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GATE 2014 : Life Sciences

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GATE 2014 SET- 2 General Aptitude -GA Q. 1 Q. 5 carry one mark each. Q.1 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence. A person suffering from Alzheimer s disease (A) experienced (C) is experiencing Q.2 short-term memory loss. (B) has experienced (D) experiences Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence. (A) Contentment Q.3 (B) Ambition 20 14 ) ____________ is the key to their happiness; they are satisfied with what they have. (C) Perseverance (D) Hunger Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the sentence below? As a woman, I have no country. E (A) Women have no country. (B) Women are not citizens of any country. (C) Women s solidarity knows no national boundaries. (D) Women of all countries have equal legal rights. In any given year, the probability of an earthquake greater than Magnitude 6 occurring in the Garhwal Himalayas is 0.04. The average time between successive occurrences of such earthquakes is ____ years. Q.5 The population of a new city is 5 million and is growing at 20% annually. How many years would it take to double at this growth rate? (B) 4-5 years (C) 5-6 years (D) 6-7 years 02 (A) 3-4 years (G AT Q.4 Q. 6 Q. 10 carry two marks each. In a group of four children, Som is younger to Riaz. Shiv is elder to Ansu. Ansu is youngest in the group. Which of the following statements is/are required to find the eldest child in the group? Statements 1. Shiv is younger to Riaz. 2. Shiv is elder to Som. G A Q.6 (A) Statement 1by itself determines the eldest child. (B) Statement 2 by itself determines the eldest child. (C) Statements 1 and 2 are both required to determine the eldest child. (D) Statements 1 and 2 are not sufficient to determine the eldest child. GA 1/2 GATE 2014 Q.7 SET- 2 General Aptitude -GA Moving into a world of big data will require us to change our thinking about the merits of exactitude. To apply the conventional mindset of measurement to the digital, connected world of the twenty-first century is to miss a crucial point. As mentioned earlier, the obsession with exactness is an artefact of the information-deprived analog era. When data was sparse, every data point was critical, and thus great care was taken to avoid letting any point bias the analysis. From BIG DATA Viktor Mayer-Schonberger and Kenneth Cukier The main point of the paragraph is: Q.8 20 14 ) (A) The twenty-first century is a digital world (B) Big data is obsessed with exactness (C) Exactitude is not critical in dealing with big data (D) Sparse data leads to a bias in the analysis The total exports and revenues from the exports of a country are given in the two pie charts below. The pie chart for exports shows the quantity of each item as a percentage of the total quantity of exports. The pie chart for the revenues shows the percentage of the total revenue generated through export of each item. The total quantity of exports of all the items is 5 lakh tonnes and the total revenues are 250 crore rupees. What is the ratio of the revenue generated through export of Item 1 per kilogram to the revenue generated through export of Item 4 per kilogram? Exports Item 5 12% (A) 1:2 E Item 3 19% (B) 2:1 Item 6 19% Item 1 12% Item 2 20% Item 5 20% Item 4 6% (C) 1:4 Item 3 23% (D) 4:1 A X is 1 km northeast of Y. Y is 1 km southeast of Z. W is 1 km west of Z. P is 1 km south of W. Q is 1 km east of P. What is the distance between X and Q in km? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 2 10% of the population in a town is HIV+. A new diagnostic kit for HIV detection is available; this kit correctly identifies HIV+ individuals 95% of the time, and HIV individuals 89% of the time. A particular patient is tested using this kit and is found to be positive. The probability that the individual is actually positive is _______ G Q.10 Item 2 20% 02 Item 4 22% Q.9 Item 1 11% (G AT Item 6 16% Revenues END OF THE QUESTION PAPER GA 2/2 GATE 2014 CHEMISTRY (COMPULSORY) XL-H H : CHEMISTRY (COMPULSORY) Q. 1 Q. 5 carry one mark each. Q.1 + Hybridizations of nitrogen in NO+ 2 , NO3 , NH4 respectively are (A) sp, sp2 and sp3 (C) sp2, sp and sp3 Q.2 (B) sp, sp3 and sp2 (D) sp3, sp2 and sp Potassium metal crystallizes in the body-centered cubic structure. The number of atoms per unit (C) three (D) four Assuming ideal condition, the solution that has the highest freezing point is 20 Q.3 (B) two 14 (A) one ) cell is equal to (A) 0.002 M aqueous solution of copper nitrate (B) 0.001 M aqueous solution of potassium dichromate (C) 0.001 M aqueous solution of sodium chloride Q.4 AT E (D) 0.002 M aqueous solution of magnesium chloride The major product formed in the following reaction is OH Br2 (A) (G CS2, < 5 oC (B) (C) (D) OH OH Br XL Br Q.5 OH Br Br Br Br Br The acid that undergoes decarboxylation most readily upon heating is (A) (B) (C) Ph (D) O O XL-H OH COOH Ph O OH Ph OH CH2COOH Ph CH2COOH 1/3 GATE 2014 CHEMISTRY (COMPULSORY) XL-H Q. 6 Q. 15 carry two marks each. Q.6 A ball of mass 330 g is moving with a constant speed, and its associated de Broglie wavelength is 1 10 33 m. The speed of the ball is _________ m s 1. (h = 6.6 10 34 J s) Diphosphonic acid (H4P2O5) has no P P bond. This acid is Q.8 (B) tribasic (C) dibasic (D) monobasic ) (A) tetrabasic The magnetic moment of an octahedral Co(II) complex is approximately 4.0 B (atomic number of 14 Q.7 Co is 27). The CFSE for this complex, in o units, is _______ . 