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GATE 2014 : Textile Engineering and Fibre Science

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GATE 2014 Examination TF: Textile Engineering & Fibre Science Duration: 180 minutes Maximum Marks: 100 Read the following instructions carefully. 1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination. 2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen. 3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory. The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each. The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to 25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each. 4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen. 5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse. 6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes. 7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. 8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer type. 9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble ( ) placed before the choice. 10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that appears on the monitor and the mouse. 11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong answer will result in deduction of marks for a 1-mark question and marks for a 2-mark question. 12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE. 13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination. Declaration by the candidate: I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition . GATE 2014 SET- 2 General Aptitude -GA Q. 1 Q. 5 carry one mark each. Q.1 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence. A person suffering from Alzheimer s disease (A) experienced (C) is experiencing Q.2 short-term memory loss. (B) has experienced (D) experiences Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence. (A) Contentment Q.3 (B) Ambition 20 14 ) ____________ is the key to their happiness; they are satisfied with what they have. (C) Perseverance (D) Hunger Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the sentence below? As a woman, I have no country. E (A) Women have no country. (B) Women are not citizens of any country. (C) Women s solidarity knows no national boundaries. (D) Women of all countries have equal legal rights. In any given year, the probability of an earthquake greater than Magnitude 6 occurring in the Garhwal Himalayas is 0.04. The average time between successive occurrences of such earthquakes is ____ years. Q.5 The population of a new city is 5 million and is growing at 20% annually. How many years would it take to double at this growth rate? (B) 4-5 years (C) 5-6 years (D) 6-7 years 02 (A) 3-4 years (G AT Q.4 Q. 6 Q. 10 carry two marks each. In a group of four children, Som is younger to Riaz. Shiv is elder to Ansu. Ansu is youngest in the group. Which of the following statements is/are required to find the eldest child in the group? Statements 1. Shiv is younger to Riaz. 2. Shiv is elder to Som. G A Q.6 (A) Statement 1by itself determines the eldest child. (B) Statement 2 by itself determines the eldest child. (C) Statements 1 and 2 are both required to determine the eldest child. (D) Statements 1 and 2 are not sufficient to determine the eldest child. GA 1/2 GATE 2014 Q.7 SET- 2 General Aptitude -GA Moving into a world of big data will require us to change our thinking about the merits of exactitude. To apply the conventional mindset of measurement to the digital, connected world of the twenty-first century is to miss a crucial point. As mentioned earlier, the obsession with exactness is an artefact of the information-deprived analog era. When data was sparse, every data point was critical, and thus great care was taken to avoid letting any point bias the analysis. From BIG DATA Viktor Mayer-Schonberger and Kenneth Cukier The main point of the paragraph is: Q.8 20 14 ) (A) The twenty-first century is a digital world (B) Big data is obsessed with exactness (C) Exactitude is not critical in dealing with big data (D) Sparse data leads to a bias in the analysis The total exports and revenues from the exports of a country are given in the two pie charts below. The pie chart for exports shows the quantity of each item as a percentage of the total quantity of exports. The pie chart for the revenues shows the percentage of the total revenue generated through export of each item. The total quantity of exports of all the items is 5 lakh tonnes and the total revenues are 250 crore rupees. What is the ratio of the revenue generated through export of Item 1 per kilogram to the revenue generated through export of Item 4 per kilogram? Exports Item 5 12% (A) 1:2 E Item 3 19% (B) 2:1 Item 6 19% Item 1 12% Item 2 20% Item 5 20% Item 4 6% (C) 1:4 Item 3 23% (D) 4:1 A X is 1 km northeast of Y. Y is 1 km southeast of Z. W is 1 km west of Z. P is 1 km south of W. Q is 1 km east of P. What is the distance between X and Q in km? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 2 10% of the population in a town is HIV+. A new diagnostic kit for HIV detection is available; this kit correctly identifies HIV+ individuals 95% of the time, and HIV individuals 89% of the time. A particular patient is tested using this kit and is found to be positive. The probability that the individual is actually positive is _______ G Q.10 Item 2 20% 02 Item 4 22% Q.9 Item 1 11% (G AT Item 6 16% Revenues END OF THE QUESTION PAPER GA 2/2 GATE 2014 TEXTILE TF Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each. 2 The range of values of x satisfying the inequality x 3x + 2 < 0 is (A) x < 0 (B) 10 The inverse Laplace transform of (C) 20 2 s + 2 is s + 2s s + 4s + 4 2t 2t (B) 1 6 9 Medulla is associated with (A) Cotton 2t (B) Silk (C) 1 12 (D) 1 (C) Wool 18 (D) Nylon A good fibre forming polymer should NOT have AT E Q.6 (B) 1 e + 2te 2 t 2t (D) e + 2te The probability of obtaining a total of 5 in two throws of a dice is (A) 1 Q.5 (D) 40 2 (A) 1 2te 2t 2t (C) 1 2e + 2te Q.4 (D) cannot be determined A very large tank contains 10 liters of pure water. Salt solution (20 g/l) is pumped into the tank at 2 liter per minute. The salt concentration in g/l in the tank after a very long time will be (A) 5 Q.3 (C) 1 < x < 2 14 ) Q.2 (B) 0 < x < 1 20 Q.1 (A) Linear polymeric chain (B) Branched polymeric chain (C) High DP (D) High inter-molecular interaction The DP of viscose fibre is approximately (G Q.7 (A) 25000 Q.8 (B) 2500 (C) 250 (D) 25 A synthetic yarn is stretched by 5% and kept in the extended condition. With time, the registered stress will TF (A) Increase linearly (B) Decrease linearly (C) Increase exponentially (D) Decrease exponentially Q.9 In a cotton card, the wire point density on (A) Cylinder is lesser than that on flat (B) Doffer is greater than that on cylinder (C) Cylinder is greater than that on flat (D) Flat is greater than that on doffer Q.10 In a drawframe with 3 over 3 drafting system, the roller most prone to slip is (A) Middle top roller (B) Front top roller (C) Back top roller (D) Front bottom roller TF 1/7 GATE 2014 Q.11 TEXTILE TF Fibre parallelization in drawn sliver improves with (A) Increase in draft (B) Increase in doubling (C) Decrease in roller setting (D) Increase in roller pressure Q.12 The combing force increases with Q.13 14 ) (A) Decrease in mass/unit length of lap (B) Decrease in pre-combing draft (C) Decrease in needles/cm on half lap (D) Decrease in nips per minute Pirn winding is an essential preparatory process for weaving on Q.14 Double acting dobby is driven from Q.15 In air-jet loom AT E (A) Bottom shaft (B) Crank shaft (C) Tappet shaft (D) Rocking shaft 20 (A) Air-jet loom (B) Water-jet loom (C) Rapier loom (D) Drop-box loom (A) All the relay nozzles start jetting at the same time (B) Each relay nozzle has separate jetting time (C) Relay nozzles of a group start jetting at the same time (D) Main and relay nozzles have same jetting time If the diameter of a torsion rod used in projectile loom is doubled then the torque required to twist it would increase by (G Q.16 (A) 2 times Q.17 TF (B) 50 (C) 80 (D) 200 (B) Effective length (D) Modal length A 25 tex cotton yarn has a twist factor of 30. The yarn twist, in turns per cm, is (A) 4 TF (D) 16 times The fibre parameter that CANNOT be obtained from Baer sorter diagram is (A) Mean length (C) Span length Q.19 (C) 8 times In a sizing process, if add-on is 12.8% and paste concentration is 16%, the value of wet pick-up (%) would be (A) 16 Q.18 (B) 4 times (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7 2/7 GATE 2014 With an increase in gauge length, the tenacity of a spun yarn would (A) Increase (C) Remain the same Q.21 Sodium chlorite bleaching of cotton is carried out in the temperature range of (A) 95-110 oC Q.22 (B) Decrease (D) First increase and then decrease (B) 80-85 oC (C) 50-60 oC K/S ratio is related to reflectance (R) as (A) K/S = (1-R2) / 2R (C) K/S = (1-R) / 2R Q.23 (B) K/S = (1+R2) / 2R (D) K/S = (1-R)2 / 2R A print paste CANNOT be prepared without (A) Colourant (C) Dispersing agent Q.24 (B) Thickener (D) Carrier In the Limiting Oxygen Index (LOI) test, the sample is kept in 20 (A) Horizontal