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CBSE Class 12 Question Bank 2022 : Geography [Pre Board]

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12-C Samyuktha
Sunshine Chennai Senior Secondary School, Chennai City
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XII ALL CHAPTERS OF HUMAN GEO AND INDIA GEO - MCQ ## L.1 HUMAN GEOGRAPHY- NATURE AND SCOPE 1. The theme of human geography is based on (A) The study of nature (B) The study of human beings and their activities (C) The relationship between man and his natural environment (D) The study of phenomenon occurred on the surface of the earth Answer- (C) 2. Human geography is a study of changing relationship between unarresting man and unstable earth The core idea of above mentioned definition is (A) Dynamism in the relationship (B) Synthesis (C) New conceptions of the interrelationship (D) Welfare Answer-(A) 3. Which of the following Scholar (geographer) defined geography as The synthetic study of relationship between human societies and the earth s surface . (A) Miss Ellen Semple (B) Vidal de la Blache (C) Friedrich Ratzel (D) Griffith Taylor Answer-(C) 4. Vidal de la Blache supported the idea of ______. (A) Possibilism (B) Determinism (C) Behavioural School (D) Radical School Answer-(A) 5. Which one of the following is not correctly matched? Scholar Approach (A)Friedrich Ratzel Determinism (B)Ellen C. Semple Welfare (C)Griffith Taylor Neo Determinism (D)Vidal de la Blache Possibilism Answer-(B) 6. Make correct pairs from the following two columns and select the correct option. Period Approach 1. Early colonial period (a) Exploration & Description 2. Late 1950 s to the late 1960 s (b) Regional Analysis 3. Later colonial period (c) Aerial Differentiation 4. 1930 s through the inter-war period (d) Spatial Organization (A) 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) (B) 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) (C) 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (a) (D) 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) Answer-(A) 7. The core concern of Stop & Go determinism is(a) The movement of human from a state of necessity to a state of freedom. (b) Human beings should adapt the dictates of nature. (c) Possibilities can be created within a limit and there is no free run without accidents. (d) None of the above Answer- (C) 8. Which factors helped the human to conquer nature? (a) Intelligence (b) Development of new thoughts (c) Development of technology (d) Discoveries and explorations of new ideas Ans. (c) 9. Areal differentiations postulates the idea regarding (a) Imperial and trade interests (b) Elaboration and description of all aspects of a region (c) Identification and uniqueness of a region (d) Use of computers and sophisticated statistical tools. 10. Which of the following approach marked by the use of computers and sophisticated statistical tools (a) Areal differentiations (b)Regional analysis (c) Spatial organization (d) Exploration & description Ans. (c) 11. Arrange the following approaches in a correct order according to their development 1. Spatial organization 2. Regional approach 3. Areal differentiation 4. Humanistic approach a. 2. , 3. , 1. , 4. b. 1. , 2. , 3. , 4. c. 4. , 1. , 2. , 3. d. 3. , 2. , 1. , 4. Answer (a) 12. Consider the following situations and choose suitable title for them from the given options. 1. Very low level of technological development 2. The physical environment act as the Mother Nature 3. Afraiding and worshipping of nature by human being Options a. Naturalization of humans b. Humanization of nature c.Neo Determinism d. None of the above Ans. (a) 13. Which of the following things are not created by nature? a. Natural Vegetation b. Soils c. Farms d. Landfarms Ans. (c) 14. Neither is there a situation of absolute necessity and nor is there a condition of absolute freedom, human beings can conquer nature by obeying it . Above mentioned lines are correctly defines the concept of a. Possibilism b. Determinism c. Humanism d. Neo Determinism Ans. (d) 15. Which factor helped human being a lot to move from a state of necessity to a state of freedom ? a. Technology b. Listening or obeying of nature c. Explorations c. None of the above Ans. (a) L.2 THE WORLD POPULATION- DISTRIBUTION, DENSITY AND GROWTH 1. Asia has many places where people are few and few places where people are many Above mentioned remark about uneven distribution of Asia as well as world population is given by a. Dudley Stamp b. G.B. Cressey c. Hartshorne d. Griffith Taylor Ans. (b) 2. Patterns of population distribution and density of population help us to understand a. Regional imbalances of an area b. Demographic characteristics of any area c. Uneven topography of an area d. Developmental level of an area Ans. (b) 3. The density of population is usually measured in a. Persons/cm area b. Persons/sq km area c. Persons/cubic area d. All the above Ans. (b) 4. When we found more than 200 persons on every square km then the area will be considered as a. Highly or densely populated b. sparsely populated c. Rarely Populated d. Under Populated Ans. (a) 5. Which of the following area has very low density of population? a. North-Eastern part of USA b. High rainfall zones near the Equator c. Sweden in Europe d. South and South-East Asia Ans. (b) 6. Which of the following area is densely populated? a. North-Western part of Europe b. Western China c. North and South Pole d. Southern India in Asia Ans. (a) 7. Which is the most important factor that attract the human inhabitation in particular area? a. Availability of water b. Urbanization c. Minerals d. Social factors Ans. (a) 8. Which Factor is responsible for high density of population found in Katanga Zambia located in Africa? a. Availability of mineral wealth (copper) b. Availability of good forest resources c. Close social ties d. Scenic landscapes Ans. (a) 9. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched? REGIONS FACTOR OF HIGH DENSITY a. Kobe-Osaka region in Japan Presence of industries b. Mediterranean Regions Pleasant climate c. Ganga Plains Scenic beauty d. Mega cities Good civic amenities and employment Ans. (c) 10. The population growth or population change refers to the-----------------of inhabitants of a territory during a specific period of time. a. Decrease in numbe b. Change in number c. Increase in number d. huge migration Ans. (b) 11. Which factors affect the mortality rate of a region? a. Demographic Structure b. Social advancement c. Level of its economic development d. All the above Ans. (d) 12. Which of the following is not a PULL factor of migration? a. Better job opportunities b. Peace and stability c. Socio-economic backwardness d. Security of life Ans. (c) 13. Which of the following is not a PUSH factor of migration? a. Poor living conditions b. Political turmoil c. Epidemics d. Pleasant climate Ans. (d) 14. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option from the given options 1. Population grown rapidly during the sixteenth and seventeenth century. 2. Expansion of world trade during sixteenth and seventeenth century is an important cause of it. a. Only 1 is correct. b. Only 2 is correct c. Both the statements are incorrect d. Both statements are correct and statement 2 correctly explains the statement 1. Ans. (d) 15. Which of the following factor helped in the reduction of birth rate and provided a stage for accelerated population growth? a. Technological advancement b. Industrial Revolution c. Development of resources d. None of the above Ans. (a) 16. How many years took to rise population from 5 billion to 6 billion? a. 25 Years b. 12 Years c. 16 Years d. 11 Years Ans. (b) 17. Consider the following points regarding the growing population in developing world and choose the correct options from the given options; 1. Birth rate is extremely high as compared to death rate. 2. Need for children to go out and work to bring in income for the family. 3. Lack of availability and knowledge of contraception and family planning. Options; a. Only 1 and 2 are correct. b. Only 2 and 3 are correct c. All 1,2 and 3 are correct d. All are incorrect Ans. (c) 18. What kind of correlation we found between economic development and population growth? a. Positive b. Negative c. Partially positive and partially negative d. Question is not applicable Ans. (b) 19. Which of the following may be interpreted as a spontaneous effort to achieve a better balance between population and resources? a. Migration b. Birth Rate c. Death Rate d. All the above Ans. (a) 20. Which statement is true about the change in population? 1. Increase of population causes depletion of resources. 2. Population decline causes under development of resources. 