3+ The complex ion [Cr(H2O)6] (atomic number of Cr is 24) exhibits (A) slightly distorted octahedral geometry 20 Q.9 (B) tetragonally elongated octahedral geometry AT E (C) tetragonally compressed octahedral geometry (D) perfect octahedral geometry Q.10 Assuming ideal behavior, the density of fluorine gas at 20 C and 0.3 atm is ____ g L 1. (Molecular weight of F2 = 38 g mol 1, R = 0.082 L atm mol 1 K 1) For a first order reaction, the time required for 50% completion is 20 minutes. The time required for (G Q.11 99.9% completion of the reaction is ______ minutes. Q.12 At 298 K, the bond dissociation energies of C H, C C and C=C are 415, 344 and 615 kJ mol 1, XL respectively. The enthalpy of atomization of carbon is 717 kJ mol 1 and that of hydrogen is 218 kJ mol 1. The heat of formation of naphthalene at 298 K is ______ kJ mol 1. XL-H 2/3 GATE 2014 Q.13 CHEMISTRY (COMPULSORY) XL-H The Fisher projection that represents (2R,3S)-2,3-dihydroxybutanoic acid is (A) (B) (C) CH3 CH3 HO H H H OH HO H H HO COOH CH3 CH3 OH H HO Q.14 (D) H OH H OH COOH COOH COOH A hydrocarbon that undergoes ozonolysis (reaction with ozone followed by reduction with Me2S) (A) COOH (1) NO2 XL H COOH COOH (2) COOH (3) (4) (B) 1>4>3>2 (G (A) 3 > 2 > 1 > 4 Me (D) 20 The order of acidity of the following acids is OMe XL-H (C) (B) AT E Q.15 14 ) to form formaldehyde and glyoxal is (C) 4>3>2>1 (D) 3>4>2>1 END OF THE QUESTION PAPER 3/3 BIOCHEMISTRY XL-I GATE 2014 I : BIOCHEMISTRY Q. 1 Q. 10 carry one mark each. Q.1 During an enzyme catalyzed reaction, the equilibrium constant (A) increases (B) decreases (C) remains unchanged (D) can increase or decrease, depending on the enzyme A mixture of Arginine, Phenylalanine and Histidine was fractionated using cation exchange chromatography at neutral pH. The amino acids were eluted with an increasing salt gradient. Identify the correct order of elution. ) Q.2 Which one of the following proteases does NOT cleave on the carboxyl side of any Arginine residue in a protein? 20 Q.3 14 (A) Arginine, Histidine, Phenylalanine (B) Phenylalanine, Histidine, Arginine (C) Histidine, Phenylalanine, Arginine (D) Arginine, Phenylalanine, Histidine (A) Trypsin (C) Thrombin The receptor for epinephrine is a AT E Q.4 (B) Proteinase K (D) Chymotrypsin (A) Tyrosine kinase receptor (C) G-protein-coupled receptor Q.5 (B) Serine-threonine kinase receptor (D) Ligand activated transcription factor Choose the option with two reducing sugars. Q.6 (B) Trehalose and Sucrose (D) Lactose and Sucrose (G (A) Lactose and Maltose (C) Maltose and Trehalose The affinity of an antibody can be determined quantitatively by (A) MALDI-TOF MS (C) SDS-PAGE Which one of the following molecules is an allosteric activator of phosphofructokinase-1? XL Q.7 (B) isoelectric focusing (D) equilibrium dialysis (A) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate (C) Glucose 6-phosphate (B) Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate (D) Citrate Q.8 For a single substrate enzyme, a reaction is carried out at a substrate concentration four times the value of Km. The observed initial velocity will be _________ % of Vmax. Q.9 Consider the following biochemical reaction: Fructose 6-phosphate + ATP Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate + ADP The equilibrium constant under biochemical standard conditions (K'eq) for the above reaction is 254. The standard free energy change ( G' ) for the conversion of fructose 6-phosphate is _______ kJ/mol. XL-I 1/5 BIOCHEMISTRY XL-I GATE 2014 Q.10 Given below is the hydropathy plot of a monomeric transmembrane protein. 