Trending ▼   ResFinder  

GATE 2016 : Textile Engineering and Fibre Science

12 pages, 65 questions, 38 questions with responses, 39 total responses,    0    0
gate
   		+Fave Message
ProfileTimelineUploadsQ & A
 Home > gate >

Formatting page ...

GATE 2016 General Aptitude GA Set-8 Q. 1 Q. 5 carry one mark each. Q.1 The chairman requested the aggrieved shareholders to _________________ him. (A) bare with Q.2 (C) bear with (D) bare Identify the correct spelling out of the given options: (A) Managable Q.3 (B) bore with (B) Manageable (C) Mangaeble (D) Managible (C) 43 (D) 53 Pick the odd one out in the following: 13, 23, 33, 43, 53 (A) 23 Q.4 (B) 33 R2D2 is a robot. R2D2 can repair aeroplanes. No other robot can repair aeroplanes. Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above statements? (A) R2D2 is a robot which can only repair aeroplanes. (B) R2D2 is the only robot which can repair aeroplanes. (C) R2D2 is a robot which can repair only aeroplanes. (D) Only R2D2 is a robot. Q.5 If |9y 6| =3, then y2 4y/3 is (A) 0 (B) +1/3 . (C) 1/3 (D) undefined 1/3 GATE 2016 General Aptitude GA Set-8 Q. 6 Q. 10 carry two marks each. Q.6 The following graph represents the installed capacity for cement production (in tonnes) and the actual production (in tonnes) of nine cement plants of a cement company. Capacity utilization of a plant is defined as ratio of actual production of cement to installed capacity. A plant with installed capacity of at least 200 tonnes is called a large plant and a plant with lesser capacity is called a small plant. The difference between total production of large plants and small plants, in tonnes is ____. Q.7 A poll of students appearing for masters in engineering indicated that 60 % of the students believed that mechanical engineering is a profession unsuitable for women. A research study on women with masters or higher degrees in mechanical engineering found that 99 % of such women were successful in their professions. Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above paragraph? (A) Many students have misconceptions regarding various engineering disciplines. (B) Men with advanced degrees in mechanical engineering believe women are well suited to be mechanical engineers. (C) Mechanical engineering is a profession well suited for women with masters or higher degrees in mechanical engineering. (D) The number of women pursuing higher degrees in mechanical engineering is small. 2/3 GATE 2016 Q.8 General Aptitude GA Set-8 Sourya committee had proposed the establishment of Sourya Institutes of Technology (SITs) in line with Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) to cater to the technological and industrial needs of a developing country. Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above sentence? Based on the proposal, (i) In the initial years, SIT students will get degrees from IIT. (ii) SITs will have a distinct national objective. (iii) SIT like institutions can only be established in consultation with IIT. (iv) SITs will serve technological needs of a developing country. (A) (iii) and (iv) only. (C) (ii) and (iv) only. Q.9 (B) (i) and (iv) only. (D) (ii) and (iii) only. Shaquille O Neal is a 60% career free throw shooter, meaning that he successfully makes 60 free throws out of 100 attempts on average. What is the probability that he will successfully make exactly 6 free throws in 10 attempts? (A) 0.2508 Q.10 (B) 0.2816 (C) 0.2934 (D) 0.6000 The numeral in the units position of 211870 + 146127 3424 is _____. END OF THE QUESTION PAPER 3/3 GATE 2016 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each. Q.1 (A) Elliptic Q.2 (B) Parabolic (C) Hyperbolic (D) Mixed type Which of the following is a multi-step numerical method for solving the ordinary differential equation? (A) Euler method (C) Runge-Kutta method Q.3 is of the type The following partial differential equation Let (B) Improved Euler method (D) Adams-Multon method be a normally distributed random variable with mean 2 and variance 4. Then, the mean of is equal to ___________ Q.4 Let (A) Q.5 (B) is equal to (C) (D) 2 Which of the following amino acids is responsible for relatively higher wet strength in wool fiber? (A) Threonine Q.6 . The determinant of (B) Serine (C) Cystine (D) Tryosine Which one of the following stereo structures of polypropylene is (are) used for commercial fibre manufacture? (A) Atactic (B) Syndiotactic (C) Isotactic & Syndiotactic (D) Isotactic Q.7 Acrylic fibre has high glass transition temperature ( Tg 100oC) primarily due to (A) Presence of polar side groups (B) Presence of bulky side groups (C) High crystallinity (D) Main chain stiffness Q.8 In which of the following polymerization methods the rate of reaction is very high and leads to uncontrolled polymerization ? (A) Solution polymerization (B) Suspension polymerization (C) Bulk polymerization (D) Emulsion polymerization Q.9 Which of the following textile strands is the finest? (A) 30s Ne Q.10 (B) 30 denier (D) 30s Nm In a carding machine, in which of the following zones the fibre alignment is negatively affected to the maximum extent? (A) Cylinder to flats carding region (C) Cylinder to doffer transfer region TF (C) 30 tex (B) Licker-in to cylinder transfer region (D) Doffer to calendar roller region 1/7 GATE 2016 Q.11 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science Which of the following is the correct sequence of events which happen in a roller drafting zone? (A) Fibre elongation-fibre decrimping- fibre sliding (B) Fibre sliding-fibre elongation-fibre decrimping (C) Fibre decrimping- fibre sliding- fibre elongation (D) Fibre decrimping- fibre elongation- fibre sliding Q.12 In which region of ring spinning, Coriolis force acts? (A) Lappet to ring cop (B) Delivery pair of drafting rollers to lappet (C) Back pair of drafting rollers to delivery pair of drafting rollers (D) Feed bobbin to back pair of drafting rollers Q.13 Which of the following shuttleless weaving systems can offer maximum fabric width ? (A) Air jet Q.14 (B) Water jet (C) Projectile (D) Rapier The filling yarn density at selvage is doubled in case of (A) Fringe selvage (B) Tucked-in selvage (C) Shuttle selvage (D) Leno selvage Q.15 Which of the following shedding mechanisms provides control of individual warp thread during weaving ? (A) Crank (B) Tappet (C) Dobby (D) Jacquard Q.16 The time required (minutes) to wind 10 kg of 40 tex yarn when the winding machine works at 1000 m/min with an efficiency of 90% is ____________ Q.17 The test statistic to be used for carrying out a test of hypothesis on the mean of a normal distribution with unknown variance is (A) Z Q.18 (B) T (C) 2 (D) F If the length of a confidence interval on the mean of a normal distribution with known variance is to be halved, the sample size must (A) increase by 2 times (B) decrease by 2 times (C) increase by 4 times (D) decrease by 4 times TF 2/7 GATE 2016 Q.19 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science A comb sorter diagram of cotton fibres is shown below: Y A' B' C' M D' N O C A B D X where OM=0.5 OY, OA=0.25 OC, AN=0.5 AA', and OB=0.25 OD. The effective length is (A) AA' (B) BB' (C) CC' (D) DD' Q.20 A fabric specimen of original length 75 mm is stretched to a length of 120 mm and after removal of the load the length reduces to 95 mm. The elastic recovery (%) of the fabric specimen is ________ Q.21 A sector-shaped, falling-pendulum type apparatus is suitable for measurement of (A) Elmendorf tear strength (B) Tongue tear strength (C) Trapezoidal tear strength (D) All of them Q.22 Sodium persulphate is used in (A) Bleaching Q.23 (B) Scouring (C) Mercerization (D) Desizing Polyester is dyed with a disperse dye at 100 oC and 120oC till equilibrium is achieved. If D[f] and D[s] represent the dye in fibre and dye in solution respectively, then the correct choice for the dyeing isotherms at the two temperature will be (B) (A) 100oC D [f] 120oC 100oC D [f] 120oC D [s] D [s] (D) (C) D [s] TF 120oC D [f] 100oC 120oC D [f] 100oC D [s] 3/7 GATE 2016 Q.24 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science A dye with dischargeability rating of 1 (one) WILL NOT be suitable for (A) Resist printing (C) Discharge printing Q.25 (B) Direct printing (D) Melt transfer printing The enzyme used for biopolishing of cotton is (A) Cellulase (B) Pectinase (C) Amylase (D) Lipase Q. 26 Q. 55 carry two marks each. Q.26 are The eigen values and eigen vectors of (A) and , respectively. (B) and , respectively. (C) and , respectively. (D) and , respectively. Q.27 Let Q.28 Let . The value of is equal to _________ be a continuous type random variable with probability density function . When Q.29 The integrating factor of (A) Q.30 sin sin sin is equal to _____________ is (C) The Fourier series of periodic function by sin to_________ Q.31 (B) cos , the value of (D) and . Then, the value of is given is equal Match the fibers listed in Column A with the compounds used in its manufacture listed in Column B. Choose the right answer from options A, B, C and D. Column A P. Polypropylene Q. Polyethylene Terephthalate R. Nylon 6 S. Viscose 1. Carbon disulfide 2. Water 3. Ziegler Natta catalyst 4. Antimony trioxide & Antimony triacetate (A) P-4,Q-1,R-2,S-3 (C) P-3,Q-4,R-1,S-2 TF Column B (B) P-3,Q-4,R-2,S-1 (D) P-2,Q-1,R-3,S-4 4/7 GATE 2016 Q.32 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science Consider the following assertion [a] and reason [r] and choose the correct alternative from amongst A, B, C and D. [a] Both polyester and nylon filaments can be drawn at room temperature to achieve higher strength, modulus and dimensional stability. [r] Tg of both polyester and nylon can be lowered to room temperature on absorption of atmospheric moisture. (A) (B) (C) (D) Q.33 [a] is right and [r] is wrong [a] is right and [r] is right [a] is wrong and [r] is wrong [a] is wrong and [r] is right Low pill PET fibres of a given denier can be produced by a combination of any two options listed below. Choose the right combination from A, B, C and D. P. Lowering the IV (intrinsic viscosity) of the polymer Q. Increasing the IV (intrinsic viscosity) of the polymer R. Increasing the draw ratio S. Decreasing the draw ratio (A) P,S Q.34 (B) P,R (C) Q,S (D) Q,R Which of the following combination of statements from options A, B, C and D is correct ? 1. X-ray Diffraction gives information about crystallinity and crystal size in semicrystalline polymers. 2. Differential Scanning Calorimetery gives information about Tg, Tm and Tc as well as enthalpy of melting and crystallization. 3. In Scanning Electron Microscopy the sample has to be coated with silver to make it conducting. 4. Birefringence is a measure of molecular orientation in amorphous phase only. (A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (C) 2, 3 and 4 are correct Q.35 (B) 1, 3 and 4 are correct (D) All are correct Match the fibre in Column A with the spinning technique used to manufacture in Column B. Choose the correct alternative from options A, B, C and D. Column A Column B P. Rayon Q. Aramid ( Kevlar) R. Ultra High Molecular weight Polyethylene S. Polyester 1. 