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Sample Questions for A S AT (ALLEN Scholarship Admission Test) CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME ENTHUSIAST COURSE (FOR XI to XII MOVING STUDENTS) ALLEN Corporate Office: "SANKALP" CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA 324005 Call : +91-744-2757575 | Mail : info@allen.ac.in | Website : www.allen.ac.in INSTRUCTIONS Things NOT ALLOWED in EXAM HALL : Blank Paper, clipboard, log table, slide rule, calculator, camera, mobile and any electronic or electrical gadget. If you are carrying any of these then keep them at a place specified by invigilator at your own risk 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. This booklet is your Question Paper. DO NOT break seal of Booklet until the invigilator instructs to do so. Fill your Form No. in the space provided on the top of this page. The Answer Sheet is provided to you separately which is a machine readable Optical Response Sheet (ORS). You have to mark your answers in the ORS by darkening bubble, as per your answer choice, by using black & blue ball point pen. Total Questions to be Attempted 80. Part-I : 20 Questions & Part-II : 60 Questions. After breaking the Question Paper seal, check the following: a. There are 15 pages in the booklet containing question no. 1 to 100 under 2 Parts i.e. Part-I & Part-II. b. Part-I contains total 20 questions of IQ (Mental Ability). c. Part-II contains total 80 questions under 4 sections which are-Section (A) : Physics, Section (B): Chemistry, Section (C): Mathematics* & Section (D): Biology*. *Important: You have to attempt ANY ONE SECTION only out of Section(C): Mathematics and Section (D) : Biology. DO NOT attempt both sections. 6. Marking Scheme: a. If darkened bubble is RIGHT answer : 4 Marks. b. If no bubble is darkened in any question: No Mark. 7. 8. c. Only for part - II : If darkened bubble is WRONG answer: -1 Mark (Minus One Mark). Think wisely before darkening bubble as there is negative marking for wrong answer. If you are found involved in cheating or disturbing others then your ORS will be cancelled. 9. Do not put any stain on ORS and hand it over back properly to the invigilator. Sample question for ASAT : Enthusiast Course PART-I IQ (MENTAL ABILITY) This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Directions (Q.1 to Q.2) : Read the following information and answer the questions given below: A is the son of B. C, B s sister has a son D and a daughter E. F is the maternal uncle of D. 1. How is A related to D ? (1) Cousin 2. (3) Uncle (4) Brother (2) Daughter (3) Niece (4) Wife How is E related to F ? (1) Sister 3. (2) Nephew A clock is so placed that at 12 noon its minute hand points towards north east. In which direction does its hour hand point at 1.30 p.m. ? (1) North (2) South (3) East (4) West Directions (Q.4 to Q.7) : Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below it: (i) Eight persons E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are seated around a square table two on each side. (ii) There are three lady members and they are not seated next to each other. (iii) J is between L and F. (iv) G is between I and F. (v) H, a lady member, is second to the left of J. (vi) F, a male member is seated opposite E, a lady member. (vii) There is a lady member between F and I. 4. 5. 6. 7. Who among the following is seated between E and H : (1) F (2) I (3) Cannot be determined (4) None of these How many persons are seated between K and F : (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Cannot be determined Who among the following are the three lady members : (1) E, G and J (2) E, H and G (3) G, H and J (4) Cannot be determined Who among the following is to the immediate left of F : (1) G (2) I (3) J (4) Cannot be determined 1/15 Sample question for ASAT : Enthusiast Course Directions (Q.8 & Q.9) : These questions consist of a number series which contains a wrong term. This term is given as one of the four alternatives among the four numbers given below. The wrong term is : 8. 9. 