180 Hydropathy index (kJ/mol) 120 60 20 40 60 100 120 80 140 0 -60 14 ) -120 -180 First amino acid in the window (A) 1 20 How many transmembrane -helices are present in the protein? (B) 2 (C) 4 Q. 11 Q. 20 carry two marks each. An aqueous solution contains two compounds X and Y. This solution gave absorbance values of 1.0 and 0.4 at 220 and 280 nm, respectively, in a 1 cm path length cell. Molar absorption coefficients ( ) of the compounds X and Y are as shown in the table below. AT E Q.11 (D) 5 220 (M-1cm-1) Compound X Compound Y 280 (M-1cm-1) 1000 800 200 400 A purified oligomeric protein was analyzed by SDS-PAGE under reducing and non-reducing conditions. A one litre solution of 1 mg/ml concentration has 4.01 1018 molecules of the oligomeric protein. Based on the data shown below, deduce the total number of polypeptide chains that constitute this protein. XL Q.12 (G The concentration of Y in the solution is___________ mM. 1 2 75 kDa 50 kDa 1 : Reducing condition 2 : Non-reducing condition 25 kDa (A) 2 XL-I (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 12 2/5 BIOCHEMISTRY XL-I GATE 2014 Q.13 The concentration of Mg2+ ions outside a cell is twice the concentration inside. If the transmembrane potential of the cell is 60 mV (inside negative), the free energy change of transporting Mg2+ ions across the membrane against the concentration gradient at 37 C is __________ kJ/mol. Faraday constant: 96.5 kJ/V mol Match the entries in Group I with those in Group II Group II P) J chain Q) Serpin R) 2-microglobulin S) Artemis 1) VDJ recombinase complex 2) Component of MHC class I 3) B cell co-receptor complex 4) C1 complement inhibitor 5) Component of MHC class II 6) Multimerization of IgA and IgM (B) P-6, Q-5, R-2, S-3 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-6 20 (A) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1 (C) P-6, Q-4, R-2, S-1 The kinetic data for a single substrate enzyme is shown below. The concentration of inhibitor [I] used in the reaction was equal to the Ki of the inhibitor. The Km value of an uninhibited reaction is 2 10-5 M. In the presence of the inhibitor, the observed Km value is _____ 10-5 M. AT E Q.15 ) Group I 14 Q.14 Control XL 1 (M-1 s) V (G [I] = Ki Q.16 XL-I 1 (M-1) [S] One litre of phosphate buffer was prepared by adding 208 grams of Na2HPO4 (Mol. wt. 142) and 71 grams of NaH2PO4 (Mol. wt. 120) in water. If the pKa for the dissociation of H2PO4 into HPO42 and H+ is 6.86, the pH of the buffer will be _____________. 3/5 BIOCHEMISTRY XL-I GATE 2014 Q.17 Shown below is an electrospray ionization mass spectrum of a protein: Intensity 2417.67 2072.42 2901 3626 1813.50 ) m/z A human gene has only three exons (I, II and III in the given order). Total RNA was isolated from cultured human kidney cells and reverse transcribed. The resultant cDNA was used as a template in a PCR reaction containing a forward primer specific to Exon I and a reverse primer specific to Exon III. When the PCR product was analyzed by gel electrophoresis, two bands were observed of sizes 2.5 kb and 1 kb. However, when Northern blotting was performed with the same total RNA using a radiolabeled probe specific to Exon II, only one band was observed. Based on these observations, which one of the following statements is FALSE ? 20 Q.18 14 The numbers written on top of the peaks are the m/z values. The mass of the protein deduced from the given data is ___________ kDa. Using the Sanger s dideoxy chain termination method, a particular exonic region of a protein coding gene was sequenced for two individuals referred to as Subject 1 and Subject 2. The figure below shows a segment of the autoradiogram corresponding to a small window of the DNA sequence. Subject 1 Subject 2 A T G C A T G C XL (G Q.19 AT E (A) Northern blotting with a probe specific to Exon III will show two bands. (B) The gene codes for two mRNA splice variants. (C) If the forward primer were specific to Exon II, two bands will be observed. (D) The Exon II is 1.5 kb in size. Which one of the following interpretations is correct for the sequenced DNA fragments? (A) Subject 2 has two allelic variants. (B) Subject 1 has the sequence 5 - TAGTCGGA -3 . (C) Subject 2 has the sequence 5 - AGGCTAGAT -3 . (D) Subject 1 has a single nucleotide deletion in the gene. XL-I 4/5 BIOCHEMISTRY XL-I GATE 2014 Q.20 EtBr staining Autoradiograph A 7 kb DNA molecule of a specific sequence has two EcoRI and one PvuII restriction endonuclease sites. The restriction sites are shown below. The DNA was completely digested with both EcoRI and PvuII. The digestion product was purified and added to an appropriately buffered reaction mixture at 37 C, which contained the Klenow fragment of DNA polymerase I and -32P dNTPs. After one hour, the DNA in the reaction product was purified and analyzed by electrophoresis. The bands were visualized by both ethidium bromide (EtBr) staining and autoradiography. The result is shown below. 4.0 kb ) 3.0 kb GAATT C C TTAAG 2.0 kb 1.5 kb CA GC TG GTCGAC 20 1.0 kb 0.3 kb 0.5 kb DNA marker AT E 0.3 kb 1.0 kb 0.5 kb 1.5 kb PvuII : 2.0 kb DNA Marker 4.0 kb 3.0 kb DNA marker EtBr staining 14 EcoRI : Autoradiograph XL (C) (B) 3.0 kb EcoRI 2.0 kb PvuII 7.0 kb linear DNA EcoRI GAATT C C TTAAG 7.0 kb plasmid CA GC TG GTCGAC (G PvuII : 0.5 kb 1.5 kb (D) 7.0 kb plasmid 3.0 kb 2.0 kb EcoRI EcoRI 7.0 kb linear DNA PvuII (A) EcoRI : Which one of the following restriction maps is in agreement with the above result? 