B) are true. (4) Both (A) and (B) are false. 36. 37. Consider the statements A, B, C on dolphin and choose the correct answer : A. Dolphins are found in the fresh water of river Ganga and Brahmaputra. B. Dolphin sanctuary is located in the state of Bihar. C. The presence of dolphin is an indicator of the health of the river. (1) A, B, C all are correct. (2) A and C are correct but B is incorrect. (3) B and C are correct but A is incorrect. (4) A and B are correct but C is incorrect. : (A) : - (B) : , , , , (1) (A) , (B) (2) (A) , (B) (3) (A) (B) (4) (A) (B) 37. A, B C : A. B. C. (1) A, B C (2) A C , B (3) B C , A (4) A B , C (1) (2) (3) (4) a-i, a-iii, a-iii, a-i, b-ii, b-iv, b-ii, b-iv, c-iii, c-ii, c-iv, c ii, d-iv d-i d-i d-iii M (30) 38. Biogas is essentially a mixture of (1) Methane and Carbon dioxide (2) Methane and Nitrogen (3) Methane and Hydrogen (4) Methane and Helium 39. Consider the statements A and B about resources and choose the correct answer. A. All resources have economic value. B. Time and technology are two important factors that can change substance into resource. (1) A is false, but B is true. (2) A is true, but B is false. (3) Both A & B are true and B is the correct explanation of A. (4) Both A & B are true but B is not a correct explanation of A. 40. 41. Choose the correct group of conventional sources of energy from the following : (1) Oil, natural gas, firewood (2) Coal, firewood, biogas (3) Hydel power, geothermal energy, tidal energy (4) Nuclear energy, solar energy, hydel power Match the types of natural resources (B) with their classification (A) : A B (Classification (Resource Type) Basis) a. Level of development & use b. Origin c. Distribution d. Stock (1) (2) (3) (4) a-i, a-ii, a-iii, a-iv, b-ii, b-i, b-iv, b-iii, i. ii. Actual & Potential Biotic & Abiotic iii. Ubiquitous and localised iv. Renewable and Nonrenewable c-iii, d-iv c-iv, d-iii c-i, d-ii c-ii, d-i P-II 38. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 39. A B A. B. (1) A , B (2) A , B (3) A B B A (4) A B B A 40. : (1) , , (2) , , (3) - , - , (4) , , - 41. : A B ( ) b. c. ( ) ii. iii. iv. a. d. (1) (2) (3) (4) a-i, a-ii, a-iii, a-iv, b-ii, b-i, b-iv, b-iii, i. c-iii, c-iv, c-i, c-ii, d-iv d-iii d-ii d-i P-II (31) 42. Statement (A) : Around 12,000 years ago, a shift to relatively warmer conditions led to development of grasslands in many areas in India. Statement (B) : There was an increase in the number of deer, antelopes, goat, sheep and cattle. (1) (A) is true but (B) is false. (2) (A) is false but (B) is true. (3) Both (A) and (B) are true and (B) is the reason for (A). (4) Both (A) and (B) are true but (B) is not the reason for (A). 43. Which of the following is true in the context of sites ? A. These are places where remains of past were found. B. These are found only on earth s surface. C. These are found only buried under the earth. D. They are never found under sea or a river. (1) A only (2) A and B only (3) A, B and C only (4) D only The Harappans made A. Seals out of stone B. Pots with yellow designs C. Spindle whorls made of iron D. Gold vessels (1) A and C only (2) A and D only (3) A, B and C only (4) B, C and D only A megalithic burial had remains of two skeletons. An appropriate way for figuring out a female s skeleton from among the two would be to look at A. the bone structures B. the ornaments on the skeletons C. size of the skeletons D. utensils for cooking food found with skeletons. (1) only A (2) only A and B (3) only A and C (4) only D 44. 45. M 42. (A) : 12,000 , (B) : , , , (1) (A) , (B) (2) (A) , (B) (3) (A) (B) (A) (B) (4) (A) (B) , (A) (B) 43. ? A. B. C. D. (1) A (2) A B (3) A, B C (4) D 44. : A. B. C. D. (1) A C (2) A D (3) A, B C (4) B, C D 45. : A. B. C. D. (1) A (2) A B (3) A C (4) D M 46. 47. 48. (32) Arrange the following in ascending order starting from the earliest period A. Beginning of the composition of the Vedas B. Beginning of the building of megaliths. C. Settlements of Farmers at Inamgaon D. Charaka (1) A, B, C, D (2) B, C, D, A (3) C, D, B, A (4) D, C, B, A Arrange the following in descending order (backward) starting from the recent period : P-II 46. : A. B. C. D. (1) (2) (3) (4) 47. A, B, C, D B, C, D, A C, D, B, A D, C, B, A ( ) : A. , , Beginning of the use of iron in the subcontinent. B. C. Settlement in Arikamedu port C. D. Beginning of the composition of Sangam literature. D. (1) A, C, B, D (1) A, C, B, D (2) A, B, C, D (2) A, B, C, D (3) C, D, A, B (3) C, D, A, B (4) C, D, B, A (4) C, D, B, A A. Increase in the use of iron, cities, punch marked coins. B. Statement (A) : Chola temples were the hub of religious, social and cultural life. Statement (B) : Chola bronze images were of deities but sometimes also of devotees. (1) (A) is true, but (B) is false. (2) (A) is false, but (B) is true. (3) Both (A) and (B) are true and (B) is the correct explanation of (A). (4) Both (A) and (B) are true, but (B) is not the correct explanation of (A). 48. (A) : , (B) : (1) (A) , (B) (2) (A) , (B) (3) (A) (B) (A) (B) (4) (A) (B) , (A) (B) P-II (33) M 49. Statement (A) : The authors of tawarikhs during the Delhi Sultans advised on preserving an ideal social order based on birthright and gender distinctions . Statement (B) : Their ideas were shared by everybody. (1) (A) is true but (B) is false. (2) (A) is false but (B) is true. (3) Both (A) and (B) are true and (B) is the correct explanation of (A). (4) Both (A) and (B) are true, but (B) is not the correct explanation of (A). 