2. 3. 4. (A) P-3,Q-1,R-2,S-4 (C) P-4,Q-2,R-1,S-3 Dry-jet-wet spinning Gel Spinning Melt spinning Wet Spinning (B) P-1,Q-3,R-4,S-2 (D) P-4,Q-1,R-2,S-3 Q.36 If 50 bales of 5 g/inch, 20 bales of 3.5 g/inch and 40 bales of 3.0 g/inch cotton fibres are mixed, the resultant g/inch of the mixed cotton is __________ Q.37 A rotor with 48 mm diameter running at 90,000 rpm is producing yarn at 140 m/min. The number of doublings of fibre layers in the rotor is _________ TF 5/7 GATE 2016 Q.38 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science Consider the following assertion [a] and reason [r] and choose the correct alternative from amongst A, B, C and D. [a] Compared to ring spun yarns, rotor spun yarns have better evenness for the same yarn count. [r] Rotor spun yarns have more number of fibres in the yarn cross section compared to ring spun yarns of same count. (A) [a] is right and [r] is wrong (B) [a] is right and [r] is right (C) [a] is wrong and [r] is wrong (D) [a] is wrong and [r] is right Q.39 The final yarn count required from a ring frame is 36s Ne with 28 TPI. The twist contraction during spinning is 3%. If the feed roving count is 2s Ne, the mechanical draft required in the ring frame will be _________ Q.40 The diameter (mm) of a cotton yarn of 50 tex count and 0.45 packing density, assuming cotton fibre density to be 1.54 g/cm3, is ___________ Q.41 In needle punching process, higher punch density CAN NOT cause (A) Lower web thickness (B) Higher change of fabric dimensions (C) Higher damage of fibres (D) Higher permeability of fabric Q.42 Which of the following features IS NOT found in a crepe weave (A) Highly irregular surface-puckered in appearance (B) Prominent twill effect on the fabric (C) Minute spots or seeds spread over the fabric (D) High twist yarn with controlled shrinkage Q.43 The crimp% of a square cloth in which thread spacing is equal to the yarn diameter and no jamming takes place, will be ___________ Q.44 A 38 cm diameter circular knitting machine accommodates 4 needles per cm. The stitch length is 6 mm and wale constant can be assumed to be 42.2. The flat fabric width (cm) in finished - relaxed form is ___________ Q.45 The least desired feature of fibre in wet laid nonwoven fabric is (A) High affinity for water (C) High flexural rigidity (B) Low aspect ratio (D) Low crimpiness Q.46 The surface area per unit volume (mm-1) of a circular polyester fibre of 1.5 denier fineness and 1.38 g/cm3 density, ignoring the fibre ends, is ____________ Q.47 The fibre packing density in a cotton bale of 170 kg weight and dimensions 1060 mm (L) 530 mm (W) 780 mm (H), assuming cotton fibre density to be 1.54 g/cm3, is __________ Q.48 A cotton yarn with 5% breaking elongation needs to be tested for breaking strength in a tensile tester at 500 mm gauge length. The clamp speed (mm/min) required to break the specimen in 20 s is _________ TF 6/7 GATE 2016 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science Q.49 The rotational speed of a card cylinder with locally damaged card clothing is 400 rpm and the sliver delivery rate is 100 m/min. The wavelength (m) of the periodic mass variation in the card sliver is _________ Q.50 The flexural rigidity, expressed in 10-4 mg cm, of a fabric test specimen of 100 g/m2 areal density and 0.40 mm length of overhang determined using a cantilever test with a standard angle of deflection of 41.5 , is ___________ Q.51 The volume strength of 1 molar H2O2 solution will be ___________ Q.52 Consider the following assertion [a] and reason [r] and