0.5 kb 1.5 kb END OF SECTION I XL-I 5/5 GATE 2014 BOTANY XL-J J : BOTANY Q. 1 Q. 10 carry one mark each. Q.1 Plant which grows attached to another plant species but is not a parasitic is known as (A) Endophyte Q.2 (B) Halophyte (C) Epiphyte (D) Lithophyte An ideal cybrid should have (A) both nuclear genome and cytoplasmic genome equally from both the parents (B) nuclear genome from one of the parents and cytoplasmic genome from other parent 14 ) (C) nuclear genome predominantly/exclusively from one of the parents and cytoplasmic genome equally from both the parents (D) nuclear genome equally from both the parents and cytoplasmic genome predominantly/ exclusively from one of the parents Transmission Electron Micrograph of fungal cell can usually be distinguished from plant cell due to lack of P and having less abundant Q. Find the correct combination of P and Q. (A) P- Plastid; Q-Vacuoles AT E (B) P- Plastid; Q-Mitochondria 20 Q.3 (C) P- Plastid; Q-Endoplasmic reticulum (D) P- Mitochondria; Q-Plastid Q.4 Identify the CORRECT answer (G RNA interference (RNAi) P. is an event of post transcriptional gene silencing Q. works through RNA induced silencing complex XL (A) P only Q.5 (C) Both P and Q (D) neither P nor Q (B) Sepal (C) Petiole (D) Tepal Find the odd one out (A) Petal Q.6 (B) Q only Plantibody is the (A) Antibody expressed in transgenic plant (B) Transgenic plant that expresses antibody (C) Antibody against plant based antigen (D) Transgenic plant that expresses antigen XL-J 1/7 GATE 2014 In a typical oil-seed crop, the matured seeds are enriched with (A) Phospholipid Column II 1. Garcinia sp. 2. Rocella tinctoria 3. Crocus sativus 4. Curcuma sp. (B) P-3 Q-4 R-1 S-2 (C) P-2 Q-3 R-2 S-1 (D) P-3 Q-1 R-2 S-4 ) (A) P-4 Q-2 R-1 S-3 The semi-dwarf trait of corn, wheat and rice plants used in breeding program during 1960s resulted in green revolution. Later this green-revolution gene has been identified to be involved in either signal transduction pathway or biosynthesis of (B) Gibberellin (C) Cytokinin (D) Ethylene AT E (A) Auxin Q.10 (D) Sphingolipid Match the following products (Column I) with the corresponding plant species (Column II ) Column I P. Saffron Q. Gamboge R. Litmus S. Turmeric Q.9 (C) Neutral lipid 14 Q.8 (B) Galactolipid 20 Q.7 BOTANY XL-J In classical model to explain the plant-pathogen interaction, the host will not develop the disease upon the pathogen attack when (B) The avirulence gene (Avr) is non-functional (C) Both R and Avr are non-functional (D) Both R and Avr are functional XL (G (A) The resistance gene (R) is non-functional XL-J 2/7 GATE 2014 BOTANY XL-J Q. 11 Q. 20 carry two marks each. Q.11 Select the CORRECT combination from the promoter (Column I), transcription machinery used (Column II) and target tissue type (Column III) to express a foreign gene in a plant system. Column I Column II P. Ubiquitin Q. Napin R. RbcL S. RbcS 1. Chloroplast 2. Nucleus 3. Mitochondria Column III i. Leaf ii. Seed (C) P-2-i, Q-2-ii, R-1-i, S-2-i (D) P-1-ii, Q-3-i, R-2-ii, S-3-ii 14 20 Q.12 (B) P-3-i, Q-1-i, R-2-ii, S-1-ii ) (A) P-1-i, Q-3-ii, R-2-i, S-3-ii In a plant species, flower colour purple is dominant over white. One such purple-flowered plant upon selfing produced 35 viable plants, of which 9 were white-flowered and the rest were purpleflowered. What fraction of these purple-flowered progeny is expected to be pure purple-flowered line? (B) 1/3 (C) 1/4 (D) 2/3 XL (G AT E (A) 1/2 XL-J 3/7 GATE 2014 Q.13 BOTANY XL-J Following diagram represents the sequence of genes in a normal chromosome of a plant species: GH IJ KLMN Match the CORRECT combination for chromosomal mutation using Column - I and Column - II. Column-II Column-I P. GH IKL Q. G J R. GH IJ JM N 1. Tandem duplication 2. Deletion 3. KLHIM N Pericentric inversion ) KLKLM N GH J KLMN (A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (C) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 Match the nuclei status of mutant plant (Column-I) with the typical chromosome number (ColumnII), when the wild type plant species is having 2N = 46 chromosomes. AT E Q.14 (B) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2 20 S. 14 4. Non-reciprocal translocation Column-I Trisomic Triploid Monosomic Monoploid (G P. Q. R. S. Column-II 1. 2. 3. 4. 23 45 47 69 (A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 Match the following reporter genes used in plant transformation experiments with the source of gene and detection/assay system XL Q.15 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 Reporter gene P. -glucuronidase Q. Green fluorescence protein R. Luciferase S. Chloramphenicol acetyl transferase Source of gene 1. Aequorea victoria 2. Photinus pyralis 3. E. coli Detection/assay i. Radioactive assay ii. Fluorimetric iii. Fluorescence iv. Luminescence (A) P-3-i, Q-1-ii, R-2-iii, S-3-iv (C) P-2-ii, Q-1-iii, R-3-iv, S-1-i XL-J (B) P-3-ii, Q-1-iii, R-2-iv, S-3-i (D) P-1-ii, Q-2-iii, R-3-i, S-3-iv 4/7 GATE 2014 Q.16 BOTANY XL-J Find the CORRECT statements in the context of Global warming effect on plant photosynthesis. P. Decreasing aqueous solubility of dissolved CO2 compared to dissolved O2 Q. Decreasing oxygenase activity of Rubisco relative to carboxylation R. Enhancing the ratio of CO2 to O2 in air equilibrated solution S. Increasing photorespiration relative to photosynthesis (B) R & S (C) P & R (D) P & S Q.17 14 ) (A) P & Q Statements given below are either TRUE (T) or FALSE (F). Find the correct combination. 