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GATE 2014 : Chemistry

13 pages, 65 questions, 27 questions with responses, 28 total responses,

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GATE 2014 Examination CY: Chemistry Duration: 180 minutes Maximum Marks: 100 Read the following instructions carefully. 1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination. 2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen. 3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory. The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each. The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to 25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each. 4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen. 5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse. 6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes. 7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. 8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer type. 9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble ( ) placed before the choice. 10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that appears on the monitor and the mouse. 11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong answer will result in deduction of marks for a 1-mark question and marks for a 2-mark question. 12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE. 13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination. Declaration by the candidate: I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition . GATE 2014 SET- 1 General Aptitude -GA Q. 1 Q. 5 carry one mark each. Q.1 A student is required to demonstrate a high level of comprehension of the subject, especially in the social sciences. The word closest in meaning to comprehension is (A) understanding Q.2 (B) meaning (C) concentration (D) stability Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence. One of his biggest ______ was his ability to forgive. Q.3 (B) virtues (C) choices (D) strength 20 14 (A) vice Rajan was not happy that Sajan decided to do the project on his own. On observing his unhappiness, Sajan explained to Rajan that he preferred to work independently. Which one of the statements below is logically valid and can be inferred from the above sentences? (A) Rajan has decided to work only in a group. (B) Rajan and Sajan were formed into a group against their wishes. (C) Sajan had decided to give in to Rajan s request to work with him. (D) Rajan had believed that Sajan and he would be working together. Q.4 If y = 5x2 + 3, then the tangent at x = 0, y = 3 (A) passes through x = 0, y = 0 (C) is parallel to the x-axis E A foundry has a fixed daily cost of Rs 50,000 whenever it operates and a variable cost of Rs 800Q, where Q is the daily production in tonnes. What is the cost of production in Rs per tonne for a daily production of 100 tonnes? G AT Q.5 (B) has a slope of +1 (D) has a slope of 1 Q. 6 Q. 10 carry two marks each. Q.6 Find the odd one in the following group: ALRVX, EPVZB, ITZDF, OYEIK (A) ALRVX Q.7 (C) ITZDF (D) OYEIK Anuj, Bhola, Chandan, Dilip, Eswar and Faisal live on different floors in a six-storeyed building (the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it 2, and so on). Anuj lives on an even-numbered floor. Bhola does not live on an odd numbered floor. Chandan does not live on any of the floors below Faisal s floor. Dilip does not live on floor number 2. Eswar does not live on a floor immediately above or immediately below Bhola. Faisal lives three floors above Dilip. Which of the following floor-person combinations is correct? (A) (B) (C) (D) GA (B) EPVZB Anuj 6 2 4 2 Bhola 2 6 2 4 Chandan 5 5 6 6 Dilip 1 1 3 1 Eswar 3 3 1 3 Faisal 4 4 5 5 1/2 GATE 2014 SET- 1 General Aptitude -GA Q.8 The smallest angle of a triangle is equal to two thirds of the smallest angle of a quadrilateral. The ratio between the angles of the quadrilateral is 3:4:5:6. The largest