49. (A) : (B) : (1) (A) , (B) (2) (A) , (B) (3) (A) (B) (A) (B) (4) (A) (B) , (A) (B) 50. Statement (A) : Raziya changed her name on her inscriptions and pretended she was a man. Statement (B) : Authors of tawarikhs used social and gender differences to argue that men are superior to women. (1) (A) is true, but (B) is false. (2) (A) is false, but (B) is true. (3) Both (A) and (B) are true and (B) is the correct explanation of (A). (4) Both (A) and (B) are true but (B) is not the correct explanation of (A). 50. (A) : (B) : (1) (A) , (B) (2) (A) , (B) (3) (A) (B) (A) (B) (4) (A) (B) , (A) (B) 51. Statement (A) : Akbar, Jahangir and Shahjahan followed the idea of Sulh-i-Kul (universal peace) as principles of governance. Statement (B) : Akbar s interactions with people connected with faiths, made him realise that religious scholars who emphasised rituals and dogmas were often bigots. (1) (A) is true, but (B) is false. (2) (A) is false, but (B) is true. (3) Both (A) and (B) are true and (B) is the reason for (A). (4) Both (A) and (B) are true but (B) is not the reason for (A). 51. (A) : , - - ( ) (B) : - , (1) (A) , (B) (2) (A) , (B) (3) (A) (B) (A) (B) (4) (A) (B) (A) (B) M 52. 53. (34) Statement (A) : Under the Delhi Sultans and the Mughals, the hierarchy between social classes decreased. Statement (B) : The tribal societies were not divided into numerous unequal classes. (1) (A) is true, but (B) is false. (2) (A) is false, but (B) is true. (3) Both (A) and (B) are true and (B) is the correct explanation of (A). (4) Both (A) and (B) are true, but (B) is not the correct explanation of (A). Statement (A) : Bahadur Shah Zafar wrote letters to all the chiefs and rulers to organise a confederacy of Indian states to fight the British. Statement (B) : Bahadur Shah Zafar s decision to bless the rebellion of 1857 changed the entire situation dramatically. (1) (A) is true but (B) is false. (2) (A) is false, but (B) is true. (3) Both (A) and (B) are true and (B) was ensured because of (A). Both (A) and (B) are true but (A) has no relationship with (B). (4) 54. Which of the following is FALSE in the context of women, caste and reform during the colonial period ? (1) Pandita Ramabai founded a widow s home at Poona. (2) The knowledge of ancient texts helped the reformers promote new laws. (3) Vidyasagar suggested that widows could remarry. (4) Prarthana Samaj drew only upon Hindu texts. P-II 52. (A) : (B) : (1) (A) , (B) (2) (A) , (B) (3) (A) (B) (A) (B) (4) (A) (B) , (A) (B) 53. (A) : (B) : 1857 (1) (A) , (B) (2) (A) , (B) (3) (A) (B) (A) (B) (4) (A) (B) , (A) (B) 54. , ? (1) (2) (3) - (4) - P-II 55. 56. (35) M part of which state of India ? ? (1) Madhya Pradesh (1) (2) Karnataka (2) (3) Maharashtra (3) (4) Andhra Pradesh (4) The state of Telangana was earlier Consider the following statements and 55. 56. select the option that indicates the correct role of media in a democracy : A. It should provide information to : A. B. C. (1) A B citizens through news. B. It should provide the point of view of the advertiser, through its news programmes. C. It must discuss the views of all sections. 57. (1) Only A and B (2) B C (2) Only B and C (3) A C (3) Only A and C (4) A, B and C (4) A, B C Which of the following advertisements is not an example of gender stereotype ? (1) A girl playing football in an advertisement for a sports shoe. (2) A mother making tea in an advertisement for a tea brand. (3) A woman doing makeup in an advertisement for a lipstick. (4) A woman being dropped by her husband to office advertisement for a car. in an 57. ( - ) ? (1) (2) (3) - (4) ( ) M 58. 59. 60. (36) Identify the continent from the given features A and B : A. It is the smallest continent that lies entirely in the Southern Hemisphere. B. It is also called an Island continent . (1) Antarctica (2) Australia (3) South America (4) Africa As we move away from the sun in the solar system, (1) time taken by planets to complete one orbit around the sun increases. (2) time taken by planets to complete one orbit around the sun decreases. (3) size of the planets decreases gradually. (4) planets very close to the sun are made up of gases and liquids and the planets far away from the sun are made up of rocks. Imagine if the earth is not inclined towards the plane of its orbit, then A. the circle of illumination will match with longitudinal lines. B. the circle of illumination will match with latitudinal lines. C. there will be no seasonal variation in a particular region. D. there will be more seasonal variation in a particular region. Choose the correct option. (1) A and C (2) A and D (3) B and C (4) B and D P-II 58. 59. 60. A : B A. B. (1) (2) (3) (4) - , (1) (2) (3) : (4) , A. B. C. D. (1) A C (2) A D (3) B C (4) B D P-II (37) 61. A Gram Panchayat is elected for a term of how many years in India ? (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 3 62. What is the designation of the person in-charge of a police station ? (1) Station House Officer (2) Police Superintendent (3) Officer on Special Duty (4) Home Inspector 63. The Amendment brought about in 2005 to the Hindu Succession Act provided for which of the following ? (1) Right of minority communities to open religious schools. (2) Right of women to have an equal share in family property. (3) Right of Hindu community to have special laws governing marriage. (4) Right of men to protect themselves from paying compensation after divorce. 