89, 78, 86, 80, 85, 82, 83 (1) 83 (2) 82 (3) 86 (4) 78 (3) 10 (4) 9 1, 1, 3, 9, 6, 36, 10, 100, 16, 225 (1) 225 (2) 16 Directions (Q.10 to Q.13) : Words in capital letters in column-I are written in small letters in a code language in column-II. Decode the Language and find out the correct alternative for the given word in each question. CoIumn-I Column-II HERO tbfw JOIN bakp LAZY nsvg MINE pdkt PART 10. CIGAR vsqwp WRIT wpxy VIRUS pzwoe QUACK jqems PIRL wprg (2) bpgn (3) bpxg (4) mpxg (3) qost (4) xqnr (3) ktegp (4) gteqw (2) toka (3) ptok (4) optb (2) 929 (3) 776 (4) 667 (2) xqps (2) teqwp Find the odd one out ? (1) 488 15. eglt Code for letters in the word SINE are : (1) ptkl 14. BLUE Code for letters in the word ULCER are: (1) ggwmr 13. wveos Code for letters in the word COST are: (1) boqx 12. SAURY Code for letters in the word TOIL are : (1) pxba 11. rwsx Two buses start from the opposite points of a main road, 150 km apart. The first bus runs for 25 km and takes a right turn and then runs for 15 km. It, then turns left and runs for another 25 km and takes the direction back to reach the main road. In the meantime, due to the minor breakdown the other bus has run only 35 km along the main road. What would be the distance between the two buses at this point (1) 65 km 2/15 (2) 80 km (3) 75 km (4) 85 km Sample question for ASAT : Enthusiast Course Directions (Q.16 & Q.17) : A, B and C are playing a game. When they start, they have 46 points between the 3 of them. They play 3 games. A wins the first, C the second and B the third game. When A wins, he gets 3 points from B and 3 points from C. When B wins, his points double and he gets some of these points from A and some from C. When C wins, he gets 2 points from A and 4 points from B. After the 3 games, all three of them have the same points with each of them that they had started with. 16. 17. How many points did B start with ? (1) 12 (2) 16 (3) 14 (4) cannot be determined When B wins, how many points does he get from C ? (1) 5 18. (2) 3 (3) either 3 or 4 (4) 4 (3) 20 (4) 12 Insert the missing character 12 9 0 23 6 16 3 2 28 7 11 2 (1) 15 ? 8 5 (2) 14 Directions (Q.19 & Q.20) : In each of the following questions, the two rows of numbers are given. Resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the question below the row of numbers is to be answered. The operations of numbers progress from left to right. Rules : (i) If an even number comes before a prime number, they are to be multiplied. (ii) If an even number comes before a composite odd number, odd number is to be subtracted from even number. (iii) If a composite odd number comes before a prime number, the first number is to be divided by the second number. 19. (iv) If an odd number comes before an even number which is a perfect square, they are to be added. (v) If an odd number comes before another odd number they are to be added. 36 21 5 16 27 3 16 5 What is the sum of the resultants of the two rows? (1) 25 20. (2) 24 39 13 11 17 24 5 55 13 (3) 125 (4) 81 What is the difference between the resultants of the two rows ? (1) 14 (2) 9 (3) 243 (4) 233 3/15 Sample question for ASAT : Enthusiast Course PART-II SECTION-A : PHYSICS This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 21. r A unit vector perpendicular to i - 2j + k (1) 22. 5i + 3j + 7k 83 (2) r and 3i + j - 2k is 3i + 5j + 7k (3) 83 r 5i + 3j - 7k 83 (4) 3i - 5j + 7k 83 A particle is fired with initial speed 'u=40 m/s' at an angle of 53 with the horizontal, then find out the radius of curvature of the particle at the instant the particles velocity becomes perpendicular to the initial velocity. (1) 56.25 m 23. (2) 225 m (3) 112.5 m Block B moves without rotation vertically downwards with constant velocity of 1m/s then what is the relative velocity of C with respect to A : B A C 60 45 (1) ( 3 + 1) m / s 24. (4) 130 m (2) (3 + 3) m / s 3+ 3 (3) 3 m / s (4) 3 m 5 Two swimmer's A and B initially on the opposite banks of a river are situated exactly opposite to each other. They can swim with speeds vA = v and vB = v/ 3 in still water. They start swimming simultaneously at angles qA = 30 and qB = q with respect to the river. Calculate the time after which they will meet. (given 'd' = width of the river ; v = speed of the river.) B v v q 3 30 d v A (1) 25. 