3. The resources that had supported earlier are now insufficient to maintain the population Options; a. Only 1 is correct b. Only 3 is correct c. All 1, 2, and 3 are correct d. All are incorrect Ans. (c) 21. Which epidemics in Africa, some parts of CIS (Commonwealth of Independent States) and Asia have pushed up death rates and reduced average life expectancy? a. Cholera b. T.B. c. Dengue fever d. HIV/AIDS Ans. (d) 22. Which of the following countries is not considered as low growth of population? a. Liberia b. Latvia c. Estonia d. Denmark Ans. (a) 23. Which of the following countries is not comes under the category of high growth of population? a. Somalia b. Albania c. Germany d. Italy Ans. (b) 24. Which of the following feature is not related to First stage of demographic transition? a. Improvements in sanitation and health conditions. b. Life expectancy is low. c. People are mostly illiterate and have low level of technology. d. People are engaged in agriculture where large families are an asset. Ans. (a) 25. Which of the following statement is true about the last stage of demographic transition a. Both fertility and mortality decline considerably. b. Deliberately controls the family size. c. The population becomes urbanized and literates. d. All the above Ans. (d) L-3 POPULATION COMPOSITION 1. What do we called the ratio between the number of women and man in the population? a. Population density b. Sex ratio c. Occupational structure d. Population distribution Ans. (b) 2. Through which of the following we can get an important information about the status of women in a country? a. Sex ratio b. Family status c. Gender discrimination d. All the above Ans. (a) 3. An area having more numbers of women mainly indicates a. Favorable sex ratio b. Male migration for employment c. Better status of women d. Equality among male and females Ans. (b) 4. Regions having rampant gender discrimination found unfavorable sex ratio, because of a. Practice of female feticide b. Female infanticide and domestic violence c. Lower socio-economic status of women d. All the above Ans. (d) 5. Which of the following countries found lowest sex ratio? a. Latvia b. Qatar c. India d. Belgium Ans. (b) 6. Which of the following continent generally recorded low sex ratio a. Europe b. North America c. Australia d. Asia Ans. (d) 7. Consider the following statements and choose correct options from the given options; I. Males population found in minority in the greater part of Europe. II. A deficit of males in the populations in European countries is attributed to better status of women and an excessively male dominated out migration to different parts of the world in the past. Options; a. Only I is correct b. Only II is correct c. Both I and II are correct d. Both I and II are incorrect Ans. (c) 8. A greater proportion of population above 60 years of age in a country indicates a. Large working population b. Requirement of more expenditure on health care facilities. c. Very low death rate d. All the above Ans. (b) 9. If a country is having large proportion of young population, it would meana. High birth rate and the population is youthful. b. Large working population c. Expenditure on health care facilities d. Heavy pressure on government to arrange basic facilities Ans. (a) 10. Which of the following is an important indicator of population composition a. Sex ratio b. Age structure c. Rural-urban composition d. Literacy Ans. (b) 11. Which of the following features is shown by population pyramid? a. No. of male and female population b. Age-sex structure of the population c. Occupational structure of population d. Working population in country s population Ans. (b) 12. If a Population Pyramid of a country has triangular shaped with wide base, it indicates a. Larger population in lower age groups b. Almost equal birth and death rate c. Low birth and death rates d. Low birth and high death rate Ans. (a) 13. What kind of shape we observe for Australia s age-sex pyramid a. Triangular shaped with a wide based b. Bell shaped and tapered towards the top c. Narrow base and a tapered shape d. Rounded shape with narrow top Ans. (b) 14. Consider the following statements, try to establish cause andeffect relationship between these two and choose the correct option for the same. I. The Japan pyramid has a narrow base and a tapered top showing low birth and death rates. II. The population growth in developed countries is usually zero or negative Options; a. Only statement I is true. b. Only statement II is true c. Both I and II statements are correct and the statement II correctly explains the statement I. d. Both I and II statements are irrelevant. Ans. (c) 15. What kind of shape for Nigerian population pyramid we observe? a. Triangular b. Bell shaped c. Narrow base and tapered shape d. Wide shape with wide top Ans. (a) 16. Almost equal birth and death rates is characteristic feature of which of the following country s population? a. Nigeria b. India c. Sri Lanka d. Australia Ans. (d) 17. The division of population into rural and urban is based on the a. Occupational structure b. Residence c. Density of population d. Literacy Ans. (b) 18. Which of the following is the characteristic feature of rural and urban differences in sex ratio in Canada and West European countries? a. Females outnumber males in rural areas b. Males outnumber females in rural areas c. Males outnumber females in urban areas d. None of the above Ans. (b) 19. Which of the following reasons are responsible for the excess of females in urban areas of U.S.A., Canada and Europe? a. Highly mechanized agriculture largely a male occupation b. Influx of females from rural areas to avail of the vast job opportunities c. No gender discrimination d. All the above Ans. (d) 20. Which of the following reason is responsible for the male dominated sex ratio in Asian urban areas? a. Predominance of male migration b. Female participation in farming activities is fairly high in countries like India c. Shortage of housing and high cost of living that discourage female migration d. All the above Ans. (d) 21. Which of the following is not concerned with Primary activities? a. Forestry b. fishing c. construction d. mining Ans. (c) 22. Which of the following economic activity is not related with tertiary activity? a. communication b. research and developing ideas c. transport d. electrician Ans. (b) 23. Consider the following statements, try to establish cause and effect relationship between these two and choose the correct option for the same. 1. The proportion of working population engaged in secondary, tertiary and quaternary services is a good indicator of the levels of economic development of a natio 2. Only a developed economy with industries and infrastructure can accommodate more workers in the secondary, tertiary and quaternary sector Options; a. Only 2 is correct b. Both 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains the statement 1. c. Both statements are true but statement 2 does not explain correctly the statement 1 d. Both are incorrect Ans. (b) 24. If the high proportion of population of any country is engaged in agriculture, it would mean a. The economy is still in primitive stage b. That country is self sustained in agriculture in terms of economy c. Most of the people of that country are illiterates d. lack of resources Ans. (a) 25. Which of the following activity is related to quaternary services? a. Transport and communication b. Fishing and mining c. Research and developing ideas d. Manufacturing Ans. (c) 26. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? ACTIVITY SECTOR a .Manufacturing Secondary activity b. Transport and communication Tertiary activity c. Commercial Transport Quaternary activity d. Mining Primary activity L-4 HUMAN DEVELOPMENT 1. Which of the following points correctly defines the term growth? a. Refer to change over a period of time. b. Quantitative and value neutral c. May be positive or negative d. All the above Ans. (d) 2. Which of the following is the meaning of development? a. Negative as well as positive b. Qualitative change which is always value positive c. When there is quantitative change, development takes place d. None of the above Ans. (b) 3. Which of the only criterion was used earlier for many decades to measure a country s level of development? a. In terms of its economic growth b. In terms of increased literacy c. In terms of increasing basic amenities d. In terms of more expenditure in the field of education Ans. (a) 4. Which of the following economists developed the concept of Human Development? a. AmartyaSen b. KailashSatyarthi c. Muhammad Yunus d. Dr. Mehboob-ul-Haq Ans. (d) 5. Which of the following is an important aspects of Human Development? a. Quality of life people enjoy in a country b. Availability of opportunities c. Freedoms they enjoy d. All the above Ans. (d) 6. According to Dr. Mehboob-ul-Haq, which of the following is central point to all development? a. Basic infrastructure b. People c. Stress on education d. All of above Ans. (b) 7. Which of the following point was mainly taken into consideration regarding human development described by Dr. Mehboob-ul-Haq? a. Development that enlarges people choices b. Continuous growth of country s economy c. Development of basic infrastructure d. Development of educational facilities Ans. (a) 8. Which of the following is the basic goal of development? a. To create conditions where people can live meaningful life b. People must be healthy, be able to develop their talents c. Participation of people in society and be free to achieve their goals d. All the above Ans. (d) 9. Which of the following is not a key area of human development? a. Access to resources b. Access to health c. Access to education d. Access to lead a luxurious life Ans. (d) 10. Which of the following reasons are responsible for the incapability and non freedom to make even basic choices? a. Their inability to acquire knowledge b. Their material poverty c. Social discrimination and inefficiency of institutions d. All the above Ans. (d) 11. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched PILLARS OF HUMAN DEVELOPENT INDICATORS a. Equity - making equal access to opportunities available to everybody b. Sustainability - Continuity in the availability of opportunities c. Productivity - Resources must be used keeping in mind the future d. Empowerment - To have the power to make choices Ans. (c) 12. Which of the following is most required to empower people? a. To provide better health facilities b. Good governance and people-oriented policies c. Each generation must have the same opportunities d. Sustainable use of resources Ans. (b) 13. An uneducated child cannot make the choice to be a doctor because her choice has got limited by her a. lack of education b. economic and social backwardness c. Lack of health facilities d. All the above Ans. (a) 14. Which of the following pair is not matched correctly? APPROACHES FEATURES a. Income approach - Human development is seen as being linked to income b. Welfare Approach - It looks at human beings as beneficiaries or targets of all development activities c. Basic Needs Approach- Proposed by Dr. Mehboob-ul-Haq in which human choices are considered d. Capability Approach - Associated to Prof. Amartya Sen. Building human capabilities in the areas of health, education and resources Ans. (c) 15. Which of the following is chosen as the health indicator of human development? a. Life expectancy at birth b. Good health c. Total expenditure on health services d. All the above Ans. (a) 16. Which of the following indicators are used to asses access to knowledge? a. Adult literacy rate b. Gross enrolment ratio c. Longer and healthier lives d. Both (a) and (b) are correct Ans. (d) 17. Which of the following score represent the greater level of human development? a. When the score is closer to 0.268 b. When the score is closer to 1 c. When the score is closer to 0.586 d. When the score is closer to -1 Ans. (b) 18. How can we measure the access to resources? a. Purchasing power in U.S. Dollars b. Per Capita Income c. Gross income of country d. Living standard of people Ans. (a) 19. Which of the following criterion are used to show the shortfall in human development in any region? a. The probability of not surviving till the age of 40 b. The number of people who do not have access to clean water c. The number of small children who are underweight d. All of the above Ans. (d) 20. Which of the following countries is having lower rank in terms of human development index? a. Sri Lanka b. India c. Tobago d. Trinidad Ans. (b) 21. Which of the following states performs much better in human development despite having lower per capita income? a. Punjab b. Haryana c. Kerala d. Tamil Nadu Ans. (c) 22. Which of the following countries attained a top rank in terms of its Human Development Index Value? a. Norway b. Denmark c. Netherlands d. Ireland Ans. (a) 23. Consider the following points, evaluate them and choose the correct option from the given options 1. High level of human development group has 55 countries. 2. A higher investment in people and good governance has set this group apart from others Options; a. Both statements are true, statement 2 does not explain statement 1 correctly b. Both statements are true and statement 2 very correctly explains the statement 1 c. Both statements 1 and 2 are wrong. d. Both Statements are invalid Ans. (b) 24. Which of the following characteristics are related with the countries having high level of human development index? a. Many of were former imperial powers and having low social diversity b. Most of the high scorer countries are located in Europe. c. Most of countries represent the industrialized western world d. All the above Ans. (d) 25. Which of the following factors are responsible for having the low level of human development index in some countries? a. Political turmoil b. Social instability in the form of civil war c. Famine or high incidence of diseases d. All the above Ans. (d) L-5 PRIMARY ACTIVITIES 1. Which of the following is correct about the economic activities? a. These are human activities which generate income b. They are broadly grouped in to primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary activities c. Both (a) and (b) are correct d. Only (a) is correct Ans. (c) 2. Which of the following economic activities are directly dependent on environment? a. Primary activities b. Secondary activities b. c. Tertiary activities d. Quaternary activities 3. Which of the following activity was associated with earliest human beings? a. Pastoralism b. agriculture c. Hunting and gathering d. Mining Ans. (c) 4. Consider and evaluate the following statements than choose correct options for them from the given options. 1. Many species now have become extinct or endangered due to illegal hunting. 2. The early hunters used primitive tools made of stones, twigs or arrows so the number of animals killed were limited. Options; a. Only statement 1 is correct b. Only statement 2 is correct c. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct d. Both statements are incorrect Ans. (c) 5. Consider the following characteristics and choose suitable title for them from the given options; a. Practiced in regions with harsh climatic conditions, often involves primitive societies. b. Requires a small amount of capital investment c. Operates at very low level of technology Options; a. Gathering b. Hunting c. Pastoralism d. Nomadic herding Ans. (a) 6. In which of the following areas gathering practiced? a. Northern Canada b. Amazon Basin c. Northern fringe of Australia d. All of aboveAns. (d) 7. Which of the following is not related with the items gathered by gatherer? a. Balata b. cosmetics c. Wheat plant d. rubber Ans. (c) 8. Consider and evaluate the following statements and choose the correct option from the given options for the same. I. Products of gathering cannot compete in the world market. II. Synthetic products often of better quality and at lower prices Options; a. Both the statements I and II are correct b. Both statements I and II are correct and the statement II is the true cause behind the statement I. c. Both the statements are incorrect. d. Only statement I is true. Ans. (b) 9. Which of the following factor is most important for the movement of nomadic herders from one place to another ? a. Climatic conditions b. Technological level c. Amount of money d. Quality of pastures and water Ans. (d) 10. Each nomadic community occupies a well-identified territory as a matter of tradition Above mentioned line is an important characteristics of which of the following activity? a. Subsistence agriculture b. Nomadic herding c. Plantation agriculture d. Collective farming Ans. (b) 11. Make correct pairs from the given columns choose correct options; AREA OF NOMADIC HERDING ANIMALS KEPT 1. Tropical Africa (i) Yak and Llamas 2. Sahara and Asiatic desert (ii) Reindeer 3. Mountainous areas of Tibet and Andes (iii) Sheep and goats 4. Arctic and sub Arctic areas (iv) Cattle Options a. 1. (iv), 2. (iii), 3. (i), 4. (ii) b. 1. (ii), 2. (iv) 3. (iii), 4. (i) c. 1. (i), 2. (ii), 3. (iii), 4. (iv) d. 1. (iii), 2. (i), 3. (iv), 4. (ii) e. Ans. (a) 12. In Himalayan regions which of the following tribes are linked with the activity of Transhumance? a. Bheels b. Gonds c. Bakarwals d. Santhals Ans. (c) 13. Which of the following are the chief characteristic of Commercial livestock rearing? a. Organized and capital intensive b. Practiced on permanent ranches c. Only one type of animal is reared d. All the above Ans. (d) 14. Grazing in parcels, is an important characteristics of which of the following activity? a. Nomadic herding b. Commercial livestock rearing c. Dairy farming d. Factory farming Ans. (b) 15. Commercial livestock rearing is not associated with which of the following countries? a. Central China b. New Zealand c. Australia d. Argentina Ans. (a) 16. Which of the following area is not associated with Primitive subsistence farming? a. Africa b. South and Central America c. New Zealand c. South East Asia Ans. (c) 17. Slash and burn agriculture is also known as a. Jhuming in North eastern India b. Milpa in Central America c. Ladang in Indonesia d. All the above Ans. (d) 18. Which of the following factor is responsible for the lessening trend reflected in the cycle of Jhum ? a. Uneven topography of North-eastern India b. Loss of fertility in different parcels c. Lack of technology d. Due to river Brahmaputra and vast network of its tributaries Ans. (b) 19. Intensive subsistence agriculture is characterized by which of the following factors? a. Land holdings are very small due to high density of population. b. The yield per unit area is high but per labour productivity is low c. Single crop specialization d. Only (a) and (b) are correct Ans. (d) 20. Fodder crop is an important component of which of the following farming? a. Mediterranean Farming b. Mixed Farming c. Extensive commercial grain farming d. Dairy Farming Ans. (b) 21. Match the following pairs and choose the correct options from the given options TYPES OF AGRICULTURE CHARACTERISTICS 1.Dairy farming (i) Equal emphasis laid on crop cultivation and animal husbandry 2.Mixed farming (ii) Highly capital intensive 3. Mediterranean farming (iii) Farmers pool their resources voluntarily For more efficient and profitable farming 4.Cooperative farming (iv) Specialized in grape cultivation Or viticulture Options; a.1. (ii) , 2. (i) , 3. (iv) , 4. (iii) b. 1. (i) , 2. (ii) , 3. (iii) , 4. (iv) c. 1. (ii) , 2. (i) , 3. (iv) , 4. (ii) d. 1. (iv) , 2. (ii) , 3. (i) , 4. (iii) Ans. (a) 22. Growing flowers especially tulips is the specialization of which of the following countries? a. Norway b. Sweden c. Netherlands d. Belgium Ans. (c) 23. Which of the following column is not matched correctly? ACTIVITY CHARACTERISTICS a. Truck farming Growing of vegetables b. Factory farming Rearing of poultry and cattle c. Market gardening Growing of flowers d. Viticulture Rearing of fish Ans. (d) 24. Which of the following is an important feature of poultry farming and cattle rearing? a. Breed selection and scientific breeding b. Feeding of animals and poultry done on manufactured feed stuff c. Farmers used to pool in all their resources d. Only (a) and (b) are correct Ans. (d) 25. Which of the following crop is considered as the principal crop? a. Wheat b. Barley c. Maize d. Oats Ans. (a) 26. Single crop specialization is the characteristics of which of the following type of agriculture? a. plantation agriculture b. Mediterranean agriculture c. Intensive subsistence agriculture d. None of the above Ans. (d) 27. Which of the following will be considered as an economic activity? a. Teaching of students in the class by a teacher b. Nursing of husband at home by a nurse c. Giving services at free of cost at any religious place d. Pilgrimage to old parents. Ans. (a) 28. Which of the following is not an economic activity ? a. Treatment of patient by a doctor b. Selling of fruits by a fruit seller c. Growing of crops by a farmer d. Taking care of mother to her child Ans. (d) 29. Which of the following is not a primary activity? a. Animal herding b. Services of an advocate c. Fishing d. Mining Ans. (b) 30. Which of the following represent Red Collar Jobs ? a. People engaged in primary activities and their working area is located outside the home b. Mechanics, working in factories and industries c. Peoples engaged in Research and Development d. Teachers teaching in schools and universities and doctors in hospitals 31. Which of the following is not matched correctly? AREA PRIMARY ACTIVITY a. Amazon Basin Subsistence gathering b. Arabian Peninsula Nomadic Herding c. Argentina Extensive commercial grain farming d. California Commercial livestock rearing Ans. (d) 32. Consider the following statements related with nomadic herding 1. The number of pastoral nomads has been decreasing. 