angle of the triangle is twice its smallest angle. What is the sum, in degrees, of the second largest angle of the triangle and the largest angle of the quadrilateral? Q.9 One percent of the people of country X are taller than 6 ft. Two percent of the people of country Y are taller than 6 ft. There are thrice as many people in country X as in country Y. Taking both countries together, what is the percentage of people taller than 6 ft? (A) 3.0 (C) 1.5 (D) 1.25 The monthly rainfall chart based on 50 years of rainfall in Agra is shown in the following figure. Which of the following are true? (k percentile is the value such that k percent of the data fall below that value) E 20 14 Q.10 (B) 2.5 G AT (i) On average, it rains more in July than in December (ii) Every year, the amount of rainfall in August is more than that in January (iii) July rainfall can be estimated with better confidence than February rainfall (iv) In August, there is at least 500 mm of rainfall (A) (i) and (ii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (B) (i) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (iv) END OF THE QUESTION PAPER GA 2/2 GATE 2014 CHEMISTRY CY USEFUL DATA CY CHEMISTRY COMMON DATA Gas constant 8.314 J K 1 mol 1 0.083 L bar K 1 mol 1 96500 C mol 1 0.06 V 6.02 1023 B = 5, N = 7, Mg = 12, S = 16, Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25 Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28, Cu = 29, Rh = 45, Ta = 73 C Y (G AT E 20 1 4) Faraday constant 2.303RT/F at 300 K NA Atomic numbers : : : : : : CY 1/10 GATE 2014 CHEMISTRY CY Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each. Q.1 The maximum non-PV work that a system can perform at constant P is (A) H Q.2 (B) G (C) S (D) A Consider the reaction: A+B C The unit of the thermodynamic equilibrium constant for the reaction is (A) mol L 1 (B) L mol 1 (C) mol2 L 2 (D) dimensionless The number of IR active vibrational normal modes of CO2 is ______________ Q.4 The number of C2 axes in CCl4 is ______________ Q.5 The value of the magnetic quantum number of a px orbital is Q.6 (C) +1 (D) undefined The molecular partition function for a system in which the energy levels are equispaced by , is (B) (A) (C) (D) A monoatomic gas, X, adsorbed on a surface, follows Langmuir adsorption isotherm. A plot of the fraction of surface coverage, , against the concentration of the gas [X], for VERY LOW concentration of the gas, is described by the equation AT E Q.7 (B) 0 20 1 (A) 1 4) Q.3 (B) 1 (A) (C) (D) At a given temperature and pressure, the ratio of the average speed of hydrogen gas to that of helium gas is approximately ______________ Q.9 An example of nido-borane from the following is (G Q.8 C Y (A) B4H10 (C) B6H12 Q.10 (B) B6H10 (D) B8H14 The geometries of Ni(CO)4 and [NiCl4]2 , respectively, are (A) tetrahedral and square planar (B) square planar and tetrahedral (C) tetrahedral and tetrahedral (D) square planar and square planar Q.11 The number of S S bonds in H2S5O6 is ______________ Q.12 In atomic absorption spectroscopy, the atomization process utilizes (A) flame Q.13 CY (B) electric field (C) magnetic field (D) electron beam At room temperature, the number of singlet resonances observed in the 1H NMR spectrum of Me3CC(O)NMe2 (N,N-dimethyl pivalamide) is ______________ 2/10 GATE 2014 Q.14 CHEMISTRY CY Amongst the following, the metal that does NOT form homoleptic polynuclear metal carbonyl is (A) Mn Q.15 (B) Fe (D) Co The reaction of [Cp2TaMe2]I (Cp = C5H5 ) with NaOMe yields (A) [Cp2Ta(OMe)2]I Q.16 (C) Cr (B) [Cp2Ta(Me)OMe]I (C) Cp2Ta(Me)=CH2 (D) Cp2Ta(OMe)=CH2 The complexes [Co(H2O)4Cl2]NO2 and [Co(H2O)4Cl(NO2)]Cl are (A) linkage isomers (B) positional isomers (C) ionization isomers (D) optical isomers (B) (A) (C) (D) Amongst the following, the structure of guanosine is AT E Q.18 4) The major product of the following reaction is 20 1 Q.17 (B) (D) C Y (C) (G (A) Q.19 The correct order of