64. Who is considered as the final interpreter of the Indian Constitution ? (1) President of India (2) Parliament (3) Judiciary (4) Attorney General 65. The (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 was enacted to provide justice to which of the following communities ? (1) Dalits and Minorities (2) Minorities and Tribals (3) Tribals and Dalits (4) Only Minorities 66. A political system having more than one level of government can be described as ________. (1) Secular (2) Liberal (3) Republican (4) Federal M 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. , ? (1) (2) (3) (4) ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 2005 ? (1) (2) (3) (4) ? (1) (2) (3) (4) ( ) , 1989 ? (1) (2) (3) (4) _____ (1) (2) (3) (4) M (38) P-II 67. Which of the following policies promotes social justice ? A. Reservation of seats in government employment for listed dalit candidate. B. Enacting Minimum Wages Act (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B 67. ? A. B. (1) A (2) B (3) A B (4) A B 68. In a discussion on architecture of New Delhi, a teacher should focus on discussing : (1) how tourists look at the buildings. (2) how to view the buildings from a distance. (3) superiority of its style over Old Delhi (4) how it asserted British importance and created sense of awe 68. : (1) (2) (3) (4) 69. The teaching of History must be done with the focussed objective of (1) transmitting what happened in the pasts. (2) memorising how it happened in the pasts. (3) identifying issues which are relevant in the present. (4) developing performing abilities of the learners. 69. : (1) , (2) , (3) (4) 70. What can be the purpose of introducing current affairs in social science classroom ? A. Promote interest in the issues of the country. B. Develop skills of analysis and critical evaluation. C. Build interest in the subject by providing sensational news. D. Help the learner relate school learning to life outside of school. Choose the correct option : (1) A, B, C are true. (2) A, B, D are true. (3) A, C, D are true. (4) B, C, D are true. 70. ? A. B. C. D. : (1) A, B, C (2) A, B, D (3) A, C, D (4) B, C, D P-II 71. (39) The objective of discussing equality in a social science classroom is to M 71. A. address issues of dignity with the learners. B. sensitize learners respecting everyone. towards C. build upon values enshrined in the Constitution. D. explain that all differences leads to inequality. Choose the correct option : (1) A, B, C are true. 72. (2) A, B, D are true. (3) A, C, D are true. (4) B, C, D are true. 72. In order to address the diversity that exists in the class and in society, a social science teacher needs to A. include examples of multiple cultures in the class discussions. B. take up only examples that are relevant to the majority. C. encourage students to share their personal experiences in the class. Choose the correct option : (1) A and C are true. 73. (2) B and C are true. (3) Only B is true. (4) A and B are true. 73. Assessment in social science should emphasise : (1) identification of learners who are failing. (2) testing learners writing abilities in the class. (3) measuring retention information by learners. (4) evaluation of learners ability to extrapolate their learning to various life situations. of : A. B. C. D. : (1) A, B, C (2) A, B, D (3) A, C, D (4) B, C, D : A. B. C. : (1) A C (2) B C (3) B (4) A B : (1) (2) (3) (4) M 74. 75. 76. (40) An example of secondary source is (1) C.A. Bayly s An Illustrated History of Modern India (2) James Mill s A History of British India (3) Constitution of India (4) Painting by Abanindranath Tagore To discuss on women s education in colonial India, students could refer to the following autobiography : (1) Tarabai Shinde s Stripurushtulna (2) Rashsundari Devi s Amar Jiban (3) Rokeya Sakhawat Sultana s Dream (4) Sattanar s Manimekalai P-II 74. : (1) . . (2) (3) (4) 75. ? (1) - (2) (3) (4) 76. : A. B. C. D. : (1) A B (2) A D (3) A, B C (4) A, B D 77. : (1) (2) - (3) (4) Hossain s The teaching of Geography should develop perspectives related to issues concerning A. Resources and Conservation B. Development and Displacement C. Challenges to Unity in Diversity D. Human Development Choose the correct option : 77. (1) only A and B (2) only A and D (3) A, B and C (4) A, B and D An active social science classroom would encourage learners to (1) keep discussions minimal (2) be focussed textbook (3) listen to the lectures and rely on what is being shared. (4) participate in challenging projects. on reading the P-II 78. (41) Which of the following are true about End-Text questions ? A. Encourage learners to explain concepts in their own words and debating on issues. B. Project work, compare and contrast are types of end-text questions. C. Expands on the learners understanding of concepts and relate with what has been taught earlier. M 78. Choose the correct option : (1) A, B and C are true. 79. (2) A and B are true. (3) A and C are true. (4) B and C are true. The social and political life textooks : A. Include definitions and descriptions of socio-political issues. B. Portray institutions and processes as if they functioned as envisioned in the Constitution C. Provide diverse concrete examples of people and regions. 79. Choose the correct option : (1) A and B 80. (2) A and C (3) B and C (4) A, B and C After narrating Dr. Ambedkar s experience on the way to Koregaon, a teacher asks, Do you think people at the station discriminated against Dr. Ambedkar and his brothers ? In this question, which skill is the teacher emphasising ? (1) comparing experiences (2) infer from situations (3) cause and effect (4) hypothesizing situation 80. ? A. B. , C. : (1) A, B C (2) A B (3) A C (4) B C : A. B. C. : (1) A B (2) A C (3) B C (4) A, B C . , , . ? ? (1) (2) (3) (4) M 81. 