3d 2v (2) d 2v (3) d( 3 + 1) 2v (4) d( 3 - 1) v Car B is ahead of Car A by 100 m. Car A is moving with constant speed 10 meter/sec and car B starts from rest accelerating with an acceleration 2 m/s2. Find minimum distance between both the cars. (1) 100 m 4/15 (2) 50 m (3) 75 m (4) 0 m Sample question for ASAT : Enthusiast Course 26. Block A weighing 100 kg rests on a block B and is tied with a horizontal string to the wall at C. Block B weighs 200 kg. The coefficient of friction between A and B is 0.25 and between B and the surface is 1/3. The minimum horizontal force P necessary to move the block B should be (g = 10 m / s 2 ) C A B (1) 1150 N 27. (2) 1250 N P (3) 1300 N (4) 1420 N Two beads 1 and 2 are allowed to descend on frictionless chord OA and vertical diameter OB of a circle , at the same instant from point O. The ratio of the velocities of the particles 1 and 2 respectively, when they reach on the circumference will be O (1) sina 1 (2) tana a 2 (3) cosa A (4) None of these 28. B A boy of mass m is standing on a block of mass M kept on a rough horizontal surface. When boy walks from left to right on the block, the centre of mass of the system (boy + block) : (1) Remains stationary (3) Shifts towards right 29. (2) Shifts towards left (4) None of these A metal sphere is hung with the help of a string on a frictionless wall. The force acting on the sphere are shown in figure. Which of the following statement is wrong q T N W 30. r r r (1) T2 = N2 + W2 (2) T = N + W (3) N + T + W = 0 (4) N = W Tan q Find acceleration of block A with respect to block C. All the surfaces are smooth and pulley is light (All the blocks are supposed to be a very small in dimension) Smooth B A 2kg 3kg 2kg (1) Zero (3) 4 m/s2 upwards 20 m/s2 towards right 7 (4) 6 m/s2 downwards (2) 5/15 Sample question for ASAT : Enthusiast Course 31. A body of mass 1 kg thrown upwards with a velocity of 10 m/s comes to rest (momentarily) after moving up by 4m. The work done by air drag in this process is (Take g = 10 m/s 2) 32. (1) -20 J (2) 10 J (3) -30 J (4) 0 J The force acting on a body moving along x axis varies with position of particle as shown in figure. The body in stable equilibrium at : F x1 33. x2 x (1) x = x1 (2) x = x2 (3) both x = x1 and x = x2 (4) Neither at x = x1 nor x = x2 A chain of mass M = '9 kg' and length L = '10m' initially rests on a horizontal frictionless surface, if it is slightly pushed down the horizontal surface due to which the chain starts sliding down, then calculate closest value of the rate at which work is done on the chain by the gravitational force at the instant one third of the chain is hanging vertical. (Neglect all dissipative forces) L/3 34. (1) 173 W (2) 150 W (3) 300 W (4) 100 W A non-uniform sphere can be kept on a rough inclined plane so that it is in equilibrium. In the figure below, dots represents location of center of mass. In which one of the positions can sphere be in equilibrium. B A D q (1) A 6/15 (2) B (3) C (4) D Sample question for ASAT : Enthusiast Course 35. Six identical balls are lined in a straight groove made on a horizontal frictionless surface as shown. Two similar balls each moving with a velocity v collide elastically simultaneously with the row of 6 balls from left. What will happen v (1) One ball from the right rolls out with a speed 2v and the remaining balls will remain at rest (2) Two balls from the right roll out with speed v each and the remaining balls will remain stationary (3) All the six balls in the row will roll out with speed v/6 each and the two colliding balls will come to rest (4) The colliding balls will come to rest and no ball rolls out from right 36. An open water wagon of mass 5 103 kg starts with initial velocity 1.2 m/s without friction on a railway track. Rain drops fall vertically downwards into the wagon. The velocity of the wagon after it has collected 103 kg of water will be (1) 0.5 m/s (2) 2 m/s (3) 1 m/s (4) 1.5 m/s Comprehension for (Q.No.37 & Q.No.38) Just as the planets revolve around the Sun, in the same way the satellites revolve around the planets. Artificial satellites are launched from the surface of the earth. The paths of these artificial satellites are elliptical with the centre of the earth at a focus. However, the difference in major and minor axes of the elliptical path of an artificial satellite is so small that roughly, the orbit of the satellite is considered as a circular orbit. The kinetic energy of an artificial satellite in its orbit is given by, K.E. = GMm and its 2r GMm . There are two satellites orbiting in two orbits of radii r1 and r r2 (r2 > r1) respectively, then answer the following questions: The total energy of the satellite in an orbit of radius r is : potential energy is given by, U = - 37. (1) 38. GMm 2r (2) GMm r (3) - GMm r (4) - GMm 2r Which of the graphs represents the potential energy of the satellite in its orbit ? U (1) O U r (2) O U U r (3) O r (4) O r 7/15 Sample question for ASAT : Enthusiast Course Comprehension for (Q.No.39 & Q.No.40) As shown in fig., the weight W is 60 N and it is in equilibrium. Then answer the following questions: 90 F1 45 90 F2 W 39. 40. The tension in the diagonal string is approximately: (1) 60 N (2) 90 N (3) 85 N (4) 100 N Find the magnitudes of the horizontal forces F1 and F2 that must be applied to hold the system in the position shown: (1) 75 N, 90 N respectively (2) 60 N, 60 N respectively (3) 90 N, 90 N respectively (4) 45 N, 90 N respectively SECTION-B : CHEMISTRY This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 41. In the aqueous solution of H 2 SO 4 its mole fraction is 0.2 then closest value of molality of solution is 42. (1) 13.9 (2) 9.8 (3) 10.2 (4) 11.2 Which of the following statement is correct (1) Anode rays are produced from anode (2) The positive charged particle of anode rays is proton always (3) The negative charged particles of cathode rays depends on cathode material (4) The positive charged particles of anode rays depends on nature of gas present in tube 43. If angular momentum of an electron in an orbit is J according to Bohr model then J is directly proportional to 44. 8/15 (1) r (2) (3) 1/r (4) 1 / r r What is the correct way of writting the result of following multiplication (1.52 10 3 ) (2 104 ) ? (1) 3.04 101 (2) 30.4 (3) 3 101 (4) 30.4 100 Sample question for ASAT : Enthusiast Course 45. An open vessel at 27 C is heated until 3/8th of the air in it has been expelled. Assuming that the volume remains constant, calculate the tempreature at which the vessel was heated. (1) 800 C 46. (2) 207 C Consider the equation Z = (3) 480 C (4) 527 C pVm . Which of the following statements is correct ? RT (1) When Z > 1, real gases are easier to compress than the ideal gas at similar condition. (2) When Z = 1, real gases get compressed easily than the ideal gas at similar condition. (3) When Z > 1, real gases are difficult to compress than the ideal gas at similar condition. (4) When Z = 1, real gases are difficult to compress than the ideal gas at similar condition. 47. On a planet where gplanet = 0.2g earth. What will be the difference in the height of column filled with mercury in a closed end manometer when the gas is filled with the pressure of 2 atm on earth (Assuming : outside pressure to be 1 atm on both planet ; Volume of gas remain constant) (1) 30.4 cm 48. (2) 760 cm (3) 380 cm (4) 152 cm A vessel contains 0.5 mol each of SO2, H2 and CH4. Its aperture was made open and then closed after sometime. Thus, order of partial pressure of the remaining gases in the vessel will be 49. (1) pSO2 > pCH4 > p H2 (2) p H2 > pCH4 > pSO2 (3) p H2 > pSO2 > pCH 4 (4) p H2 = pSO2 = pCH 4 100ml of a mixture of O2 and O3 are heated and O3 is 50% decomposed. The resultant mixture is 115ml. Find the initial volume of O3 (1) 55 ml 50. (2) 50 ml (1) 2 (2) VCl3 (4) 1 2 15 BM. The vanadium chloride has the formula: (3) VCl4 (4) VCl5 (2) Li, Mg (3) B, Mg (4) Be, Al First, second and third Ionisation Energy values