IR stretching frequency of the C=C in the following olefins is (A) I > II > III Q.20 (C) III > II > I (D) III > I > II The correct order of the rate of solvolysis for the following chlorides in acetic acid is (A) II > I > III CY (B) II > III > I (B) III > II > I (C) III > I > II (D) I > III > II 3/10 GATE 2014 Q.21 CHEMISTRY CY Formation of the product in the following photochemical reaction involves H h Ph Ph O Ph Ph O H (A) di- -methane rearrangement (C) [2,3]-sigmatropic rearrangement (A) I > II > III Q.23 (B) I > III > II (C) II > I > III The major product formed in the following reaction is (A) 4) The correct order of stability for the following conformations of cyclohexane is (D) III > I > II 20 1 Q.22 (B) Paterno-Buchi reaction (D) Norrish type I reaction (C) (B) (D) The overall yield (in %) for the following reaction sequence is ______________ Q.25 The most suitable reagent combination to effect the following conversion is BzO (G BzO AT E Q.24 OH O OBn O OBn C Y (A) i. NaH, CS2, then MeI; ii. Bu3SnH, AIBN, C6H6, reflux (B) i. I2, PPh3, imidazole; ii. H2, 10% Pd-C, AcOH, high pressure (C) i. Me3SiCl, pyridine, DMAP; ii. Bu3SnH, AIBN, C6H6, reflux (D) i. MsCl, pyridine, DMAP; ii. LiAlH4, THF, reflux Q. 26 Q. 55 carry two marks each. Q.26 6 cos , is a proposed hydrogenic wavefunction, where Z = Atomic number, r = radial distance from the nucleus, = azimuthal angle, N is a constant. The INCORRECT statement about is (A) = 0 in the xy-plane (B) two radial nodes are present in (C) one angular node is present in (D) the size of the orbital decreases with increase in atomic number Q.27 CY The van der Waals constants a and b of CO2 are 3.64 L2 bar mol 2 and 0.04 L mol 1, respectively. The value of R is 0.083 bar dm3 mol 1 K 1. If one mole of CO2 is confined to a volume of 0.15 L at 300 K, then the pressure (in bar) exerted by the gas, is ______________ 4/10 GATE 2014 Q.28 CHE EMISTRY CY Y A plot p of osmot tic pressure against a conce entration (g L 1) of a poly ymer is cons structed. The e slope of the plot ) increases with w increase in temperatu ure (A) (B) ) increases with w increase in molar mas ss of the poly ymer (C) ) decreases with w decrease e in concentra ation of the polymer p (D) ) decreases with w increase in temperatu ure A platinum p elec ctrode is imm mersed in a solution conta aining 0.1 M Fe2+ and 0.1 M Fe3+. Its s potential is found f to be 0.77 0 V agains st SHE. Unde er standard conditions c an nd considerin ng activity co oefficients to be b equal to unity, u the pote ential of the electrode, when w the conc centration of f Fe3+ is incre eased to 1 M, M is _______ ________ Q.30 Mo olybdenum cr rystallizes in n a bcc struct ture with unit cell dimens sions of 0.314 nm. Consi idering the atom mic mass of f molybdenum m to be 96, it ts density (in n kg m 3) is ___________ _ ____ Q.31 The e ratio of mo olecules distr ributed betwe een two state es is 9.22 10 1 6 at 300 K. The differen nce in 1 ene ergy (in kJ mol m ) of the two t states is __________ _____ Q.32 A Carnot C engin ne operates at t 55% efficie ency. If the te emperature of o reject steam m is 105 oC, then the abs solute temper rature of inpu ut steam is ___________ _ ____ Q.33 ng plots, the correct c representation of chemical potential ( ) ag gainst absolu ute Of the followin mperature (T) ) for a pure su ubstance is (s, l and g denote d solid, liquid and ga as phases, re espectively) tem AT E 20 1 4) Q.29 (C) ( (D) e enthalpy of f fusion of ic ce at 273 K is s 6.01 kJ mo ol 1 and the en nthalpy of va aporization of o water at The 1 273 3 K is 44.83 kJ mol . Th he enthalpy of o sublimation (in kJ mol 1 ) of ice at 2 273 K, is ___ _________ C Y Q.34 B) (B (G (A) ) Q.35 ppose 1 and d 2, are two o hybrid orbit tals: Sup 1 = 0.12 3 s + 0.63 3 px + 0.77 3 p y and d 2 = 0.12 3 s 0.63 3 px 0.77 3 p y The e angle (in de egrees) betw ween them is __________ _____ Q.36 BC Cl3 and NH4Cl