82. (42) To introduce the theme Markets , which would be the best pedagogical method ? (1) textbook reading and discussion. (2) inviting a shopkeeper for an interview to the class. (3) showing markets. (4) locating major markets around the school on a map. pictures of P-II 81. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) - 82. various This is the glory of God, , ? (1) (2) , (3) (4) Defilement exists within. The body is polluted from within, Be sure of it says the Mahari Chokha As a teacher, how would you interpret this poem and discuss with your learners ? 83. (1) Human purity is fixed at birth. (2) Human purity is determined by the work we do. (3) Human purity is determined by our thoughts and beliefs. (4) Human purity can be achieved by seeking God s blessing. Social Science curriculum at the upper primary stage focuses on : A. Understanding earth habitat of life forms B. Studying own region, state and country C. Studying India s past and current development Choose the correct option : (1) only A (2) only A and B (3) A, B and C (4) only A and C as the 83. : A. B. , C. : (1) A (2) A B (3) A, B C (4) A C P-II (43) 84. Using a globe and a source of light, teacher can demonstrate the following concepts : A. Rotation B. Day Night C. Seasonal Variations D. Distribution of Rainfall Choose the correct option; (1) A, B and C (2) A, B and D (3) A, C and D (4) B, C and D 85. As a teacher, you can make interlinkages while discussing Iron smelters and factory owners , a theme in History with which one of the following chapters of geography textbook ? A. Mineral Resources B. Industries C. Power Resources D. Inside our earth M 84. ? A. B. - C. D. : (1) A, B C (2) A, B D (3) A, C D (4) B, C D 85. ? A. B. C. D. : (1) A, B C (2) A, B D (3) A, C D (4) B, C D , : (1) (2) (3) (4) Choose the correct option : (1) A, B and C (2) A, B and D (3) A, C and D (4) B, C and D 86. 86. In a city school, the best method to introduce Types of Forests in a geography class would be to (1) organize a field visit to a forest near to the school. (2) make a PowerPoint presentation on forests in the region. (3) screen a documentary on different types of forests. (4) divide learners into small groups to work on types of forests. M 87. 88. 89. (44) To develop practical skills among learners while discussing earthquakes teacher should focus upon (1) Types of earthquakes (2) Precautions during earthquake (3) Present cases of earthquakes (4) An activity on earth s movement The local people of the Tawa reservoir area organised to demand which right related to their livelihood in the 1990s ? (1) Cultivation rights (2) Fishing rights (3) Horticulture rights (4) Commercial Forestry rights Choose the description that best represents diversity from among the following. 87. : (1) (2) (3) (4) 88. 1990 ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 89. ? (1) It leads to discrimination among people. (1) (2) It leads to similarity of people. (2) (3) It accepts people. differences (3) It accepts people. inequality (4) 90. P-II among (4) among In the context of democracy in India, which of the following statements is false ? (1) A small section of Indian population could vote even before independence of India. (2) India adopted representative democracy after independence. (3) In India people participate indirectly in the working of the government. (4) The first general election after independence was held in 1950. 90. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 1950 P-II (45) PART IV LANGUAGE I ENGLISH M IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part IV (Q. No. 91-120), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE I only. Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions (Q. Nos. 91 99) that follow by selecting the correct/most appropriate options : The very nature of the mind is restlessness. It cannot stay at one place or hold one thought for long. For every thought that appears, there are comments, judgements and associations. Thinking is a continuous activity with the mind jumping from one thought to another from morning till night. Like clouds in the sky or waves in the ocean, thoughts appear and disappear as if in ceaseless activity. However, all thoughts that pass through our mind do not affect us. But we get affected when our ego is hit. Then the mind whirls and creates a tornado of restlessness within. A variety of probable scenarios crop up how dare he insult me; what does she think of herself ? Where I am not respected, I will not go; if he speaks thus, I will reply so . And so it goes on and on. 91. Thoughts affect us when our (1) job is affected. (2) sleep is disturbed. (3) learning is affected. (4) pride is hurt. 92. Read the following statements : A. Our reading decides the filter in our minds. B. The filter in our mind controls our likes but not dislikes. (1) Both A and B are correct. (2) Both A and B are incorrect. (3) A is correct and B is incorrect. (4) A is incorrect and B is correct. 93. Which of the following statements is incorrect ? (1) in our mind. (2) We have an inbuilt filter in our mind which chooses the types of thoughts or subjects that we like to brood upon. We are not born with this filter but we acquire it over the years with the kind of books we read, the company we keep and the subjects we are interested in. That is why some people are obsessed with football, cricket or fashion while others could not care less for such things. This filter is built day by day by our actions, suggestions, teachings and influence of others. We can ultimately choose our own filter. So let us learn to build our filter wisely and strengthen it daily. Each one of us has an inborn filter We like to be respected when we go somewhere. (3) The filter in our minds influences our actions. (4) Our thoughts do not remain stuck at one point. 94. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following expression ? But we get affected (1) Verb (2) Adjective (3) Adverb (4) Particle M 95. (46) Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following expression ? It cannot stay at one place. 96. (1) Determiner (2) Pronoun (3) Particle (4) Adverb as if in ceaseless activity The word ceaseless means 97. (1) permanent (2) continuous (3) temporary (4) flawless 99. That time of year thou mayst in me behold, When yellow leaves, or none, or few do hang Upon those boughs which shake against the cold Bare ruined choirs, where late the sweet birds sang. In me thou seest the twilight of such day, As after sunset fadeth in the west, Which by and by black night doth take away, Death s second self that seals up all in rest. In me thou seest the glowing of such fire, That on the ashes of his youth doth lie, As the death-bed, whereon it must expire, Consumed with that which it was nourished by. creates a tornado of restlessness The word tornado here means 98. P-II Directions : Read the poem given below and answer the questions (Q. Nos. 100 105) that follow by selecting the correct/most appropriate options : (1) waterfall (2) confusion (3) storm (4) mixture This thou perceiv st, which makes thy love more strong, To love that well, which thou must leave ere long. 100. The poet s life, today, is like ______ season. (1) spring Thoughts are compared to (2) autumn (1) comments (3) winter (2) judgements (4) summer (3) associations (4) clouds 101. In this season the branches have _______ leaves. The process of thinking continues from (i) few (ii) no (1) day to day (1) only (i) (2) week to week (2) only (ii) (3) morning to night (3) either (i) or (ii) (4) year to year (4) neither (i) nor (ii) P-II 102. What did the branches of the trees (47) M Directions : Answer the following questions by enjoy earlier ? (1) a ruined group of singers (2) sweet songs of birds (3) bright light of the sun (4) darkness after the sunset 103. What does Death s second self stand sleep that gives rest (2) a dying fire (3) ashes of one s youth (4) setting sun 104. That on the ashes of his youth doth lie , the most appropriate options. 106. What are the three components of PPP model of teaching ? (1) Present Practice Produce (2) Product Practice Present (3) Pre-teaching Practice teaching Produce result (4) Pre conception Practice by teacher Post conception for ? (1) selecting 107. A teacher of class VIII discussed determiners in her classroom through a short text in which determiners occur many times and learners were made to notice them in use. This was followed by learners using the same in their own language for particular purposes. Teacher then brought to the notice of the learners, the uses of determiners in contexts. What strategy did the teacher employ in her classroom ? Which figure of speech has been used (1) Structured teaching in the underlined phrase ? (2) Consciousness raising (3) Task based language teaching (4) Communical language teaching (1) Simile (2) Metaphor (3) Personification (4) Alliteration 105. The theme of the poem is 108. A teacher found some of the aspects of language learning e.g. reading with understanding a text on scientific concepts. She decided to pick students who find it difficult on the particular aspects. She took separate session for them to support them read and understand such text. What is she trying to do here ? (1) the idea of death (2) the change of seasons (1) Remedial teaching (3) love (2) Higher Order skills (4) songs of the birds (3) Thinking skills (4) Feedback teaching M 109. A teacher wanted her students to learn vocabulary effectively. Which of the following ways should she adopt to teach vocabulary in her classroom ? (1) Write all the new words on the blackboard and write their meanings in the language of teaching. (2) Ask her learners to underline the difficult words in a lesson and find their meanings in (48) P-II 112. What is the following activity known as in vocabulary learning ? Find words which can befriend the word rain . e.g. heavy rain. (1) Collocation (2) Phrase (3) Word groups (4) Word web their language, (3) (4) Ask them to find the meanings of 113. A teacher asks her learners to join the words in the dictionary. sentences to make a short paragraph, Ask them to group the words into inserting supplied connectors and meaningful categories and use coherence markers like (but, and, them in real life purposes. however, because, although, etc.) What is this approach to writing 110. A reader gets the hints based on sound-symbol correspondences to known as ? decode and comprehend the text. (1) Control composition What is this known as ? (2) Controlled-to-free writing approach (3) Free-writing approach (4) Communicative approach (1) Graphic cues (2) Graphophonic cues (3) Metalinguistic cues (4) Syntactic cues 114. An assessment done at the end of six 111. India s language-in-education policy is known as ________. (1) National language formula (2) Three language formula (3) Language in education (4) Official language policy months of one term is ________. (1) Summative assessment (2) Formative assessment (3) Semester assessment (4) Remedial assessment P-II 115. A teacher asks her learners of class VIII to read a novel by an Indian author and asks them