20 P. Regulation of cell cycle progression depends on cyclin dependent kinase (CDK) and protease activity. Q. In photosynthesis, oxidation of water produces O2 and releases electrons required by photosystem I (PSI). AT E R. Photorespiratory reaction occurring in oxidative photosynthetic carbon (C2) pathway involves a cooperative interaction among three organelles: chloroplast, peroxisome and mitochondria. S. Ethylene acts as a promoter of senescence and cytokinins act as a senescence antagonist. (B) P-T, Q-T, R-T, S-F (C) P-T, Q-F, R-F, S-T (D) P-T, Q-F, R-T, S-T XL (G (A) P-T, Q-F, R-T, S-F XL-J 5/7 GATE 2014 Q.18 BOTANY XL-J Match the following diagrams P, Q, R, and S with the inflorescence type (Column I) and the corresponding plant species (Column II). v (A) (B) (C) P-3-ii Q-2-iii R-4-i S- 1-iv (D) P-1-iii Q-3-ii R-4-iv S-2-i P-1-iv Q-4-i R-2-iii S-3-ii AT E P-2-i Q-3-iv R-4-ii S-1-iii Find the right combination for P, Q, R and S with respect to gametophyte development in flowering plants. (G Q.19 Column II i. Pedicularis sp ii. Smilacina sp. iii. Epilobium sp. iv. Pelargonium sp. S 20 Column I 1. Umbel 2. Raceme 3. Compound determinate 4. Spike R ) Q 14 P P 4 Microspores Growth Q Mitosis R Mitosis S XL Microsporocyte Vegetative Cell (A) P-Meiosis, Q -Generative cell , R- Pollen Tube, S- 2 Sperm Cells (B) P- Meiosis, Q- Pollen Tube, R- Generative Cell, S- 2 Sperm Cells (C) P-Mitosis, Q- Generative Cell, R- Pollen Tube, S- 2 sperm Cells (D) XL-J P- Growth, Q- 2 Sperm Cells, R- Pollen Tube, S- Generative Cell 6/7 GATE 2014 Q.20 BOTANY XL-J Match the definition (Column I) with the type of plant community (Column II) Column I P. The process of occupation of a particular area by different plant communities from their birth to maturity Q. A major ecological unit of vegetation R. A smaller unit of plant association S. A subdivision of plant association which is related to minor differences in temperature and moisture relations P-3 Q-2 R-1 S-4 P-4 Q-1 R-2 S-3 (D) P-2 Q-4 R-3 S-1 AT E 20 P-1 Q-3 R-4 S-2 (C) ) (B) 2. Consociation 3. Faciation 4. Plant succession 14 (A) Column II 1. Formation XL (G END OF THE QUESTION PAPER XL-J 7/7 GATE 2014 MICROBIOLOGY XL-K K: MICROBIOLOGY Q. 1 Q. 10 carry one mark each. Most viral capsids have (A) 08 faces Q.2 (B) 12 faces (D) 20 faces (C) tRNA (D) cDNA Intergenic suppression involves mutation in (A) rRNA Q.3 (C) 16 faces (B) mRNA Which one of the following proteins does NOT bind to a gaseous ligand? (B) Carbonic anhydrase (D) NADPH oxidase 20 14 (A) Leghemoglobin (C) Nitrogenase ) Q.1 Q.4 A bacterial culture (5 10 8 cells/ml) is maintained in a chemostat of working volume 10 L. If the doubling time of the bacteria is 50 min, the required rate of flow of nutrients (in ml/min) is _______________. Q.5 Rheumatic fever is an example of Oxygenases that catalyse the initial step in the degradation of polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons by using molecular oxygen belong to which enzyme class? (A) Hydrolase (C) Lyase Q.7 (B) Transferase (D) Oxido-reductase AT Q.6 (B) type IV hypersensitive reaction (D) neurodegenerative disorder E (A) autoimmune disease (C) immunodeficiency disease Which one of the following is NOT involved in horizontal gene transfer? Q.8 (G (A) Conjugation (C) Transduction The principle of immunization was first explained by (A) Edward Jenner (C) Louis Pasteur (A) NAG-NAM Q.10 (B) lipopolysaccharide (C) teichoic acid (D) lipoprotein A Which one of the following microscopic techniques can be used to study the contour of proteins? (A) SEM XL-K (B) Elie Metchnikoff (D) Robert Koch Lysozyme catalyzes the breakdown of XL Q.9 (B) Transformation (D) Mutation (B) TEM (C) AFM (D) Confocal microscopy 1/3 GATE 2014 MICROBIOLOGY XL-K Q. 11 Q. 20 carry two marks each. Match compounds in Group I with inhibitory activities in Group II. Group I (P) Vancomycin (Q) Rifampin (R) Puromycin (S) Ciprofloxacin Group II (i) Folate metabolism (ii) DNA synthesis (iii) Protein synthesis (iv) RNA synthesis (v) Cell wall synthesis (A) P-v, Q-iv, R-iii, S-ii (C) P-iv, Q-i, R-iii, S-ii Match the organisms with the appropriate growth curves. (P) Bacteria (Q) Extracellular virus (R) Intracellular virus (i) (ii) (iii) E Cell/virus Cell/virus number Number 20 14 Q.12 (B) P-iv, Q-iii, R-i, S-ii (D) P-v, Q-iii, R-ii, S-iv ) Q.11 AT Time (Time) (A) P-iii, Q-i, R-ii (C) P-ii, Q-iii, R-i The length of a coding region in an mRNA is 897 bases. How many amino acids will be there in the polypeptide synthesized using this mRNA? (G Q.13 (B) 298 (A) 297 Q.14 (B) P-ii, Q-i, R-iii (D) P-i, Q-ii, R-iii (C) 299 (D) 897 Match the media in Group I for screening microbial isolates in Group II. Group I Blood agar media Minimal media Skimmed milk agar media Bile salt media XL (P) (Q) (R) (S) (A) P-iii, Q-v, R-ii, S-i (C) P-i, Q-iii, R-ii, S-iv (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) Group II Coliforms Protease producers Hemolytic microbes Lipase producers Autotrophs (B) P-iii, Q-ii, R-i, S-iv (D) P-ii, Q-i, R-iv, S-v Q.15 During a bacterial growth experiment, the total viable cell count at 2 h and 6 h was 1 104 cells/ml and 1 109 cells/ml, respectively. The specific growth rate (in h-1) of the culture is _____________. Q.16 The concentration of sodium chloride in the cytoplasm of a Halobacterium sp. was found to be 250 ng/nl. The molarity (in M) of sodium chloride is __________. XL-K 2/3 GATE 2014 Q.17 MICROBIOLOGY XL-K Match organisms in Group I with shapes in Group II and flagellar arrangements in Group III. (P) (Q) (R) (S) Group I Salmonella typhi Saccharomyces cerevisiae Aquaspirillum serpens Vibrio cholerae Group II (i) helical (ii) rod (iii) curved rod (iv) ovoid Group III non-motile amphitrichous peritrichous polar (1) (2) (3) (4) Lethal dose curves of different microorganisms (1, 2, 3 and 4) are shown below. Which of these microorganisms are the most lethal? Host death (%) 100 1 20 14 Q.18 ) (A) P-ii-3, Q-iv-1, R-i-2, S-iii-4 (B) P-iii-1, Q-iv-2, R-ii-4, S-i-3 (C) P-i-2, Q-ii-4, R-iii-2, S-iv-3 (D) P-ii-2, Q-iii-1, R-i-3, S-iv-4 2 75 50 3 25 10 20 30 40 4 50 60 70 E Number of microorganisms Number of microorganism (A) 1 & 3 only (D) 2 & 3 only Match items in Group I with sterilization methods in Group II. Group I Ampicillin 1% glucose in phosphate buffer Plastic syringe Luria broth (G (P) (Q) (R) (S) (A) P-iv, Q-iii, R-v, S-ii (C) P-i, Q-ii, R-v, S-iii (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) Group II 70 % alcohol treatment Autoclaving at 15 psi for 15 min Autoclaving at 10 psi for 20 min Membrane filtration -ray irradiation (B) P-iii, Q-iv, R-ii, S-v (D) P-v, Q-ii, R-iii, S-i Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding recA mutants of E. coli? XL Q.20 (C) 3 & 4 only AT Q.19 (B) 1 & 2 only (P) Exhibit much reduced recombination (Q) Do not survive UV irradiation (R) Show no effect on doubling time (S) Exhibit pleiotropy (A) P, Q & R only (C) P, R & S only (B) P, Q & S only (D) Q, R & S only END OF SECTION-K XL-K 3/3 GATE 2014 ZOOLOGY XL-L L : ZOOLOGY Q. 1 Q. 10 carry one mark each. Small geographic areas with high concentrations of endemic species and a large number of endangered and threatened species are known as (A) endemic sinks (C) biodiversity hot spots Which ONE of the following animals has Osculum as an excretory structure? (A) Hydra Q.3 (C) Jelly Fish (D) Sea pen During development of which ONE of the following organisms, bilateral meroblastic cleavage is found? (A) Mollusc Q.4 (B) Sponge ) Q.2 (B) critical communities (D) endemic metapopulations 20 14 Q.1 (B) Fish (C) Bird (D) Amphibian The mitochondrion is NOT considered a part of the endomembrane system on account of which ONE of the following reasons? Q.5 The end products of glycolysis include ATP, (B) H2O and pyruvate (D) CO2 and NADH AT (A) CO2 and H2O (C) NADH and pyruvate Q.6 E (A) It does not undergo structural changes (B) It is not derived from the ER or Golgi (C) It does not synthesize proteins (D) It is not attached to the outer nuclear envelope The TATA box is found in the vicinity of the transcription start site. The role of this box is to Q.7 (G (A) serve as a ribosome recruitment site (B) serve as RNA polymerase binding site (C) provide 3-D structural integrity to a DNA molecule (D) act as a terminator sequence Which ONE of the following processes does NOT occur in prokaryotic gene expression, but occurs in eukaryotic gene expression? XL (A) Transcription of mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA (B) Binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter (C) Addition of a poly-A tail to the 3' end and the 5' capping of an mRNA (D) Translation begins as soon as transcription is initiated Q.8 In Graves disease, the presence of auto antibodies against which ONE of the following molecules is the direct cause of hyperthyroidism? (A) Thyroperoxidase (C) Thyroid stimulating hormone Q.9 In mammals, the two important organs associated with the production and elimination of urea are (A) gastrointestinal tract and lungs (C) kidneys and lungs XL-L (B) Thyroxine (D) Thyroid stimulating hormone receptor (B) gastrointestinal tract and liver (D) liver and kidneys 1/4 GATE 2014 ZOOLOGY XL-L Q.10 Some endocrine glands produce hormones that