are 100 eV, 150 eV and 1500 eV. Element can be: (1) Be 54. (3) 1 For which set of elements diagonal relationship is not existing : (1) B, Si 53. (2) 2 1 m ) 2 electron The compound of Vanadium has magnetic moment of (1) VCl2 52. (4) 60 ml What will be the de-broglie wavelength of particle (in ) when it is accelerated by the voltage of 75volts (charge on particle = 4e , mparticle = 51. (3) 65 ml (2) B (3) F (4) Na Consider the ground state of Cr (Z = 24). The numbers of electrons with the azimuthal quantum numbers l = 1 and 2 respectively are : (1) 16 and 4 (2) 12 and 5 (3) 12 and 4 (4) 16 and 5 9/15 Sample question for ASAT : Enthusiast Course 55. 56. PCl5 exists but NCl5 does not because : (1) Nitrogen has no vacant 2d-orbitals (2) NCl5 is unstable (3) Nitrogen atom is much smaller than P (4) Nitrogen is highly inert Which of the following not have a three dimensional network structure ? (1) SiO2 57. 58. (2) Diamond (3) P4 (Black) (4) CCl4 Comprehension for (Q.No.57 & Q.No.58) Ferrous sulphate on heating produces compound X and gas Y and SO3 gas. FeSO4 X + Y + SO3 Compound X is : (1) FeO (2) Fe2O3 (3) FeS (4) Fe3O4 How many moles of FeSO4 are required to produce 0.5 moles of gas Y. (1) 1 (2) 0.5 (3) 2 (4) 0.25 Comprehension for (Q.No.59 & Q.No.60) 59. 60. Electrons in various suborbits of an orbit are filled in increasing order to their energies. Pairing of electrons in various orbitals of a suborbit takes place only after each orbital is half-filled. No two electrons in an atom can have the same set of quantum number. Cr (Z = 24), Mn+ (Z = 25), Fe2+ (Z = 26) and Co3+ (Z = 27) are isoelectronic each having 24 electrons. Thus, (1) all have configurations as [Ar] 4s1 3d 5 (2) Cr and Mn+ have configurations as [Ar] 4s1 3d5 while Fe2+ and Co3+ have configurations as [Ar]3d5 . (3) all have configurations as [Ar] 3d6 (4) all have configurations as [Ar] 4s2 3d 6 A compound of vanadium has a magnetic moment of 1.73 BM. Electronic configuration of the vanadium ion in the compound is : (1) [Ar] 4s0 3d 1 (2) [Ar] 4s2 3d 3 (3) [Ar] 4s1 3d 0 (4) [Ar] 4s0 3d 5 Attempt any one of the section C or D SECTION-C : MATHEMATICS This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 61. If a, b, c are in GP and the equations ax2 + 2bx + c = 0 and dx2 + 2ex + f = 0 have a common root, d e f , , are in a b c (1) H.P. then 62. (2) A.P. Let f(x) = 1 + x, x > 0 and g(x) = 1 1 (1) f(x) + f f(x) f x x 1 (3) g(x) + g = 2 x 10/15 (3) G.P. (4) A.G.P. 1 then f(x) 1 (2) the minimum value of f(x)f is 2 x p (4) g (tan q) + g(cot q) = 1 " q 0, 2 Sample question for ASAT : Enthusiast Course 63. The sum of the intercepts cut off by the cordinate axes on the lines x + y = a, x + y = ar, x + y = ar 2, .... where a 0 and r = (1) 2a 64. 65. 66. 67. 1 is 2 (3) 2 2a (2) a 2 (4) a 2 Let there be a triangle ABC such that 3 sin A + 4 cos B = 6 4 sin B + 3 cos A = 1 The value of C in degrees is (1) 30 (2) 60 (3) 120 (4) 150 The lines 2x 3y = 5 and 3x 4y = 7 are the diameters of a circle of area 154 sq unit. The equation of this circle is (p = 22/7) (1) x2 + y2 + 2x 2y = 62 (2) x2 + y2 + 2x 2y = 47 2 2 (3) x + y 2x + 2y = 47 (3) x2 + y2 2x + 2y = 62 The number of solutions of z11 + z = 0 is (where z is a complex number) (1) 1 (2) 6 (3) 11 (4) 13 2 2 If | (x + 5x + 9) | < | x + 2x + 2 | + | 3x + 7 | then : (1) x < - 7 3 (2) x > - 7 3 (3) x - 7 3 (4) x - 7 3 68. If equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 and x3 + x2 2 = 0 have two common roots, then (a, b, c Q) 69. (1) a = b c (2) a b = c (3) a = b = c (4) a = b = c Let a and b be two different natural numbers whose harmonic mean is 10 then their arithmatic mean is 70. 71. (1) 12 (2) 15 (3) 16 (4) 18 Let ax + by + c = 0,(a 0) be a variable straight line, where a, b, c are 1st, 5th and 9th term of an increasing A.P. then variable straight line always passes through a fixed point (1) (1, 2) (2) (1, 2) (3) ( 1, 2) (4) ( 1, 2) If 3a + 2b + 6c = 0 (a , b ,c R 0 ) , the family of straight lines ax + by + c = 0 passes through a fixed point whose coordinates are given by 72. (1) (1/2, 1/3) (2) (2, 3) (3) (3, 2) (4) (1/3, 1/2) If the circle x2 + y2 + 4x + 22y + c = 0 bisects the circumference of the circle x 2 + y2 2x + 8y d = 0, then c + d is equal to (1) 60 (2) 50 (3) 40 73. (4) 56 The discriminant of the quadratic equation (2 ) x2 +(a2)x 8l = 0 where a, l N is surely l (1) a perfect square (2) a prime number (3) a composite number (4) an even number 11/15 Sample question for ASAT : Enthusiast Course 74. 