to write an essay giving their views on the novel. What is this known as a reading activity ? (1) Intensive reading (2) Extensive reading (3) Reading for information (4) Scanning 116. A teacher selected a text from a newspaper and dropped every fifth word and asked her learners to supply the missing words. What is a test known as ? (1) A cloze test (2) Fill in the blanks (3) Complete the (49) M 118. Denotative meaning of a word is _________. (1) factual meaning or basic meaning (2) much more than what a word actually means (3) figurative meaning (4) grammatical meaning 119. We acquire language by understanding input that is a little beyond our current level of (acquired) competence. What is this pedagogical concept known as ? comprehensible (1) Output hypothesis (2) Interaction hypothesis (3) Input hypothesis (4) Thinking hypothesis paragraph (4) Writing test 117. Multilingualism as a strategy is (1) using the languages of learners for teaching-learning of languages and content subjects. (2) teaching-learning of at least three languages and content in mother tongue. (3) (4) 120. What is the status given to English by the Indian Constitution ? teaching of all subjects in English medium and teaching Indian languages as a language. (1) Official Language (2) Associate Official Language teaching of a foreign language (3) National Language (4) Link Language along with Indian languages through the medium of the state language. M (50) IV P-II I : IV . . 91 120) I ( 91 99 ) - , ? , ? - , ? , , , , , , , , , - 1960 100 , 200 4 100 91. 92. 93. 94. (1) (2) (3) (4) , (1) (2) (3) (4) _____ (1) (2) (3) (4) - (1) (2) (3) (4) P-II 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. (51) (1) (2) (3) (4) , : (1) (2) (3) (4) - . (1) (2) (3) (4) M ( . 100 105 ) : , , , - , , , 100. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 101. ? (1) (2) (3) - (4) 102. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) , (1) (2) (3) (4) ? (1) (2) (3) (4) M 103. 104. 105. (52) (1) (2) (3) (4) P-II 107. (1) (2) (3) (4) 108. (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) , , , (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) 109. : 106. - - (1) (2) (3) (4) 110. _____ _____ (1) (2) - (3) (4) - P-II 111. (53) - ? (1) - (2) (3) (4) 112. - ? (1) (2) - (3) : (4) 113. ____ ____ (1) , (2) , (3) , (4) , 114. (1) (2) (3) (4) 115. _____ (1) (2) (3) (4) _____ M 116. _____ (1) (2) (3) (4) 117. ? (1) (2) (3) - (4) 118. _____ (1) (2) (3) (4) 119. (1) (2) (3) (4) 120. - (1) (2) (3) (4) M (54) PART V LANGUAGE II ENGLISH P-II IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part V (Q. No. 121-150), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE II only. Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions (Q. Nos. 121 128) that follow by selecting the correct/most appropriate options : The richness of her childhood experience came from living a life, which embraced tradition on one hand and exposure to the world of change, of questioning and questing on the other. Her father s progressive ideas, his involvement in bringing about change in the restricted Brahminical society, his encouragement of Kamaladevi to follow her own inclinations and yet give her an opportunity to study in a school and participate in all the social functions with which he was involved, as a Senior Revenue Official, gave her confidence. The example of her grandmother, who lived the life of a scholar and fearless woman, who travelled alone without any fear of any social disapproval or adverse consequences, was a fitting example to Kamaladevi, who later travelled all over the world, often risking her life. Girjabai, her mother was a dominant influence throughout her childhood and youth who set an example by overcoming all difficulties without a murmur. She discarded meaningless social customs and observances. She championed the cause of women. Her conviction was that a woman must educate herself, so that she could be independent and her insistence that Kamaladevi should not only study, but also participate in cultural activities and sports, enriched her daughter s life. Kamaladevi went with her mother to Seva Sadan and saw her exhorting women even older than her to become literate. She heard her read to them from the newspapers, magazines and extracts from books by social reformers and nationalists, followed by discussions and saw their attitudes changing. Girjabai s love for music was shared by Kamaladevi and she was encouraged to learn North Indian and Carnatic music. This love of music was a great source of peace for Kamaladevi in her later years. 121. Her father did not believe in (1) removing brahminical restrictions (2) giving freedom to children (3) allowing children to join the adults in their activities (4) female education 122. Which of the following statements is NOT correct of her grandmother ? (1) She believed that women should lead a secure life. (2) She loved to read books. (3) She was not afraid of social criticism. (4) She travelled unescorted. 123. Which of the following statements is correct about her mother ? (1) She struggled through life smilingly. (2) She observed faithfully all the social customs. (3) She preferred studies to sports. (4) She did not believe in adult literacy. P-II 124. Study the following statements : A. (55) Kamaladevi s mother read to her from newspapers and magazines. B. Music was a source of great comfort to her. (1) A is right and B is wrong. (2) A is wrong and B is right. (3) Both A and B are right. (4) Both A and B are wrong. The word embraced here means disused (2) performed (3) pleased (4) followed 126. an example difficulties by overcoming all The word overcoming means (1) reaching (2) not coming (3) conquering (4) over bearing 127. living a tradition, life, which embraced Which part of speech is the underlined word ? (1) Adjective (2) Adverb (3) Pronoun (4) Determiner (1) Questioning and Questing (2) Tradition and Change (3) Childlike and Adult (4) Social and Individual Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions (Q. Nos. 129-135) that follow by selecting the correct / most appropriate options. 