2. This is mainly due to imposition of politicalboundaries. Choose the correct options for the same a. Only 1 Is correct b. Both 1 and 2 are correct c. Only 2 is correct d. d. Both are incorrect e. Ans. (b) 33. Which of the following is not a plantation crop? a. Tea b. Rice c. Rubber d. Sugarcane Ans.(b) 34. Which of the following is not matched correctly? COUNTRYMEN PLANTATION AGRICULTURE a. French Coffee in Africa b. Britain Tea in India c. Japanese Coconut in Sri Lanka d. Holland Sugarcane in Indonesia Ans. (c) 35. Which of the following is not a feature of Dairy farming? a. It is the most advanced and efficient type of rearing of milch animals b. It is practiced mainly near urban and industrial centers c. Less capital investment is required d. The largest area of Dairy farming is north WesternEurope. Ans. (c) 36. Which of the following country specializes in the growing of flowers? a. Canada b. Netherlands c. Tasmania d. Denmark Ans. (b) 37. Which of the following countries became most successful in terms of Co-operative Movement? a. Canada b. Denmark c. Belgium d. Sweden Ans. (b) 38. To which of the following, coffee estates are known for in Brazil? a. Fazenda b. Truck Farming c. Factory Farming d. Dairy Farming Ans. (a) 39. What is the meaning of Kolkhoz? a. Commercial Farming b. Collective Farming c. Co-operative Farming d. Market Gardening Ans. (b) 40. Citrus fruits are the specialty of which of the following agriculture? a. Plantation Agriculture b. Truck Farming c. Mediterranean Agriculture d. Co-operative Agriculture Ans. (a) 41. Which of the following is not matched correctly a. When the ore lies deep below the surface - Shaft mining b. When the minerals occur close to the surface - Open cast mining c. Group of farmers form a co-operative society by pooling in their - Collective farming Resources voluntarily for more efficient and profitable farming d. Kolkhoz - Soviet Union 42. In Europe livestock is reared on the manufactured feedstuff. What does such kind of agriculture called? a. Factory Farming b. Market Gardening c. Truck Farming d. Dairy Farming Ans. (a) 43. Which of the following is not matched correctly? a. India Jhuming b. Mexico Milpa c. Indonesia Ladang d. Europe Conuco Ans. (d) 44. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option for the same; 1. Grape cultivation is the specialityof the Mediterranean agriculture 2. Wines are produced from high quality grapes and the inferior grapes are dried into raisins and Currants Options; a. Only 1 is correct b. Both 1 and 2 are correct c. Only 2 is correct d. Both are incorrect Ans. (b) 45. Match the column I to column II and make correct pairs and choose the correct answer with the help of given codes. COLUMN I COLUMN II i. Northern Canada 1. Subsistence Gathering ii. Mongolia 2. Nomadic Herding iii. Western Europe 3. Commercial Dairy Farming iv. Northern America 4. Factory Farming Codes I II III IV a. 1 2 3 4 b. 2 1 4 3 c. 3 4 1 2 d. 4 1 2 3 Ans. (a) 46. Consider the following i. Brazil ii. Denmark iii. Netherlands iv. New Zealand Which of the above mentioned is famous for Dairy farming? a. Only 1 and 3 b. Only 2 and 4 c. Only 1 and 4 d. Only 3 and 4 Ans. (b) L. 6 SECONDARY ACTIVITIES 1. Which of the following economic activity transform raw material into finished products? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. Quaternary Ans. (b) 2. Secondary activities are mainly concerned with which of the following? a. Manufacturing industries b. Processing industries c. Construction or infrastructure industries d. All the above Ans. (d) 3. Which of the following is not an example of manufacturing or secondary activities? a. Molding iron and steel b. Extraction of minerals c. Stamping out plastic toys d. Assembling of delicate computer components Ans. (b) 4. Which of the following feature is not associated with modern large scale Manufacturing? a. Production done by manually or by simple machines and tools b. Adoption of specialized methods of production c. Based on organizational structure and stratification d. Technological innovation through research and development Ans. (a) 5. Which of the following is the most important in terms of location of any industry? a. Favorable land location b. Amount of capital c. Minimum production cost d. All of the above Ans. (c) 6. Which of the following point is correctly define the importance of industry in terms of its location? a. Peoples having demand for goods manufactured in particular industry as well as having purchasing power. b. Nearness of trading centers to the residential areas. c. Where goods are sold at cheap rates d. None of the above Ans. (a) 7. Which of the following factors mainly attracts the high concentration of industries in Western Europe and Eastern-North America? a. Availability of raw material in close vicinity b. Highly developed transport system c. Favorable government policies d. Availability of plenty of water Ans. (b) 8. Which of the following factor is mainly responsible for the location of Foot loose Industries ? a. Accessibility by road network b. Close proximity to raw material producing area c. Availability of cheap and skilled labor on large scale d. None of the above Ans. (a) 9. Which of the following is not an example of cottage industry? a. Making of jeweler of gold, silver and bronze by a jeweler b. Furniture making by a carpenter at home c. Crafts made up of bamboo d. Watch making Ans. (d) 10. Which of the following country is not associated with earlier large scale industries? a. China b. North-Eastern USA c. Europe d. U.K. Ans. (a) 11. Which of the following pair is not matched correctly? INDUSTRIES RAW MATERAL TAKEN FROM a. Beverages industry Agriculture b. Woolen textile Animals c. Paper industry Forests d. Jeweler industry Chemicals Ans. (d) 12. Which of the following industry is regarded as basic industry? a. Consumer goods b. Iron and steel c. Chemical industry d. Cotton textile Ans. (b) 13. Leather industry possess the example of which of the following industry? a. Forest based industry b. Chemical based industry c. Animal based industry d. Mineral based industry Ans. (c) 14. What are the basic features of traditional large scale industrial regions? a. These are based on heavy engineering b. located near coal-fields and engaged in metal smelting c. High proportion of employment in manufacturing industry d. All of the above Ans. (d) 15. Consider and evaluate the following statements and choose correct option from given options. 1. Traditional large scale industries are now known as smokestack industries. 2. These are often located near coal-fields to fulfill energy requirements. Options a. Only 1 is correct b. Both 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains the statement 1 c. Only 2 is correct d. Both 1 and 2 is correct Ans. (b) 16. Which of the following are the characteristics of Agri-buisnessfarm? a. Farms are mechanized and large in size b. It is commercial farming on an industrial scale often financed by business whose main interest lie outside agriculture c. Reliant on chemicals d. All of the above Ans. (d) 17. Which of the following area has now considered as the Rust bowl of U.S.A.? a. Pittsburg b. Cleveland c. Appalachian region d. Great Lake region Ans. (a) 18. Which of the following industry is losing importance in the Ruhr region of Germany for which it was known initially? a. Opel car assembly plant b. New chemical plants c. Coal and steel d. None of the above Ans. (c) 19. In which of the following industry, white collar workers make up a large share of the total workforce. a. Traditional iron and steel industry b. High technology industry c. Cotton textile industry d. None of the above Ans. (b) 20. Blue collar workersstands for a. Cultivators b. Teachers & doctors c. Factory workers d. Laborers Ans. (c) 21. Which of the following is not an identical mark of the high tech industrial landscape? a. Industrial waste and pollution b. Neatly spaced c. Modern dispersed office plant d. White collar jobs outnumber the blue collar jobs Ans.