choose the correct alternative from amongst A, B, C and D. [a] In dyeing of polyester with disperse dyes, it is easier to obtain dark shades with solvent dyeing method than with aqueous dyeing method. [r] The partition coefficient (D[f]/D[s]) of disperse dyes is much lower in aqueous medium than in a solvent. (A) [a] is right and [r] is wrong (B) [a] is right and [r] is right (C) [a] is wrong and [r] is wrong (D) [a] is wrong and [r] is right Q.53 A reactive dye is applied on cotton fabric by continuous method. The achieved shade on fabric is 2% on the weight of fabric. The dyebath concentration is 25 gram per litre and the % expression after padding is 100. The specific gravity of the solution is 1. The fixation % of the dye on the fabric is __________________________ Q.54 Consider the following assertion [a] and reason [r] and choose the correct alternative from amongst A, B, C and D. [a] In resin finishing of cellulosic textiles, usually the curing stage is carried out in hot dry air and not in steam. [r] The acid catalyst used in resin formulation is activated in hot air only. (A) [a] is right and [r] is wrong (B) [a] is right and [r] is right (C) [a] is wrong and [r] is wrong (D) [a] is wrong and [r] is right Q.55 Match the printing processes in Column A with print paste components in Column B. Choose the correct alternative from options A, B, C and D. Column A Column B P. Pigment printing Q. Discharge printing R. Resist printing S. Sublimation transfer printing 1. 2. 3. 4. (A) P-2,Q-3,R-4,S-1 (C) P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-3 Disperse dye Binder High solids content thickener Sodium formaldehyde sulphoxylate (B) P-2,Q-4,R-3,S-1 (D) P-1,Q-4,R-3,S-2 END OF THE QUESTION PAPER TF 7/7 Q. No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 Type Section Key Marks MCQ GA C 1 MCQ GA B 1 MCQ GA B 1 MCQ GA B 1 MCQ GA C 1 NAT GA 120 : 120 2 MCQ GA C 2 MCQ GA C 2 MCQ GA A 2 NAT GA 7.0 : 7.0 2 MCQ TF A 1 MCQ TF D 1 NAT TF -0.01 : 0.01 1 MCQ TF B 1 MCQ TF C 1 MCQ TF D 1 MCQ TF A 1 MCQ TF C 1 MCQ TF B 1 MCQ TF C 1 MCQ TF D 1 MCQ TF A 1 MCQ TF C 1 MCQ TF B 1 MCQ TF D 1 NAT TF 275 : 280 1 MCQ TF B 1 MCQ TF C 1 MCQ TF B 1 NAT TF 55 : 56 1 MCQ TF A 1 MCQ TF D 1 MCQ TF B 1 MCQ TF C 1 MCQ TF A 1 MCQ TF A 2 NAT TF -0.01 : 0.01 2 NAT TF 1.99 : 2.01 2 MCQ TF B 2 NAT TF 0.99 : 1.01 2 MCQ TF B 2 MCQ TF C 2 MCQ TF A 2 MCQ TF A 2 MCQ TF D 2 NAT TF 3.70 : 3.85 2 NAT TF 96.85 : 97.05 2 MCQ TF A 2 NAT TF 18.40 : 18.65 2 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 NAT MCQ MCQ NAT NAT MCQ NAT NAT NAT NAT NAT NAT MCQ NAT MCQ MCQ TF TF TF TF TF TF TF TF TF TF TF TF TF TF TF TF 0.29 : 0.31 D B 56 : 57 67 : 68 C 322 : 323 0.24 : 0.26 74.90 : 75.10 0.24 : 0.26 0.79 : 0.85 11.00 : 11.40 C 79.90 : 80.10 A B 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Top Contributors
to this ResPaper
(answers/comments)


Champak Saikia
(34)

Sameer Ansari
(3)

Sooraj Koolappan
(2)

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

 

  Print intermediate debugging step

Show debugging info


 


Tags : India, GATE Exam Question Papers, Free Online Solutions, Answers, Answer Key, Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering, IIT, IISc, GATE Exam Syllabus, GATE Study Material, GATE Exam Pattern, gate exam papers, gate question papers 2016, 2015, 2014, 2013, 2012, 2011, 2010, 2009, 2008, 2007, 2006, 2005, 2004, 2003, 2002, 2001, 2000, 1999, 1998, 1997, 1996, 1995, 1994, 1993, 1992, 1991, past gate papers, gate papers with answers, gate entrance exam engineering, gate previous years papers, gate old papers, gpat.  


© 2010 - 2025 ResPaper. Terms of ServiceContact Us Advertise with us

 

gate chat