125. which embraced tradition (1) M 128. Which two contradictory kinds of experience did Kamaladevi have in her childhood ? The goal of independence was achieved in India through a prolonged struggle, during which, the far-sightedness of the leaders of the freedom movement resulted in giving a final shape to our social and economic goals to be achieved after freedom. This vision imagined to build a selfreliant nation through maximum utilization of the resources in men and materials, and the establishment of a noble and liberal society. It has been an article of faith amongst the policy planners in India that while economic strength determined the scope and quality of political freedom for millions, the quality of freedom depends on increased work and production in factories. It leads to just and equal distribution of wealth among the people so that the poor can also enjoy the benefit of freedom. This, it is recognized, is possible only through increased employment opportunities in the society. In human terms, democracy means availability of equal opportunities to all the people irrespective of caste, creed, sex and religion to develop their personalities. It means access to education in Arts, Science and Humanities and also awareness of our age old values and traditions. It needs to be emphasized that the Indian policy has been based on a concern for the individual not only as a worker working for the economic development of the society but also as an end in itself. M (56) In the Indian context, the concept of national development goes far beyond economic growth; it is concerned with the creation of a nation united in one purpose, of people speaking different languages, professing different religions and rooted in a variety of cultures. P-II 132. while economic strength determined the scope The word determined means (1) established (2) decried (3) preferred (4) rejected 129. Our leaders vision of independent India was based on 133. our social and economic goal (1) boycott of foreign goods (2) development of defence forces (3) economic self-reliance (4) diversification of employment 130. In addition to economic growth our society, as a consequence, also needs (1) development of countryside. (2) to give importance to cultural variety. (3) to pay attention to climatic changes. (4) just and equitable distribution of wealth. Part of speech of the underlined word is (1) Pronoun (2) Determiner (3) Interjection (4) Conjunction 134. In the Indian context, the concept of The word concept means (1) Curiosity (2) Idea (3) Care (4) Inception 131. Study the following statements : A. B. Along with economic growth, we also want to develop a united nation with one aim. 135. The Independence was achieved in India A noble and liberal society depends entirely on economic wealth. (1) through a long struggle (2) by self-reliant leadership (1) A is right and B is wrong. (3) through violent means (2) A is wrong and B is right. (3) Both A and B are right. (4) by making use of every resource (4) Both A and B are wrong. available P-II Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate options. 136. Habit formation through repetition is a component of which method ? (57) M 139. A teacher arranges her learners into pairs and give them a text of two paragraphs. One learner in the pair reads out the text to the other and the partner takes the dictation. Then the process is reversed. What is this known as ? (1) Communicative approach (1) Jig-saw dictation (2) Audio lingualism (2) Partial dictation (3) Task based language teaching (3) Running dictation (4) Constructivism (4) Composition dictation 137. A teacher of class VII asks her learners to bring at least two or three 140. Mechanics of language in speaking skills includes ________. (1) pronunciation, vocabulary among (2) clarity of message themselves. She now asks them to (3) social and cultural rules of using language (4) script, words and sentences objects from home and she asks them to exchange the objects describe the objects in their hands in at least ten sentences. What are the objects known as in grammar and language teaching-learning materials ? (1) Realia (2) Home objects (3) Teachers materials (4) Inputs for language learning 141. Jatin Ragav is reading fast, looking for specific information in a machinery manual. What is this reading sub skill known as ? (1) Skimming (2) Scanning (3) Bottom up reading (4) Critical reading 138. Which one of following components is a process in the Top Down approach to teaching-learning of listening ? (1) Discriminating between intonation compounds 142. Here are some sets of words in some pattern. Find what are these known as in teaching-learning of pronunciation ? bit-bet, did-dead, hid-head, lid-lead, miss-mess, pin-pen, lock-luck (1) Contrastive pairs (2) Comparable pairs Recognising prominent details (3) Vowels Recognising the topic (4) Stress and intonation (2) Discriminating between phonemes (3) (4) M 143. Words which one recognizes when one hears or sees them are ________. (1) Productive