(a) 22. Which of the following possess the best example of technologies? a. Silicon valley near San Francisco b. Silicon valley in Mexico c. Silicon Forest near Seattle d. Only (a) and (c) are correct Ans. (d) 23. Which of the following country does not produce cotton textile from imported cotton? a. U.K. b. North-Western Europe c. Japan d. Sri Lanka Ans. (d) 24. Why cotton textile industries shifted from highly developed countries to less developed countries? a. Due to production of good quality raw cotton in these countries b. Due to low labor cost in such countries c. Due to good infrastructure d. All of the above Ans. (d) 25. Match the column I to Column II and make the correct pairs by using correct codes from the given options; COLUMN I COLUMN II (Countries) (Steel producing centre) I. U.S.A. 1. Dusseldorf II. Germany 2. Great Lake III. Russia 3.Sheffield IV. U.K. 4. Ukrain Codes I II II IV a. 2 1 4 3 b. 1 2 3 4 c. 3 1 2 4 d. 2 3 4 1 Ans. (a) L-7 TERTIARYAND QUATERNARY ACTIVITIES 1. Which of the following is not an example of tertiary activity ? a. Teaching by teachers to the students b. Washing and pressing of clothes by launderer c. Recreation in cinema hall d. Growing of crops by a farmer Ans. (d) 2. In which of the following sector, most of the peoples worked during the initial stages of economic development? a. Primary sector b. Secondary sector c. Tertiary sector d. Both (a) and (b) are correct Ans. (a) 3. In developed economy or country, where majority of workers get employment? a. Primary sector b. Secondary sector c. Tertiary sector d. Quaternary sector Ans. (c) 4. How the output measured in tertiary activities? a. In terms of volume of goods b. In terms of total value of goods c. In terms of wages and salaries d. All of the above Ans. (c) 5. Which of the following is depicting the main difference between secondary activities and tertiary activities? a. Relies more heavily on specialized skills, experience and knowledge of the workers b. Relies on production technique, machinery and factory processes c. directly involve in the processing of physical raw material d. No theoretical knowledge and practical training required Ans. (a) 6. Which of the following activity is not an example of tertiary activity? a. Travel by bus b. Send letters c. Digging land for extracting minerals d. Services of doctors for treatment Ans. (c) 7. Which of the following facility we found in urban marketing centers? a. Provide many ordinary goods and services as well as specialized goods andservices b. Markets for labor, housing, semi or finished products c. Professionals like teachers, lawyers, consultants etc. d. All of the above Ans. (d) 8. Which of the following is not an example of non-store retail trading? a. Street peddling b. Fixed establishment c. Automatic vending machine d. mail order Ans. (b) 9. Which of the following is a chief feature of wholesale trading a. It constitutes bulk business through numerous intermediary and supply houses b. wholesaler often extend credit to retail stores c. Most retail stores procure supplies from an intermediary source d. All of the above Ans. (d) 10. Which of the following is used to measure transport distance? a. Km. b. Time c. Cost d. All of the above Ans. (d) 11. Which of the following is the major factor that affect the demand for transport? a. Size of population b. Pattern of trade between cities, towns and industrial centers c. Type of climate d. Length of the route Ans. (a) 12. Consider and evaluate the following statements and choose correct option from the given options I. Very large volumes of mail continue to be handled by post offices all over the world II. All forms are not fully disassociated because of the cheapness of the older system Options a. Only 1 is true b. Only 2 is true c. Both 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 correctly explains the statement 1 d. Both 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 does not explain the statement 1 correctly Ans. (c) 13. Which of the following revolutionized the global communication system? a. Newspapers b. Mobile telephony c. Internet d. Mass media Ans. (c) 14. Which of the following service will be considered as high ordered service among all? a. Accountants b. Launderers c. Grocery shops d. Plumbers Ans. (a) 15. Which of the following service is not related to mental labor? a. Services of advocate b. Medical check-up of patients by Physician c. Playing music by musician d. Fittings of water taps by a plumber Ans. (d) 16. Which of the following services are regulated and supervised by governments or Companies? a. Making and maintaining highways and bridges b. Maintaining fire fighting departments c. Marketing of transport, telecommunication, energy and water supply services. d. All of the above Ans. (d) 17. Which of the following is an example of unorganized services? a. Tiffin service (dabbawala) in Mumbai b. Multiplexes and restaurants c. Law and management d. Fire fighting departments Ans. (a) 18. Which of the following is considered as single largest tertiary activity in the world? a. Trade and commerce b. Tourism c. Communication d. Transport Ans. (b) 19. Which of the following industries depend upon Tourism for their growth? a. Infrastructure industries b. Retail trading c. Craft industries d. All of the above Ans. (d) 20. Which of the following is the most popular tourist region of the world? a. Mountainous areas in Kashmir b. Nile Valley of Africa c. Warmer places around the Mediterranean coast d. Colder areas near Mongolia Ans. (c) 21. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option for the same from the given options I. Improvements in the standard of living and increased leisure time, permits many more people to go on holidays for leisure. II. The opening up of tourist areas has been aided by improvement in transportfacilities. Options a. Both statements I and II are correct and also complimentary to each other b. Both statements I and II are correct but they are not related to each other c. Only statement II is correct d. Both the statements I and II are invalid Ans. (a) 22. Which of the following factor is responsible for the popularity of Southern Europe and Mediterranean land in terms of tourism? a. Spectacular mountains b. Favorable climate c. Their bright history d. Culture and art Ans. (b) 23. Which of the following is not matched correctly? PLACES TOURISM ATTRACTIONS a. Goa Heritage homes b. Thailand Business tourism c. Karnataka Medicare d. Singapore Medical tourism Ans. (b) 24. On which of the following Quaternary activities center around ? a. Production and collection of goods and information b. Supply of good quality of raw material c. Research and development d. All of the above Ans. (C) 25. Which of the following services are the examples of Quinary services? a. Peoples involved in Research and development b. The highest level of decision makers or policy makers c. Peoples involved in tourism and allied industries d. Production and collection of information Ans. (b) 26. Which of the following are considered as knowledge oriented industry? a. Tertiary activities b. Quaternary activities c. Quinary and tertiary activities d. Quinary and secondary activities Ans. (b) 27. Which of the following factor is responsible for the coming of outsourcing in different countries ? a. Cheap and skilled labour b. Favourable working process c. Developed means of transport d. All of the above 28. Which of the following is not an example of Knowledge Processing Outsourcing (KPO) ? a. E- Learning b. intellectual property c. Collection of information d. legal profession Ans. (c) 29. Which of the following is the main aim of outsourcing? a. To improve efficiency b. To reduce cost c. To produce new jobs d. Both (a) and (b) Ans. (d) 30. Which of the following feature is depicted by Digital Divide ? a. providing ICT access and benefits to its citizens by a country b. Uneven distribution of opportunities emerging from the information and technology across the globe c. Distribution of knowledge based industries d. All of the above Ans. (b) L-8 TRANSPORT AND COMMUNICATION 1. How the human being is depend upon transport and communication ? a. For the high living standard and quality of life b. For exchange and trade of commodities c. For linking producing centres to consumer centres d. All of the above Ans. (d) 2. Which of the following lines defines well the term Transport ? a. It is the facility to transport peoples from one place to another place b. It is the facility to transport finished products from the producing centres to the markets c. It is the facility to transport goods and peoples from one place to another place d. None of the above Ans. (c) 3. Transport and communication may be categorised as a. Service industry b. Secondary activities c.Unorganised industry d. Quaternary services Ans. (a) 4. Which of the following mean of transportation is not suitable to carry peoples from one place to another place ? a. Railways b. Pipelines c. Aeroplane d. Ropeway Ans. (b) 5. The significance of a mode of transport depends on a. The type of goods and services to be transported b. Cost of transport and the mode available c. The number of passengers transported d. Only (a) and (b) Ans. (d) 6. Make the correct pairs from the following and choose the correct option from the given codes . MODE OF TRANSPORT SIGNIFICANCE I Air Transport International movement of goods is handled II Rail Transport Cheaper and faster over short distances and for door to door services III Ocean Freighters Most suited for large volumes of bulky material over long distances within a country IV Road Transport High value, light and perishable goods are best moved. CODES I II III IV a. 3 4 2 1 b. 1 2 3 4 c. 4 3 2 1 d. 3 2 1 4 Ans. (a) 7. The first public railway line was opened in 1825 in northern England between which of the following places ? a. Between Stockton and Derlington b. Between Stockton and Birmingham c. Between Derlington and Dortmund d. Between Derlington and Birmingham Ans. (a) 8. Due to the invention of which of the following, road transport revolutionised in terms of its quality and vehicles plying over them ? a. Steam engine b. Electric engine c. Internal combustion engine d. All of the above Ans. (c) 9. In which of the following countries overland transport still takes place by human porters or carts drawn or pushed by humans ? a. China and Malaysia b. India and USA c. China and India d. China and Japan Ans. (c) 10.In Which of the following continent highest road density and highest number of vehicles are registered ? a. Western Europe b. Africa c. Australia d. Northern America Ans. (d) 11. Which of the following highway links Edmonton in Canada to Anchorage in Alaska ? a.Alaskan Highway b. Trans Canadian Highway c. Pan American Highway d. None of the above Ans. (a) 