position and burnt from the left side (B) Inclined position and burnt from the bottom (C) Vertical position and burnt from the top (D) Vertical position and burnt from the bottom A fabric was dyed in acidic medium. If the dye could be stripped out in strong aqueous alkaline solution at room temperature, the dye-fibre combination is AT E Q.25 (D) 30-40 oC 14 ) Q.20 TEXTILE TF (A) Direct dye - Cotton (C) Vat dye - Cotton (B) Acid dye - Wool (D) Disperse dye - Polyester Q. 26 Q. 55 carry two marks each. Q.26 1 2 4 3 (G Of the two eigen values of the matrix (A) One is positive, one is negative (C) Both are negative The 51st common term of the two arithmetic sequences 15, 19, 23 ...... and 14, 19, 24 ......, is ...... TF Q.27 Q.28 The integrating factor for solving the differential equation (A) sin(x) Q.29 (B) Both are positive (D) Both form a complex conjugate (B) cos(x) dy cos( x) + y sin( x) = 2 cos3 ( x) is dx (C) tan(x) (D) sec(x) X is a continuous random variable whose probability density function is given by ( K 4 x 2 x 2 f (x ) = 0 ) for 0 < x < 2 otherwise The value of the constant K, accurate to three decimal places, is...... Q.30 2 0 e x dx is evaluated both by Trapezoidal rule and Simpson's 1 rule by taking two subintervals. 3 The difference between the results, accurate to the second decimal place, is ...... TF 3/7 GATE 2014 Q.31 TEXTILE TF Consider the following assertion [a] and reason [r] and choose the most appropriate answer. [a] The apparent blend ratio of polyester / viscose fabric would increase as a result of drying [r] The moisture content of viscose is significantly higher than that of polyester (A) [a] is right [r] is wrong (B) [a] is right [r] is right (C) [a] is wrong [r] is wrong (D) [a] is wrong [r] is right Consider the following assertion [a] and reason [r] and choose the most appropriate answer. [a] In the case of condensation polymerization of PET, diethylene glycol terephthalate (DGT) is prepared first [r] In condensation polymerization, it is important to have a correct stoichiometric balance of comonomers 14 ) Q.32 20 (A) [a] is right [r] is wrong (B) [a] is right [r] is right (C) [a] is wrong [r] is wrong (D) [a] is wrong [r] is right A polypropylene yarn, melt spun at a throughput rate of W (g/s) and winding speed of S (m/min), was drawn to a draw ratio of D. The denier of this yarn is a function of W, S, D and a constant K. The value of K, accurate to the nearest integer, is............ Q.34 Consider the following assertion [a] and reason [r] and choose the most appropriate answer. [a] Cut and crush method for tow to top conversion uses cutting roller with embedded helical blade [r] This helps to impart crimp in the cut fibres AT E Q.33 (A) [a] is right [r] is wrong (B) [a] is right [r] is right (C) [a] is wrong [r] is wrong (D) [a] is wrong [r] is right Consider the following assertion [a] and reason [r] and choose the most appropriate answer. [a] Before SEM analysis of carbon fibre, it is sputter coated with gold or silver [r] This is done because the carbon fibre is electrically insulating (G Q.35 TF (A) [a] is right [r] is wrong (B) [a] is right [r] is right (C) [a] is wrong [r] is wrong (D) [a] is wrong [r] is right Q.36 A cleaning unit in a blowroom is processing cotton at 600 kg/h. The waste generated is 2%. The lint to trash ratio is 60:40. The lint (in kg) accumulated in 8 hours, accurate to one decimal place, will be ...... Q.37 The twist contraction factor of a filament yarn is 1.06. For producing 5 ton twisted yarn of 50 tex, the untwisted yarn length required, in km, accurate to the nearest integer, is ...... Q.38 For producing a coarse count yarn from short staple trashy cotton sliver, the most suitable rotor is (A) Large diameter rotor with narrow groove (B) Large diameter rotor with wide groove (C) Small diameter rotor with narrow groove (D) Small diameter rotor with wide groove TF 4/7 GATE 2014 Consider the following figures. Choose the alternative that represents the correct relation (B) End breaks/ 100 spindle hour End breaks/ 100 spindle hour (A) Yarn strength CV % Spindle speed (rpm) AT E Traveller running time (h) 20 End breaks/ 100 spindle hour (D) End breaks/ 100 spindle hour (C) Yarn strength CV % 14 ) Q.39 TEXTILE TF Q.40 The surface helix angle of a fibre in a yarn of 0.3 mm diameter is 30 . Assuming ideal helix geometry, the helix angle (in degrees), of a fibre situated at 0.1 mm from the yarn axis, accurate to one decimal place, will be ...... Q.41 Higher value of stitch cam setting in a weft knitting machine would A shuttle loom