stimulate functions of other endocrine glands. Which ONE of the following hormones specifically acts to increase secretion of other hormones? (A) Thyroxine (B) Prolactin (C) ACTH (D) ADH Q. 11 Q. 20 carry two marks each. (B) Y-X-Z (C) X-Z-Y (D) Z-Y-X 20 14 (A) X-Y-Z ) Q.11 If the recombination frequency between X - Y loci is 12, X - Z loci is 4, and Y - Z loci is 8, then the order of the loci on the chromosome is Q.12 A cross is made between a white eyed-miniature winged female with a red eyed-normal winged male of Drosophila melanogaster. Further crossing of F1 female offspring from this cross with a white eyed-miniature winged male fly gave 95 white eyed-normal winged, 102 red eyed-miniature winged, 226 red eyed-normal winged and 202 white eyed-miniature winged offspring in F2 generation. What is the percent frequency of recombination between the two genes? (A) 20.11 (B) 31.52 (C) 49.10 (D) 34.12 Q.13 A green fluorescent protein (GFP) encoding gene is fused to a gene encoding specific protein for expression in cells. What is the advantage of using GFP over staining cells with fluorescently labeled antibodies that bind to the target protein? AT E (A) It bleaches less compared to fluorescent probes. (B) It allows imaging at higher resolution than fluorescent probes. (C) It provides more precise location of the protein than fluorescent probes. (D) Its fusion allows tracking the location of the protein in living cells, while staining usually requires fixation of cells. Q.14 A newborn was accidentally given a drug that destroyed the thymus. Which ONE of the following would be the most likely outcome? (G (A) Lack of class I MHC molecules (B) Inability to rearrange antigen receptors (C) Inability to differentiate to mature T cells (D) Reduction in T-independent number of B cells Q.15 One individual has a parasitic worm infection and another is responding to an allergen such as pollen. Which ONE of the following features is common to both of them? XL (A) Increase in cytotoxic T cell population (B) Risk of developing an autoimmune disease (C) Reduced innate immune response (D) Increased levels of IgE XL-L 2/4 GATE 2014 ZOOLOGY XL-L Q.16 Five dialysis bags (DB1-DB5), impermeable to sucrose, were filled with various concentrations of sucrose. The bags were placed in separate beakers containing 0.6 M sucrose solution. Every 10 minutes, the bags were weighed and the percent change in mass of each bag was plotted as a function of time. DB1 DB2 DB3 ) DB4 20 14 DB5 10 20 30 40 50 60 Time (minutes) Which plot in the graph (X-axis representing time in minutes and Y-axis representing mass change in percentage) represent(s) bags that contain a solution that is hypertonic at 50 minutes? (A) DB2 (B) DB4 (C) DB3 (D) DB4 and DB5 E Q.17 Which ONE of the following combinations of products will result, when 3 molecules of acetyl CoA is fed into TCA cycle? AT (A) 1 ATP, 2 CO2, 3 NADH, and 1 FADH2 (B) 3 ATP, 6 CO2, 9 NADH, and 3 FADH2 (C) 3 ATP, 3 CO2, 3 NADH, and 3 FADH2 (D) 38 ATP, 6 CO2, 3 NADH, and 12 FADH2 (G Q.18 A DNA fragment shown below has restriction sites I and II, which create fragments X, Y, and Z. Which ONE of the following agarose gel electrophoresis patterns represents the separation of these fragments? (A) X (B) XL X Y Z Z Y (C) (D) Z X X Z Y Y Z Y X Q.19 Theoretically, it is possible to resurrect the extinct woolly mammoth by which ONE of the following methods? (A) Transferring cell nuclei from the frozen tissue into enucleated unfertilized eggs of a suitable mammal (B) Introducing sequenced mammoth genome into donor eggs of a suitable mammal (C) Transferring mammoth nuclear material into stem cells (D) Collection of oocytes from ovaries of the frozen mammoth for in vitro fertilization and transfer of fertilized eggs into animals such as elephants XL-L 3/4 GATE 2014 ZOOLOGY XL-L Q.20 Regions of higher abundance of cholesterol molecules on the plasma membrane will (A) be more fluid (B) result in clogged arteries as it can detach from the plasma membrane (C) be more rigid than the surrounding membrane (D) have higher rates of lateral movement of proteins into and out of plasma membrane XL (G AT E 20 14 ) END OF THE QUESTION PAPER XL-L 4/4 GATE 2014 FOOD TECHNOLOGY - XL-M M : FOOD TECHNOLOGY Q. 1 Q. 10 carry one mark each. Q.1 Which one of the following is NOT a source of caffeine? (A) Coffee Q.2 (B) Cocoa beans (C) Corn syrup Yoghurt is prepared using a pair of microorganisms. Choose the correct pair from the following: 14 Choose the target organism for milk pasteurization from the following: Hypobaric storage is also known as _______ AT E (A) Modified atmospheric storage (B) Controlled atmospheric storage (C) Low pressure storage (D) Modified aseptic package (B) Coxiella burnetii (D) Bacillus cereus 20 (A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis (C) Clostridium botulinum Q.4 ) (A) Lactobacillus