12. Which of the following reason is responsible for the less importance of roadways as compared to railways ? a. Vast industrial regions b. Vast geographical area c. Dense population d. Less numbers of highways and low quality of roads Ans. (b) 13. Which of the following is considered as the hub for a dense highway network developed in the industrialised region to the west of Urals in Russia ? a. Moscow b. Vladivostok c. Ural d. Berkhoyansk Ans. (a) 14. Which of the following is the longest highway of India ? a. National Highway No. 4 b. National Highway No. 7 c. National Highway No. 9 d. National Highway No. 15 Ans. (b) 15. Which of the following is the chief feature of Border Roads ? a. Integrate people in remote areas with major cities. b. Provide defence c. Almost all countries have such roads to transport goods to border villages and militarycamps. d. All of the above Ans. (d) 16. Which of the following pair is not matched correctly REGIONS FEATURES a. Europe Densest railway network of the world b. Japan Daily passenger trains c. Trans Siberian Railway Connect London to Paris d. Moscow An important headquarter of railway Ans. (c) 17. Which of the following continent has one of the most extensive rail networks? a. North America b. Europe c. South America d. Asia Ans. (a) 18. In which of the following regions of South America, the dense rail network is found? a. Pampas of Argentina b. Coffee growing region of Brazil c. Mining areas of Chile d. Only (a) and (b) Ans. (d) 19. Which of the following reasons are responsible for the construction of Trans-Continental Railways? a. Due to economic and political reasons b. Due to economic and geographical reasons c. To encourage harmony and brotherhood among different countries d. Due to geographical and political regions Ans. (a) 20. Which of the following is the longest and important railway in the world? a. Trans-Canadian Railway b. Trans-Siberian Railway c. The Union and Pacific Railway d. The Orient Express Ans. (b) 21. Which of the following are the terminal stations connecting the Union and Pacific Railway? a. New York and Cleveland b. San Francisco and Chicago c. New York and San Francisco d. New York and Chicago Ans. (c) 22. Which of the following terminal stations connect Trans-Canadian Railway? a. Halifax and Vancouver b. New York and San Francisco c. Halifax and Montreal d. Callegory and Vancouver Ans. (a) 23. The journey time from London to Istanbul has reduced a lot as compared to sea route due to which of the following railway line? a. Trans-Siberian Railway b. Orient Express c. The Union and Pacific Railway d. None of the above Ans. (b) 24. Due to which of the following reason, water transport is more advantageous? a. It is much cheaper because the friction of water is far less than that of land b. It does not require route construction c. The oceans are linked with each other and are negotiable with ships of various sizes d. All of the above Ans. (d) 25. The busiest sea route also known as the Big Trunk Route is which among the following? a. The Mediterranean-Indian Ocean sea route b. The North Atlantic sea route c. The Cape of Good Hope sea route d. The South Atlantic sea route Ans. (b) 26. Which of the following factor is responsible for the low traffic on the south Atlantic sea route as compared to the South Atlantic Ocean sea route? a. Low population and limited development in South America and Africa b. Production of same commodities and availability of same resources as well in South America and Africa c. Low level of technology d. Both (a) and (b) Ans. (d) 27. Which of the following sea route serves more countries and people than any other route? a. The Mediterranean-Indian Ocean sea route b. The Northern Atlantic sea route c. The North Pacific sea route d. The South Pacific sea route Ans. (a) 28. Which of the following is an important port located on the South Pacific sea route? a. Singapore b. Honolulu c. Hong Kong d. Shanghai Ans. (b) 29. Match the Column I with Column II and choose the correct option with the help of given Codes COLUMN I COLUMN II I Suez Canal Russia II Panama Canal Dusseldorf Port III Rhine waterway United States of America IV Volga waterway A sea level canal without locks CODES I II III IV a. 1 2 3 4 b. 3 2 1 4 c. 4 3 2 1 d4213 Ans. (c) 30. Which of the following transport system is only medium to reach inaccessible areas? a. Road transport b. Rail transport c. water transport d. Air transport Ans. (d) 31. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer from the given options. 1. In the Himalayan region, the routes are often obstructed due to landslides, avalanches, or Heavy snowfall. 2. Air travel is the only alternative to reach such places. Options a. Only statement 1 is correct b. Only statement 2 is correct c. Both 1 and 2 are correct d. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect Ans. (c) 32. Which of the following region used most of the airways of the world? a. United States of America b. Western Europe c. Asian region of Russia d. South-East Asia Ans. (a) 33. Which of the following regions lack air services? a. Africa b. Asiatic part of Russia c. South America d. All of the above Ans. (d) 34. Which of the following is important in terms of rural connectivity due to satellite Communication? a. Internet b. Cell phone c. telephone d. Telegraph Ans. (b) 35. Which of the following medium of communication is still used mainly? a. Telephone b. Mobiles c. Sending letters d. Telegraph Ans. (a) 36. In which of the following country, most of the internet users are found? a. United States of America b. Great Britain c. Germany d. All of the above Ans. (d) 37. Which of the satellite launched recently successfully by ISRO and given a new way in space technology in India ? a. Aryabhatta 2 b. Chandrayan 1 c. Chandrayan 2 d. Bhaskara 1 Ans. (c) 38. Which of the following mean of transport is helpful during natural calamities? a. Air transport b. Road transport c. Rope way d. Railway Ans. (a) L-9 THE INTERNATIONAL TRADE 1. Which of the following point clearly depict the meaning of Trade? a. Exchange of commodities b. Voluntary exchange of commodities and services c. Commutation of commodities and services d. Forceful job done by traders imposed by government Ans. (b) 2. Which of the following factor is responsible for the establishment of trade relations among the different nations? a. For the commodities those they cannot produce by themselves b. For the commodities those they can buy comparatively at cheaper rates c. Both (a) and (b) are correct d. Both (a) and (b) are incorrect Ans. (c) 3. Barter system is still alive in which of the following fair in India? a. Jonbeel Fair b. Kumbha fair c.Pushkar fair d. Nauchandi Fair Ans. (a) 4. Which of the following is an example of modern metal currency? a. Silver coin b. Obisidian c. Gold coin d. Coin of 10 Ans. (d) 5. Silk route, that is the primitive example of long route connect which of the following Countries? a. China and Italy b. China and Rome b. China and Central Asia d. China and Greece Ans. (b) 5. Which of the following factor was responsible for flourishing trade between Europe and Asia In the 12 and 13 Century? a. Disintegration of Roman empire b. Development of large navigational ships c. Favourable climate d. Both (a) and (b) Ans. (d) 7. Which of the following trade came into existence in 15 Century AD with the beginning of European imperialism? a. Slave Trade b. Silk trade c. Trade of raw material only d. Trade of finished products Ans. (a) 8. On which of the following factors international trade depend? a. Variation in human resource b. Specialisation in production c. Availability of mineral resources d. All of the above Ans. (b) 9. Which of the following factor is most required for participating in international trade by a nation? a. Efficient transport and communication system b. Production of various commodities c. Well developed network of industries d. Educated human resources Ans. (a) 10. Which of the following factor creates diversity among the national resources? a. Physical configuration b. Relief and soil c. Variations found in climate d. All of the above Ans. (d) 11. Which of the following pair is not matched correctly? COUNTRY PRODUCED a. China Porcelain and Brocade b. Iran Software technology c. Northern America Leather work d. Indonesia Batik clothes Ans. (b) 12. Consider and evaluate the following statements and choose the correct answer with the help of given options. I. Densely populated countries have large volume of internal trade but little external trade II. Most of the agricultural and industrial production of these countries consumed in thelocal Market due to large size of population. Options a. Only statement II is correct b. Both the statements I and II are correct but statement II does not explain statement I correctly c. Both the statements are true and statement II correctly explains statement I d. Both the statements are incorrect Ans. (c) 13. Which of the following are the chief characteristics of an industrialised nation in terms of trade? a. They export mainly machinery and finished products b. They exchanged agro products for manufactured goods from the agriculturally important countries c. They import food grains and other raw materials d. Only (a) and (b) Ans. (d) 14. Which of the following commodities was not traded for a long distance due to inefficient mode of transport during ancient times? a. Gems b. Silk c. Grains d. Spices Ans. (c) 15. Which of the following points correctly depict the volume of trade ? a. The total value of the goods and services traded b. The total tonnage of traded commodities c. It is the form of values of services that are traded d. None of the above Ans.