producing 3 up 1 down twill fabric is running at 180 picks per minute. The angular velocity of the tappet (cam) shaft in radian per second, accurate to two decimal places, would be ...... TF Q.42 (G (A) Increase the loop length and decrease the fabric areal density (B) Increase the loop length and increase the fabric areal density (C) Decrease the loop length and decrease the fabric areal density (D) Decrease the loop length and increase the fabric areal density Q.43 A yarn is passing over a multiplicative tensioner with an angle of wrap of 90 . If the input yarn tension is 100 cN and coefficient of friction between yarn and tensioner is 0.2, then the output yarn tension in N, accurate to two decimal place, would be ...... Q.44 During beat-up, possibility of bumping increases if (A) Warp tension is low and cloth fell displacement is low (B) Warp tension is low and cloth fell displacement is high (C) Warp tension is high and cloth fell displacement is low (D) Warp tension is high and cloth fell displacement is high Q.45 TF A needle-punched nonwoven fabric has 2 mm thickness and 400 g/m2 areal density. If the fibre density is 0.9 g/cm3, the volume porosity (%) of the fabric, accurate to the nearest integer, will be ...... 5/7 GATE 2014 Q.46 TEXTILE TF For a square plain fabric, crimp in one set of yarns would be completely removed without jamming, if the ratio of modular length (l) to the sum of the yarn diameters (D) is (A) Between /8 and /6 (B) Between /6 and /4 (C) Between /4 and /2 (D) Greater than /2 The breaking load of a 300 mtex fibre is 110 mN. If the density of the fibre is 1.24 g/cm3, breaking stress in kN/cm2, accurate to one decimal place, will be ...... Q.48 A 60.5 tex yarn with an unevenness CV of 10% is produced from 0.5 tex polyester fibre. The index of irregularity of the yarn, accurate to one decimal place, will be ...... Q.49 The vibroscope method for determination of fibre fineness does NOT take into account In the context of Kawabata Evaluation System, match the fabric properties from Group I with the units from Group II. P Q R S Group I Tensile energy Linearity of load-elongation curve Bending rigidity Compressional resilience 1 2 3 4 AT E Q.50 (B) Natural frequency of specimen (D) Tensile strength of specimen 20 (A) Length of specimen (C) Tension in specimen 14 ) Q.47 (A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (C) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 Group II gf . cm2 / cm percentage gf . cm / cm2 dimensionless (B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (D) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2 The Barium Activity Number (BAN) was determined using the standard procedure. For this, 30 ml of 0.25N Ba(OH)2 solution was used, in each of the three titrations, i.e. (a) blank titration, (b) back titration where mercerized fabric sample was immersed and (c) back titration where unmercerized fabric sample was immersed in Ba(OH)2 solution. If the volume (ml) of 0.1N HCl consumed was 10, 1 and 4.5 respectively, the BAN of the mercerized sample, accurate to one decimal place, is ....... Q.52 Scoured and bleached cotton fabric was dyed with reactive dye under the following conditions: Temperature of dyeing: 40 oC Shade: 3% Fixation efficiency: 65% If the rate of hydrolysis of dye is known to be 5% more for every 10 oC rise in dyeing temperature, the amount of dye fixed on cotton (g of dye / kg of fibre), if dyed at 50 oC, accurate to one decimal place, would be...... Q.53 Consider the following assertion [a] and reason [r] and choose the most appropriate answer. [a] In a roller printing machine, the doctor blade is closely set over the printing roller [r] This is to remove the lint collected on the roller TF (G Q.51 (A) [a] is right, [r] is wrong (B) [a] is right, [r] is right (C) [a] is wrong, [r] is wrong (D) [a] is wrong, [r] is right TF 6/7 GATE 2014 Q.54 TEXTILE TF A cotton fabric is finished with DMDHEU. As a result, its (A) Tensile strength decreases, abrasion resistance increases, stiffness decreases (B) Tensile strength decreases, abrasion resistance decreases, stiffness decreases (C) Tensile strength decreases, abrasion resistance decreases, stiffness increases (D) Tensile strength increases, abrasion resistance increases, stiffness decreases Q.55 During burning, a flame retardant does NOT (A) Increase heat absorption (C) Increase char content (B) Reduce supply of oxygen (D) Lower glass transition temperature (Tg) TF (G AT E 20 14 ) END OF THE QUESTION PAPER TF 7/7

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