2p 2p + i sin Given z = cos , where n is a positive integer, find the equation whose roots are 2n + 1 2n + 1 a = z + z3 + z5 + ... + z2n 1 and b = z2 + z4 + ... + z2n. 75. 1 2 p 2 (1) x + x + sec =0 4 2n + 1 1 2 p 2 (2) x - x - sec =0 4 2n + 1 1 2 p 2 (3) x + x + sec =0 4 2n - 1 (4) None of these Let n be a fixed positive integer such that sin p p n + cos = , then 2n 2n 2 (1) n = 4 (2) n = 5 (3) n = 6 (4) None of these Comprehension for (Q.No.76 to Q.No.78) If sin a = A sin (a + b ), A 0, then 76. The value of tan a is : (1) 77. (2) A sin b 1 + A cos b (3) A cos b 1 - A sin b (2) sin a (1 - A cos b) A cos a cos b (3) cos a (1 - A sin b) A cos a cos b (4) sin a (1 + A cos b) A cos a cos b (4) cos a (1 + A sin b) A cos a cos b Which of the following is NOT the value of tan (a + b ) ? (1) sin b cos b - A (2) sin a cos a A cos b - sin 2 a (3) sin a cos a A cos b + sin 2 a (4) sin 2a 2(A cos b - sin 2 a) Comprehension for (Q.No.79 & Q.No.80) 99. 80. 12/15 A sin b 1 + A cos b The value of tan b is : (1) 78. A sin b 1 - A cos b Let the quadratic equation is x2 + 2(a + 1)x + 9a 5 = 0 If a > 7, then : (1) Both roots are negative (2) roots are of opposite sign (3) roots are imaginary (4) atleast one root is negative If a < 0, then (1) Both roots are negative (2) roots are of opposite sign (3) roots are imaginary (4) atleast one root is negative Sample question for ASAT : Enthusiast Course SECTION-D : BIOLOGY This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. Which of the following group of plant produce seeds but not fruits (1) Gymnosperms (2) Angiosperms (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Pteridophytes In which of the following group of organisms excretory system, sensory system and nervous system are ill developed and two types of symmetry are found during their course of life (1) Mollusca (2) Echinodermata (3) Hemichordata (4) Chordata False fruit is (1) Apple (2) Pear (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Mango As chloride ions are inorganic activators for enzyme ptyalin, which among the given ions is working like the same for carboxypeptidase (1) Copper (2) Zinc (3) Mangnese (4) Magnesium Moss differs from liverworts in possessing (1) Juvenile stage protonema (2) Prostrate leafy gametophyte (3) Leaves arranged in two rows (4) Unicellular, unbranched rhizoids Select wrongly matched pair (1) Whorled phyllotaxy Alstonia (2) Phylloclade Opuntia (3) Phyllode Australian Acacia (4) Palmately compound leaf Neem Study the given statements and select the correct options (A) Cellulose shows secondary helical structure (B) Turn over number of enzyme depends upon number of active sites (C) Every coenzyme is a cofactor but every cofactor is not coenzyme (1) A, B, C 88. (2) A, B 90. (4) A, C Match the following Column I Column II (Fungi) (Characteristics) (A) Rhizopus (i) Endogenous sexual spores (B) Neurospora (ii) Exogenous sexual spores (C) Mushrooms (iii) Perfect stage not known (D) Trichoderma (iv) Coenocytic mycelium (1) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii) 89. (3) B, C (2) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii) (3) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i) (4) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii) Select wrong statement regarding viruses (1) All are obligate intracellular parasites (2) Nucleic acid is infectious (3) DNA and RNA both present in a virus (4) Protective capsid is proteinaceous Consider following algal members Volvox, Chara, Ectocarpus, Polysiphonia, Fucus, Porphyra, Sargassum How many of the above members contain stored food as floridian starch (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 13/15 Sample question for ASAT : Enthusiast Course 91. 