bulgaricus, Streptococcus thermophilus (B) Lactobacillus lactis, Streptococcus thermophilus (C) Lactobacillus bulgaricus, Streptococcus lactis (D) Lactobacillus lactis, Streptococcus lactis Q.3 (D) Tea leaves In a solution of vegetable oil (molecular mass = 292 kg kmol-1) and ethanol (molecular mass = 46 kg kmol-1), the concentration of vegetable oil in the solution is measured to be 60% (total mass basis). Therefore, mole fraction of ethanol in the solution is _______. Q.6 An experiment started with 4 numbers of bacterial cells. After nth generation, number of cells becomes 128. Therefore, value of n is _______. Q.7 One ton of refrigeration means one of the following options: (G Q.5 XL (A) Cooling provided by one kg of ice in one hour (B) Cooling provided by one ton of ice in one hour (C) Energy extracted to freeze one ton of water in one day (D) Coefficient of performance is unity Q.8 Fruit juice is flowing in a circular pipe (inner diameter 2 cm) at a mass flow rate of 2 kg s-1 and at a temperature of 25 C. The density and viscosity of the juice at 25 C are 1045 kg m-3 and 0.5 Pa s, respectively. Take = 22/7. The Reynolds number for this flow will be _______. Q.9 Shear stress ( , Pa) and shear rate ( , s-1) relationship of a pseudoplastic fluid follows the Power law equation given by, = k n = 2.6 0.45, where n and k are flow behavior index and consistency index respectively. The apparent viscosity ( a) of the fluid at a shear rate of 5 s-1 is _______ Pa s. Q.10 In a sterilization process, D121.1 value of the target organism is 0.22 minute. Time required for 99.999% inactivation of the target organism at 121.1 C will be _____ minutes. XL-M 1/3 GATE 2014 FOOD TECHNOLOGY - XL-M Q. 11 Q. 20 carry two marks each. Q.11 A centrifuge having diameter of 10 cm is rotating at 10000 rpm. Take = 22/7 and g = 9.81 m s-2. The ratio of centrifugal force to gravitational force will be _________. Q.12 Match the items under Group I with items under Group II Group II P. Threonine Q. Pyridoxine phosphate R. Xylose S. Oleic acid 1. Fatty acid 2. Sugar 3. Amino acid 4. Co-enzyme Match the items under Group I with items under Group II Group I Group II P. Iron Q. Calcium R. Zinc S. Iodine 20 Q.13 (B) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 14 (A) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (C) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 ) Group I 1. Osteoporosis 2. Anemia 3. Goiter 4. Dwarfism (B) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 AT E (A) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 In a counter-current double pipe heat-exchanger, milk is cooled from 110 to 40 C using chilled water as coolant. Water enters at 5 C and leaves at 60 C. Heat flux for the system with overall heat transfer coefficient of 950 W m-2 K-1 will be ______ W m-2. Q.15 Saturated steam at 100 C is injected at 0.2 kg s-1 into air stream flowing at 3 kg s-1 and 25 C. Air contains 0.012 kg moisture per kg dry air. If the atmospheric pressure is 101.1 kPa, absolute humidity of air will be _____kg kg-1. Q.16 In an evaporator, milk is concentrated from 9.8% TSS to 52% TSS. Assume the solutes in the milk are non-volatile. The amount of vapour produced for 100 kg feed will be _______ kg. Q.17 Water enters a cylindrical tank at a steady uniform rate of 0.1 m3 s-1; simultaneously water is discharged from the tank through an orifice (area 0.05 m ) located at the bottom of the tank. Initial level of water in the tank from the bottom is 5 m. If the acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m s-2 and coefficient of discharge = 0.30, the final value of the steady-state height of water level from the bottom of tank is _______ m. XL (G Q.14 XL-M 2/3 GATE 2014 Q.18 FOOD TECHNOLOGY - XL-M Match the following between Group I and Group II in relation to pretreatments. Group I Group II P. Ascorbic acid dip Q. Heat blanching R. Deaeration S. Rendering 1. Sogginess in fruits 2. Minimizes fruit oxidation 3. Melting of fat in meat 4. Removal of odours 5. Minimizes destruction of vitamin C (A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (C) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-5 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2 A chocolate mix at 100 C is flowing through a 2 cm diameter and 4 m long stainless steel tube at 13.2 kg per minute. The density of the mix is 1750 kg m-3 and its viscosity at 100 C is 2 Pa s. Take = 22/7. The pressure drop for this flow will be ________ Pa. Q.20 In a tray dryer, 100 kg of a vegetable material in a suitably reduced form is dried to yield a final product of 75 kg. The dried sample of 5 g, when kept in an oven at 105 C for 24 hours results in 3.56 g of dry matter. The moisture content of the vegetable, before drying, in dry basis is_______%. 20 14 ) Q.19 XL (G AT E END OF THE QUESTION PAPER XL-M 3/3

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