(a) 16. Which of the following changes are reflected in the pattern of international trade? a. Contribution of Europe is decreasing b. Contribution of Asian countries is increasing c. Australia is emerging as a pioneer continent in terms of international trade d. Only (a) and (b) Ans. (d) 17. Which of the following statements is true in reference to trade balance? a. If import value exceeds export value than trade balance of a country is negative or unfavourable b. If export value is comparatively more than import value than countries balance of trade will be observed as favourable or positive c. Negative balance of trade would ultimately lead to exhaustion of its financial reserves d. All of the above Ans. (d) 18. Which of the following countries has lost the status of Most favoured nation by India Recently? a. Pakistan b. China c.Great Britain d. United States of America Ans. (a) 19. Which of the following points clearly explains the status of Free trade ? a. Bringing down trade barriers like tariffs b. Trade liberalisation allows goods and services from everywhere to compete with domestic products and services c. Let free trade to be limited to developed countries only d. Only (a) and (b) Ans. (d) 20. To fulfil which of the following aim, the General Agreement on Trade and Tariff was transformed in to World Trade Organisation (WTO)? a. For the promotion of free and fair trade amongst nation b. To increase more trade and commerce for the developed countries c. To create competitive feelings amongst developed and developing countries d. All of the above Ans. (a) 21. In which of the following year the General Agreement on Trade and Tariff was transformed in WTO? a. June 1995 b. January 1995 c. January 1996 d. December 1995 Ans. (b) 22. Which of the following issue is concerned with World Trade Organisation (WTO)? a. Sets the rules for global trading and resolves disputes between its member nation b. It covers trade in services such as telecommunication and services c. It also covers trade in other issues such as intellectual rights d. All of the above Ans. (d) 23. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option from the given options I. The WTO however been criticised and opposed by those who are worried about the effects of Free trade and economic globalization II. Free trade does not make ordinary people s lives more prosperous Options a. Only statement I is correct b. Both the statements are true and statement II correctly presents the reason for statement c. Only Statement II is correct d. Both the statements I and II are incorrect Ans. (b) 24. Which of the following aims encouraged the Regional Trade Blocs to come into existence? a. To encourage trade between the countries with geographical proximity, similarity and complementarities in trading items b. To curb restrictions on trade of the developing world c. To speed up intra regional trade d. All of the above Ans. (d) 25. Consider the following and choose the correct answer with the help of given odes REGIONAL BLOCS HEADQUARTERS I. ASEAN 1. Minsk, Belarus II. C.I.S. 2. Brussels, Belgium III. E. U. (European Union) 3. Jakarta, Indonesia IV. OPEC 4. Vienna Codes I II III IV a. 1 2 3 4 b. 4 3 2 1 c. 3 2 1 4 d. 1 4 3 2 Ans. (c) 26. Which of the following criterion is observed to judged the importance of a port a. The size of cargo and the number of ships handled b. The size of port and its form c. Maintenance and facilities of port d. All of the above Ans. (a) 27. Consider the following and choose the correct answer with the help of given options. PORT UTILITY I. Industrial Ports 1. Ports of strategic importance II. Commercial Ports 2. Located away from the sea coast III. Comprehensive Ports 3. Handle manufactured good IV. Inland Ports 4. Handle bulk and general cargo in large volume V. Naval Ports 5. Specialise in bulk cargo VI. Packet Station 6. Transportation of passengers and mail across water bodies covering short distances Codes I II III IV V VI a. 1 2 3 4 5 6 b. 5 3 4 2 1 6 c. 6 4 3 2 1 5 d. 4 5 3 2 1 6 Ans. (b) 28. Which of the following ports is the main entrecote port for Asia? a. Singapore b. Colombo c. Mumbai d. Colon Ans. (a) 29. Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly? COUNTRY S NAME OIL PORT a. Venezuela Maracaibo b. Tunisia Esskhira c. Lebanon Tripoli d. India Visakhapatnam Ans. (d) 30. Which of the following poses a good example of a naval port? a. English Channel b. Karwar c. Roterdom d. Honolulu Ans. (b) L-10 HUMAN SETTLEMENTS 1. Which of the following points reflects the importance of the study of human settlements In human geography? a. It denotes the ratio of the number of people living in an area and the availability of land b. The form of settlement in any particular region reflects human relationship with the Environment c. Human settlement continuously remain in progress with the time and place d. All of the above Ans. (a) 2. Which of the following factor plays an important role to make distinction between rural and urban settlements ? a. Size of population b. Most of the people involved in agricultural activities c. In urban places , most of the peoples indulge in secondary and tertiary activities d. All of the above Ans. (c) 3. In which of the following country, petrol pumps are considered as a lower order function? a. United States of America b. India c. China d. Venezuela Ans. (a) 4. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer from the given options. I. Houses are spaced far apart and often interspersed with fields II. A cultural feature such as a place of worship or a market, binds the settlement together a. Only II is correct b. Both I and II are correct and related with each other also c. Only I is correct d. Both I and II are incorrect Ans. (b) 5. Which of the following occupation is mainly concerned with the rural settlement ? a. Agriculture b. Livestock rearing c. Catching fish d. All of the above Ans. (d) 6. Which of the following factor affect the inhabitation of rural settlement? a. Water supply b. Availability of fertile land for agriculture c. Building material d. All of the above Ans. (d) 7. Which of the following places are considered as dry points ? a. River terraces and levees b. Low lying areas of river banks c. Islands surrounded by swamps d. None of the above Ans. (a) 8. How do the inhabitants of Loess region in China build their houses? a. By uncooked bricks b. In caves c. With the twigs and branches of trees d. With sand Ans. (b) 9. In which of the following countries, Isenberg provides a better location for settlements in terms of security ? a. Zimbabwe b. China c. Nigeria d. Egypt Ans. (c) 10. Which of the following possessed a good example of human inhabitation that is provided By government on acquired lands? a. The scheme of villagisation in Ethiopia b. Canal colonies in Indira Gandhi canal command area c. Development of settlements in Noida and Gurgaon d. Only (a) and (b) Ans. (d) 11. Which of the following factor affects the shape and size of the village? a. Site of the village b. The surrounding topography c. Terrain d. All the above Ans. (d) 12. Consider the following and choose the correct answer with the help of given codes. TYPES OF SETTLEMENTS LOCATION I. On the basis of setting 1. On both sides of the river where there is a bridge or ferry II. Linear pattern 2. Agricultural village III. Rectangular pattern 3. Edge of a valley or along a levee IV. On the basis of function 4. In wide inter mountain valleys V. Double village 5. Desert villages Codes I II III IV V a. 5 3 4 2 1 b. 1 2 3 4 5 c. 5 4 3 2 1 d. 2 1 3 5 4 Ans. (a) 13. On the basis of shape Y shape settlements are found in which of the following places? a. On crossroads b. Where two roads converge on the third one c. On the edge of those roads that cut each other on right angles d. Where many roads converge Ans. (b) 14. By which of the following problem the villages of South Asia generally confronts a. Lack of facilities due to high density b. Political instability c. Very often occurrence of floods and droughts d. Fear of wild animals Ans. (c) 15. Which of the following problems are very often found in the villages of developing countries? a. Inadequate supply of water b. Water borne diseases such as cholera and jaundice tend to be common problem c. The general absence of toilet and garbage disposal facilities d. All of the above Ans. (d) 16. Which of the following is the main problem usually confronted by the rural areas? a. Unmetalled road and lack of modern means of communication b. Inadequate material for constructing houses c. Lack of fertile land for agriculture d. All of the above Ans. (a) 17. The first urban settlement to reach a population of one million was the city of----------. a. Paris b. London c. Mumbai d. Shanghai Ans. (b) 18. Which of the following criterion is taken into consideration by most of the countries to mark an urban place? a. Size of population b. Location c .Occupational structure d. Administrative set up Ans. (a) 19. Which of the following pair is not matched correctly ? COUNTRY LOWER LIMIT OF POPULATION FOR URBAN AREA a. United States of America 2500 b. India 10,000 c. Japan 30,000 d. Argentina 2000 Ans. (b) 20. Which of the following criteria is taken into consideration to define urban population in India? a. Minimum population 5000 b. Density of 400 persons per sq km c. More share of non- agricultural workers d. All of the above Ans. (d) 21. On the basis of the economic activity, which settlement is considered as urban settlement in Italy? a. If more than 50% of its economically productive population is engaged in non agricultural Pursuit b. If 75% of its economically productive population is engaged in non agricultural Pursuit c. If 85% of its economically productive population is engaged in non agricultural Pursuit d. If 65% of its economically productive population is engaged in non agricultural Pursuit Ans. (a) 22. Which of the following pair is not matched correctly CITIES FUNCTION a. Sheffield - Industrial town b. London - Port town c. Chandigarh - Administrative town d. Chennai - Fishing town Ans. (d) 23. Which of the