vocabulary (2) Receptive vocabulary (3) Explicit vocabulary (4) Implicit vocabulary 144. What does free-writing approach to writing promote ? (1) Understanding accuracy of form and (2) Grammatical accuracy (3) Understanding of the content and fluency (4) Syntax and language use 145. Pedagogical Grammar means that ________. (1) All grammar teaching should be rule focussed. (2) Teaching grammar in context (3) Begin from form and move on to use. (4) Teaching through immersion 146. Which one of the following is not advocated as an element for assessment in a poem ? (1) Poetic devices (2) Theme of the poem (3) Grammar (4) Vocabulary (58) P-II 147. A teacher asked her learners to watch a movie two days ago and now she asks them to have a discussion on what would they do, if they were the hero/heroine of the movie ? What is this assessment task known as ? (1) Extrapolative task (2) Critical pedagogy (3) Speaking task (4) Thinking task 148. What does fluency in reading mean ? (1) Ability to read a text at ease with expression. (2) Ability to read a text without any mistake at all. (3) Ability to interpret the text. (4) Ability to read without any grammatical errors. 149. Which of the following statements are true of languages in India ? a. English is the official language of India. b. Hindi is the national language of India. c. Hindi is the official language of India. d. English is the associate official language of India. (1) a and b are true. (2) c and d are true. (3) a and d are true. (4) b and c are true. 150. Declarative Knowledge in learning grammar refers to ________. (1) knowing the rules of a grammatical item. (2) knowing how to do a grammatical item. (3) knowing the ideas and concepts in learning. (4) knowing to use a dictionary P-II (59) V II M : V . . 121 150) II ( . . 121 128 ) ! - , , , , - , , , - ? , , - ? , , ! , - , , 121. 122. (1) , (2) , (3) , (4) , : (i) (ii) (iii) (1) (i) (2) (i) (ii) (3) (ii) (iii) (4) (iii) M 123. 124. (60) , (1) (2) (3) (4) , (1) (2) (3) (4) 125. : (1) (2) (3) (4) , , , , 126. ! (1) (2) (3) (4) 127. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 128. , (1) (2) (3) (4) P-II ( 129 135 ) : - , - , , , - , , P-II 129. 130. (61) ? (1) (2) (3) - (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) 131. (1) (2) (3) (4) 132. (1) - (2) (3) (4) 133. (1) (2) (3) (4) 134. (1) (2) - : (3) (4) M 135. - (1) : (2) (3) (4) : 136. (1) (2) - (3) (4) 137. 2005 _____ (1) (2) (3) (4) 138. - ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 139. - (1) - (2) - (3) - (4) - _____ M 140. 141. 142. (62) _____ (1) (2) (3) (4) - (1) (2) (3) (4) / ? (1) - (2) - (3) - (4) - 143. (1) - (2) (3) (4) 144. - (1) (2) - (3) , (4) . . ? (1) (2) (3) (4) P-II 146. 147. 148. 149. 145. 150. - (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) , (2) (3) (4) - , ! ? _____ (1) (2) (3) (4) - ? (1) ? (2) - ? (3) ? (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) P-II (63) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK M (64) READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY: 1. The manner in which the different questions are to be answered has been explained in the Test Booklet which you should read carefully before actually answering the questions. 2. Out of the four alternatives for each question, only one circle for the correct answer is to be darkened completely with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen on Side-2 of the OMR Answer Sheet. The answer once marked is not liable to be changed. 3. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Answer Sheet. 4. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Test Booklet Code or Number and Answer Sheet Code or Number), another set will be provided. 5. The candidates will write the correct Test Booklet Code and Number as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet. 6. A machine will read the coded information in the OMR Answer Sheet. Hence, no information should be left incomplete and it should not be different from the information given in the Admit Card. 7. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic device or any other material except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/ room. 8. Mobile phones, wireless communication devices (even in switched off mode) and the other banned items should not be brought in the examination halls/ rooms. Failing to comply with this instruction, it will be considered as using unfair means in the examination and action will be taken against them including cancellation of examination. 9. Each candidate must show on demand his / her Admit Card to the Invigilator. 10. No candidate, without special permission of the Centre Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his / her seat. 11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall/ Room without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. The candidates are also required to put their left hand THUMB impression in the space provided in the Attendance Sheet. 12. Use of Electronic / Manual Calculator is prohibited. 13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Examining Body with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall/Room. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Examining Body. 14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances. 15. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator in the Hall / Room. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. M 1. 2. OMR 3. 4. 5. 7. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 2

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