92. Select wrongly matched pair (1) Marchantia Gemmae (2) Funaria Protonema (3) Ferns Prothallus (4) Conifers Antheridium Match the following Column I (Plant species) Column II (Characteristics) (A) Mustard (i) Replum (B) Indigofera (ii) Vexillary aestivation (C) Ashwagandha (iii) Swollen placenta (D) Tulip (iv) Epiphyllous condition (1) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i) 93. (2) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii) (3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv) (4) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii) Go through the following figures of animals and find the feature which is not common for both animals (A) 94. 95. (B) (1) Open type circulatory system (2) Triploblastic and coelomate animals (3) Organ system level of organisation (4) Presence of muscular foot and feather like gills Select the incorrect statement regarding biomolecules (1) Lipids are not strictly macromolecules (2) Dietary protein are the source of essential amino acids (3) Lecithin is a phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membranes (4) Starch does not contain helices and thus gives blue colour with I2 Which of following is correct about maize roots? (1) Diarch, Endarch (2) Tetrarch, Exarch (3) Polyarch, Exarch (4) Hexarch, Endarch Comprehension for (Q.No.96 to Q.No.98) 96. 97. 98. 14/15 Loss of water from aerial part of the plant body in the form of water vapours called transpiration. Leaves are the main site for this process. It mostly occurs during day period and negligible during night. It is similar to the sweating in animals. Rate of transpiration causes a suction pressure in xylem vessels of the plant. it s value depends on surrounding environmental conditions. Excess transpiration causes wilting in plant. In some plants, to check the rate of transpiration certain motor cells are found on the leaf margin. In transpiration (1) Pure water is lost (2) Water in the form of dilute solution is lost (3) Only minerals are lost (4) Only water soluble organic materials are lost. Wilting in plant takes place due to: (1) Less transpiration (2) More transpiration (3) No transpiration (4) None of the above In plants transpiration helps in: (1) Maintaining shape of plant cells (2) Controlling temperature of plant body (3) Absorption of water and minerals from the soil (4) All of the above Sample question for ASAT : Enthusiast Course Comprehension for (Q.No.99 & Q.No.100) Oxidation of various organic food materials to release energy for various metabolic activities in living organisms is called aerobic respiration. Glucose is the main organic compound oxidised first during this process. In first step, without use of oxygen, glucose breaks up into 2 molecules of pyruvic acid in cytoplasm called glycolysis. In presence of oxygen pyruvic acid enters into mitochondria and completely oxidise into carbon dioxide and water to release maximum energy, the process involved are Kreb s cycle and Electron Transport System (ETS). 99. Which step of cellular respiration does not require oxygen: (1) Glycolysis (2) Kreb s cycle (3) ETS (4) All of the above 100. In aerobic respiration, maximum energy is released because: (1) There is incomplete oxidation of glucose molecule (2) There is complete oxidation of glucose molecule (3) There is partial oxidation of glucose molecule (4) None of the above 15/15 ASAT (SAMPLE PAPER) ENTHUSIAST COURSE (XI to XII moving Students) ANSWER KEY Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 Ans. 1 3 3 4 3 2 3 3 2 3 1 4 3 4 1 3 2 2 2 4 Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 2 3 3 1 3 2 3 3 2 3 2 2 4 1 2 3 4 3 3 2 Que . 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 1 4 2 3 2 3 3 1 4 3 1 3 1 2 1 4 2 1 2 1 Que . 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 2 4 3 1 3 4 1 2 4 1 1 2 3 1 3 1 2 3 1 2 Que . 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 1 2 3 2 1 4 3 4 3 1 4 3 4 4 3 1 2 4 Ans. Ans. Ans. Ans. Sample Paper 99 100 1 ASAT 2

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