following town is classified as an administrative town? a. Delhi b. Addis Ababa c. Washington DC d. All of the above Ans. (d) 24. Consider the following and choose the correct answer with the help of given codes. TOWNS CLASSIFICATION I. Kansas 1. Cultural town II. Frankfurt 2. Agricultural-market town III. Manchester 3. Transport town IV. Baghdad 4. Large inland centres V. Jerusalem 5. Financial centres Codes I II III IV V a. 1 2 3 4 5 b. 5 4 3 2 1 c. 2 5 4 3 1 d. 1 3 2 5 4 Ans. (c) 25. Which of the following town is classified as a planned town? a. Canberra b. Kolkata c. Allahabad d. Tehran Ans. (a) 26. A mega city or megalopolis is a general term for cities together with their suburbs with a population of more than 10 million people. Which of the following city was the first to attain the status of a mega city ? a. London b. Mumbai c . New York d. Shanghai Ans. (c) 27. Which of the following scholar first used the term Megalopolis (great city a. Jean Gottman b. Luetens c. Pattrick Geddis d. Levis Mumford Ans. (a) 28. Which of the following pair is not matched correctly? CITY TERMINOLOGY SCHOLARS a. City - Levis Mumford b. Conurbation - Pattrick Geddis c. Million city - Luetens d. Megalopolis - Jean Gottman Ans. (c) 29. Which of the following problem is associated with the urban settlements of developing Countries ? a. Heavy pressure of population b. Congested and squatter houses and narrow streets c. Lack of potable water d. All of the above Ans. (d) 30. Which of the following factor is responsible to create heat island in cities ? a. Very large population b. Huge concrete structures erected to accommodate the population c. The domestic and industrial waste dumped without treatment at unspecified locations d. All of the above Ans. (b) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:CLASS-XII GEOGRAPHY : L-1 POPULATION DISTRIBUTION, DENSITY, GROWTH AND COMPOSITION 1. Consider and evaluate the following statements and choose the correct answer from the given options. I India s Population is larger than the total population of North America, South America and Australia put together. II Such a large population invariably puts pressure on its limited resources and is also responsible for many socio-economic problems in the country. Options a. Both the statements are correct b. Both the statements are correct and statement II gives correct logic for statementI c. Both the statements are correct but not related with each other d. Both the statements are incorrect Ans. (b) 2. Which of the following states are having highest population in India? a. Bihar b. West Bengal c .Odisha d. Uttar Pradesh Ans. (d) 3. Which of the following options present the correct chronological order of states according to their population? a. Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal b. Bihar, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra c. Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar, Maharashtra d. Bihar, West Bengal, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh Ans. (a) 4. Which of the following factors mainly determine the pattern of population distribution? a. Physical setting b. Availability of water b. Climate d. All of the above Ans. (d) 5. Consider the following statements and explain the cause and effect relationship between these two by choosing correct answer from the given options I. The areas which were previously very thinly populated have now become the regions of Medium to high concentration of population II. Development of irrigation, availability of minerals and energy resources and the development of network of transport is mainly responsible for it Options a. Only statement I is true b. Only statement II is true c. Both the statements are correct and the statement II correctly explains the statement I d. Above both the statements are incorrect Ans. (c) 6. Which of the following regions always remain the areas of high concentration of Population? a. North-western state b. River plains and coastal region c. Low lying areas of Himalayas d. Hilly regions having tourism potential Ans. (b) 7. Which of the following factor is responsible for the rural-urban migration in large number In Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Bengaluru, Pune, Ahmedabad, Chennai and Jaipur? a. Availability of good quality of water b. Availability of well reputed college and universities c. Industrial development and urbanization d. Bright history Ans. (c) 8. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer from the given options. I. The uses of natural resources like land and water in the river plains and coastal areas of India have shown the sign of degradation II. The concentration of population remains high because of an early history of human settlement and development of transport network. a. Only statement I is correct b. Both the statements I and II are correct c. Only statement II is correct d. Both the statements are incorrect Ans. (b) 9. Due to which of the following factors, it is necessary to know about the population density of a place? a. It gives us better understanding of spatial distribution of population in reference to land. b. It gives an idea of available resources in reference of needs of population c. It gives an understanding about the distribution of land per person d. It gives total number of persons Ans. (a) 10. According to the census 2011, the population density of India is---------------------. a. 388 persons/ km2 b. 398 persons/km2 c. 382 persons/km2 d. 392 persons/ km2 Ans. (c) 11. Which of the following options present correct chronological order of states in terms of Population density? a. Bihar, West Bengal, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh b. West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala c. Bihar, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala d. Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, West Bengal Ans. (a) 12. In which of the following states, highest density of population is found? a. Meghalaya b. Nagaland c. Assam d. Mizoram Ans. (c) 13. In which of the following Union Territories, density of population is low? a. Dadra and Nagar Haveli b. Puduchery c. Lakshdweep d. Andaman and Nicobar Island 14. Which of the following is the induced factor of population growth? a. Migration b. Crude birth rate c. Death rate d. All of the above 15. Consider the following and choose the correct answer with the help of given codes STAGES OF POPULATION GROWTH FEATURES I Period between 1901 to 1921 1. Period of stagnant growth II Period between 1921 to 1951 2. Phase of slow growth or stagnant growth of Population III 1951-1981 3. High but decreasing growth rate of population IV After 1981 till present 4. Period of population explosion Codes- I II III IV a. 1 2 3 4 b. 2 1 4 3 c. 4 3 2 1 d. 2 1 3 4 Ans. (b) 16. Consider the following statements, establish the cause and effect relationship and choose the correct answer from the given options I. In the post 1981, the growth rate of country s population though remained high, has started slowing down gradually. II. A downward trend of crude birth rate is held responsible for such a population growth. Options a. Only statement I is true b. Only statement II is true c. Both the statements are true and statement II presents the valid cause for statement d. Both the statement are irrelevant Ans. (c) 17. Which of the following features is not related with the phase IV of population growth in India? a. Increase in age at marriage b. Increment in standard of living c. Improvement in women s education d. Improvement in income Ans. (d) 18. Which of the following pair is not matched correctly? a. Kerala - Lowest population growth b. Migration - Induced population growth c. Andaman & Nicobar - Highest population density among all the union territories d. Phase IV of population growth - Improvement in women s education Ans. (c) 19. Consider the following and choose correct answer with the help of given codes AREAS CAUSES OF POPULATION GROWTH I Rajasthan 1. Availability of fertile land and soil II Jharkhand 2.Development of transport network III Peninsular States 3. Development of irrigation IV Northern Plains 4. Development of minerals and energy resources Codes I II III IV a. 3 4 2 1 b. 1 2 3 4 c. 4 3 2 1 d. 3 4 1 2 Ans. (a) 20. According to census 2011, what percent of total population is living in rural areas? a.68.8% b. 65.8% c. &2.8% d. 78.8% 21. In which of the following states, maximum concentration of population is found? a. Maharashtra and Sikkim b. Bihar and Sikkim c. Maharashtra and Bihar d. Sikkim and Goa Ans. (b) 22. In which of the following union territories, maximum concentration of rural population found? a. Dadra and Nagar Haveli b. Daman and Diu c. Puducherry d. Lakshadweep Ans. (a) 23. Which of the following factors are responsible for the rapid growth of population in urban Areas? a. Economic development b. Improvement in health and health related facilities c. Government incentives d. Only (a) and (b) Ans. (d 24. In which of the following areas level of urbanization is slow? a. Telangana b. non irrigated areas of western states c. Flood prone areas of Peninsular India d. All of the above Ans. (d) 25. 22 languages are recognized as scheduled language in India. Which of the following Languages are mostly spoken among the scheduled languages? a. Hindi b. Urdu c. Sanskrit d. Kannad Ans. (a) 26. Which of the following languages are least spoken in India? a. Kashmiri and Urdu b. Kashmiri and Sanskrit c. Urdu and Sanskrit d. Sanskrit and Kannad Ans. (b) 27. Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly? LANGUAGE FAMILY BRANCH/CATEGORY a. Austric - Maan- Khmer b. Chinese-Tibetan - Northern Assam c. Indian European - Dardi d. Dravidian - Munda Ans. (a) 28. Which of the following is the smallest religious group of India? a. Jain and Muslim b. Buddhist and Christian

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