C were heate ed at 140 oC to t give comp pound X, wh hich when tre eated with Na aBH4 gave ano other compou und Y. Com mpounds X an nd Y are (A) ) X = B3N3H3Cl3 and Y = B3N3H6 (B) ) X = B3N3H9Cl3 and Y = B3N3H6 (C) ) X = B3N3H3Cl3 and Y = B3N3H12 (D) ) X = B3N3Cl l6 and Y = B3N3H6 CY 5/10 0 GATE 2014 CHEMISTRY CY Q.37 The number of microstates in term 1G is ______________ Q.38 The set of protons (underlined) in CH3CH2CH2OCH3 that would exhibit different splitting patterns in high (500 MHz) and low (60 MHz) field 1H NMR, is (A) CH3CH2CH2OCH3 (B) CH3CH2CH2OCH3 (C) CH3CH2CH2OCH3 (D) CH3CH2CH2OCH3 Amongst the following, the complex ion that would show strong Jahn-Teller distortion is (A) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ (B) Cr(CO)6 (D) [Fe(CO)4]2 MnCr2O4 is AT E Amongst the following, the complex ion that is expected to show the highest magnetic moment at room temperature is (A) [Ni(CN)4]2 Q.43 (C) [V(CO)6] The correct order of thermal stability for the given compounds is (A) TiMe4 > Ti(CH2CMe3)4 > TiEt4 (B) TiEt4 > Ti(CH2CMe3)4 > TiMe4 (C) TiMe4 > TiEt4 > Ti(CH2CMe3)4 (D) Ti(CH2CMe3)4 > TiMe4 > TiEt4 Q.42 (D) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ Amongst the following, the metal carbonyl species having the highest CO stretching frequency is (A) [Mn(CO)6]+ Q.41 (C) [Co(H2O)6]2+ 4) Q.40 (B) [Ti(H2O)6]3+ 20 1 Q.39 (B) [Fe(CN)6]3 (C) [Cu(H2O)6]2+ (D) [Co(CN)6]3 Q.44 (G (A) normal spinel with total CFSE of 15.5 Dq (B) inverse spinel with total CFSE of 15.5 Dq (C) normal spinel with total CFSE of 24 Dq (D) inverse spinel with total CFSE of 24 Dq Mg2+ is preferred in photosynthesis by chlorophyll because C Y (A) it has strong spin-orbit coupling (B) it has weak spin-orbit coupling (C) it is a heavy metal (D) it binds strongly with chlorophyll Q.45 In Monsanto acetic acid process shown below, the role of HI is (A) to covert CH3OH to a stronger nucleophile (CH3O ) (B) to reduce the Rh(I) catalyst to a Rh(0) species (C) to reduce a Rh(III) active species to a Rh(I) species in the catalytic cycle (D) to convert CH3OH to CH3I CY 6/10 GATE 2014 Q.46 CHEMISTRY CY Formation of the ketone II from the diazoketone I involves (A) generation of carbene and a [2,3]-sigmatropic rearrangement (B) generation of carbene and an electrocyclic ring closing reaction (C) generation of ketene and a [2+2] cycloaddition (D) generation of ketene and a [3,3]-sigmatropic rearrangement The major products X and Y formed in the following reaction sequence are 20 1 4) Q.47 (A) (C) AT E (B) Me X= Me Y= PhS OH C Y (G (D) CO2Me CY 7/10 GATE 2014 Q.48 CHEMISTRY CY The major products X and Y formed in the following reactions are (A) 4) (B) 20 1 (C) (D) The major products X and Y formed in the following reaction sequence are AT E Q.49 (B) C Y (C) (G (A) (D) CY 8/10 GATE 2014 Q.50 CHEMISTRY CY The product of the following reaction gave 6 line 13C NMR spectrum with peaks at 175, 52, 50, 46, 37, 33 ppm. The structure of the product is (A) (C) (D) The major product formed in the following reaction is (A) (C) (B) (D) The major products X and Y formed in the following reaction sequence are AT E Q.52 20 1 4) Q.51 (B) (A) (C) (G (B) C Y NO2 OH X= O Y= (D) CY 9/10 GATE 2014 Q.53 CHEMISTRY CY The major products X and Y formed in the following reaction sequence are CO2H HO NH2 MeOH H2SO4 X Cbz-Cl (1 equiv.) aq. NaHCO3 Y (A) (B) 4) (C) Given the fact that 1,3-butadiene has a UV absorption of 217 nm, the absorption wavelength (in nm) for the conjugated system shown below is ______________ AT E Q.54 20 1 (D) (Use these absorption values for auxochromic groups: alkyl: +5; exo-cyclic double bond: +5; every additional conjugated C=C: +30) The m/z value of the detectable fragment formed by McLafferty like rearrangement of the following compound in mass spectrometer is ______________ (G Q.55 C Y END OF THE QUESTION PAPER CY 10/10

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