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GATE 2014 : Mining Engineering

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GATE 2014 Examination MN: Mining Engineering Duration: 180 minutes Maximum Marks: 100 Read the following instructions carefully. 1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination. 2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen. 3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory. The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each. The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to 25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each. 4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen. 5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse. 6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes. 7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. 8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer type. 9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble ( ) placed before the choice. 10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that appears on the monitor and the mouse. 11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong answer will result in deduction of marks for a 1-mark question and marks for a 2-mark question. 12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE. 13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination. Declaration by the candidate: I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition . GATE 2014 SET- 2 General Aptitude -GA Q. 1 Q. 5 carry one mark each. Q.1 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence. A person suffering from Alzheimer s disease (A) experienced (C) is experiencing Q.2 short-term memory loss. (B) has experienced (D) experiences Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence. (A) Contentment Q.3 (B) Ambition 20 14 ) ____________ is the key to their happiness; they are satisfied with what they have. (C) Perseverance (D) Hunger Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the sentence below? As a woman, I have no country. E (A) Women have no country. (B) Women are not citizens of any country. (C) Women s solidarity knows no national boundaries. (D) Women of all countries have equal legal rights. In any given year, the probability of an earthquake greater than Magnitude 6 occurring in the Garhwal Himalayas is 0.04. The average time between successive occurrences of such earthquakes is ____ years. Q.5 The population of a new city is 5 million and is growing at 20% annually. How many years would it take to double at this growth rate? (B) 4-5 years (C) 5-6 years (D) 6-7 years 02 (A) 3-4 years (G AT Q.4 Q. 6 Q. 10 carry two marks each. In a group of four children, Som is younger to Riaz. Shiv is elder to Ansu. Ansu is youngest in the group. Which of the following statements is/are required to find the eldest child in the group? Statements 1. Shiv is younger to Riaz. 2. Shiv is elder to Som. G A Q.6 (A) Statement 1by itself determines the eldest child. (B) Statement 2 by itself determines the eldest child. (C) Statements 1 and 2 are both required to determine the eldest child. (D) Statements 1 and 2 are not sufficient to determine the eldest child. GA 1/2 GATE 2014 Q.7 SET- 2 General Aptitude -GA Moving into a world of big data will require us to change our thinking about the merits of exactitude. To apply the conventional mindset of measurement to the digital, connected world of the twenty-first century is to miss a crucial point. As mentioned earlier, the obsession with exactness is an artefact of the information-deprived analog era. When data was sparse, every data point was critical, and thus great care was taken to avoid letting any point bias the analysis. From BIG DATA Viktor Mayer-Schonberger and Kenneth Cukier The main point of the paragraph is: Q.8 20 14 ) (A) The twenty-first century is a digital world (B) Big data is obsessed with exactness (C) Exactitude is not critical in dealing with big data (D) Sparse data leads to a bias in the analysis The total exports and revenues from the exports of a country are given in the two pie charts below. The pie chart for exports shows the quantity of each item as a percentage of the total quantity of exports. The pie chart for the revenues shows the percentage of the total revenue generated through export of each item. The total quantity of exports of all the items is 5 lakh tonnes and the total revenues are 250 crore rupees. What is the ratio of the revenue generated through export of Item 1 per kilogram to the revenue generated through export of Item 4 per kilogram? Exports Item 5 12% (A) 1:2 E Item 3 19% (B) 2:1 Item 6 19% Item 1 12% Item 2 20% Item 5 20% Item 4 6% (C) 1:4 Item 3 23% (D) 4:1 A X is 1 km northeast of Y. Y is 1 km southeast of Z. W is 1 km west of Z. P is 1 km south of W. Q is 1 km east of P. What is the distance between X and Q in km? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 2 10% of the population in a town is HIV+. A new diagnostic kit for HIV detection is available; this kit correctly identifies HIV+ individuals 95% of the time, and HIV individuals 89% of the time. A particular patient is tested using this kit and is found to be positive. The probability that the individual is actually positive is _______ G Q.10 Item 2 20% 02 Item 4 22% Q.9 Item 1 11% (G AT Item 6 16% Revenues END OF THE QUESTION PAPER GA 2/2 GATE 2014 MINING MN Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each. A block of weight 100 kN rests on a floor as shown in the figure. The coefficient of static friction between the block and the floor is 0.5. A force of 45 kN is applied horizontally on the block. The static frictional force in kN is 100 kN 45 kN (A) 22.5 Q.2 Coefficient of static friction = 0.5 (B) 50.0 (C) 55.0 A spring of constant stiffness k is stretched from point A to point B (displacement u in the figure) by a force F. The potential energy of the spring is expressed by k 1 2 ku Fu 2 (B) u B F 1 2 ku + Fu 2 (D) ku + F E (C) ku F (B) i s (C) i s (D) s i (G s i AT If s is the induced stress and i is the insitu stress at a point below ground, the stress concentration at that point is (A) Q.4 A 20 (A) Q.3 (D) 100.0 14 ) Q.1 The components of state of stress at a point in x y plane are given as xx = 5 MPa, yy = 10 MPa and xy = 2 MPa. The sum of the principal stresses acting on the x y plane in MPa is _______ The angle 50 15 25 is expressed in hours, minutes, and seconds as N Q.5 (B) 1 20 16.00 (C) 0 21 1.67 (D) 0 21 16.00 (A) 221 (B) 227 (C) 235 (D) 262 A circular curve has a radius of 200 m and deflection angle of 650. The length of the curve in m is M Q.6 (A) 1 20 1.67 Q.7 MN The weight strength of ANFO of specific gravity 0.8 is 912 kcal/kg. The weight strength of an emulsion explosive of specific gravity 1.2 is 850 kcal/kg. Bulk strength of the emulsion explosive relative to ANFO in percentage is ________________ 1/8 GATE 2014 Q.8 MINING MN In a cut-and-fill stope, the main purpose of back filling is to (A) reduce ore dilution (B) prevent high stress concentrations in far field domain (C) prevent displacement due to dilation of fractured wall rock (D) improve ore rehandling Q.9 Bypass valve in a compressed oxygen type self-contained breathing apparatus is meant to (A) release accumulated nitrogen in the breathing bag 14 ) (B) release excess pressure in the breathing bag (C) supply oxygen directly to wearer in case pressure reducing valve does not function (D) flush out the apparatus with oxygen on opening the cylinder valve (A) S < Y Q.11 (B) S > Y Solution of the differential equation x [ 0, ] if (B) k < 0 (C) S = Y (D) S = Y2 dy = ky follows exponential decay (where k is a constant) for dx (C) k = 0 (D) k = e AT (A) k > 0 20 Given S is the setting load and Y is the yield load of a hydraulic prop, the correct relationship is E Q.10 Q.12 The value of k for which the vectors a = 2i - 3 j and b = k i + 4 j are orthogonal to each other is ___ Q.13 Which one of the following is the most likely mode of slope failure for waste dump (G (A) Circular (C) Plane Q.15 The divergence of the vector v = ( x + y )( yi + xj) is M (A) y x Q.16 The lim x 0 (A) 1 Q.17 x x (B) x y (C) x 2 y 2 (D) y 2 x 2 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) non-existent is For Indian coal mines, the maximum allowable concentration of respirable dust containing 7.5% free silica in mg/m3 is (A) 2.0 MN (D) Toppling The occurrence of head in a single toss of an unbiased coin is given by a random variable X. The variance of X is _______________ N Q.14 (B) Wedge (B) 2.2 (C) 2.5 (D) 2.7 2/8 GATE 2014 Q.18 MINING MN Given is the thermal conductivity, is density and is specific heat of a rock sample, the thermal diffusivity of the rock sample is (A) Q.19 (B) (C) (D) Cyclone, bag filter and scrubber can be used for control of (A) water pollution Q.20 (B) air pollution (C) soil pollution (D) noise pollution A mine waste dump of pH 5.2 can be neutralized by adding (B) calcium carbonate (C) sulphuric acid (D) sodium chloride 14 ) (A) urea A flat coal seam of thickness (t) 3 m is excavated and broken roof rock has completely filled the space created due to extraction as shown in the figure. If the bulking factor of roof rock is 1.2, the caving height (H) in m is ______________ H void space E t 20 Q.21 A piece of coal sample weighs 10 kg in air and 2 kg when immersed in water. The specific gravity of the coal sample is ___________ Q.23 In a borehole log of 1.2 m in length, recovery of rock cores in cm is given below AT Q.22 (G 20, 8, 15, 8, 8, 4, 3, 9, 10, 1, 5, 10 The RQD in percentage is (A) 29.2 (C) 45.8 (D) 50.0 An underground coal mine panel produces 520 tonnes per day deploying 220, 200 and 192 persons in three shifts. As per CMR 1957, the minimum quantity of air in m3/min to be delivered at the last ventilation connection of the panel is ____________ M N Q.24 (B) 31.8 Q.25 In a PERT network, the activities on the critical path are a, b and c. The standard deviations of the durations of these activities are 2, 2 and 1 respectively. The variance of the project duration is (A) 3 MN (B) 5 (C) 9 (D) 12 3/8 GATE 2014 MINING MN Q. 26 Q. 55 carry two marks each. Q.26 A particle P is in equilibrium as shown in the figure. The magnitude in kN and the orientation in degrees of the force F respectively are y F p 150 kN x 30 o 200 kN Q.27 (B) 221.2, 23.2 (C) 102.3, 53.4 (D) 180.3, 73.9 14 ) (A) 52.1, 16.1 A distributed load of 4 kN/m acts on a beam of 6 m length supported by a hinge and a roller as shown in the figure. The distance in m of the point of zero shear in the beam from the point A is __ 20 4 kN/m B A 6m A dry rock sample of diameter 50 mm and length 100 mm weighs 300 g. After saturating in brine solution of specific gravity 1.05, its weight increased to 330 g. The porosity of the rock sample in percentage is __________ Q.29 A joint plane of length L and dip intersects the toe of a slope as shown in the figure. The weight of the shaded block is W. Uniform water pressure P acts normal to the joint plane. If the cohesion and angle of internal friction of the joint surface are c and respectively, then the expression for safety factor of the shaded block is M N (G AT E Q.28 L W Joint plane P (A) (B) Lc + (W cos + LP ) tan W sin (C) MN Lc + (W sin LP ) tan W cos Lc + (W cos LP ) tan W sin (D) Lc + (W sin + LP ) tan W cos 4/8 GATE 2014 Q.30 MINING MN The lengths and standard errors of three sections AB, BC, and CD of a straight line AD are given below AB = 125.85 0.021 m; BC= 205.72 0.029 m; CD=246.21 0.025 m The standard error in total length AD in m is Q.31 (A) 0.0436 (B) 0.0350 (C) 0.0250 (D) 0.0019 Q.32 (A) 650 15 25 (B) 690 50 25 (C) 690 15 25 (D) 690 50 0" (A) 2.0, 2.6 (B) 2.3, 1.8 (C) 5.2, 4.0 (D) 1.3, 1.0 14 ) In a room-and-pillar stope, bench blasting is conducted using ANFO having density of 800 kg/m3. The specific gravity of rock is 2.5, hole diameter is 100 mm and spacing to burden ratio is 1.3. The charge length of each blast hole is 80% of the hole length. For a desired powder factor of 0.48 kg/tonne, the spacing and burden of the blast pattern in m respectively are Match the following for ore handling operations in an underground metal mine 20 Q.33 The bearing of side AB of a regular hexagon ABCDEF is 500 10 . If the station C is easterly from the station B, the whole circle bearing of the side BC is Description (P) Drawpoint (I) arrangement that prevents oversized rock to pass (Q) Ore pass (II) a system of vertical or near vertical openings for transferring ore from a stope to a single delivery point AT (R) Grizzly E Arrangement (III) a place where ore can be loaded and removed (S) Finger raise (IV) a vertical or inclined opening used for transferring ore (C) P-II, Q-IV, R-I, S-III Q.34 (B) P-III, Q-IV, R-I, S-II (D) P-III, Q-I, R-II, S-IV (G (A) P-IV, Q-III, R-II, S-I The following characteristic curves (P, Q, R, S) pertain to rotary drilling in rock. y y y M N y x x x P Q R Title of the curve I: Torque versus RPM II: Rate of penetration versus uniaxial compressive strength of rock III: Rate of penetration versus weight on bit IV: Specific energy versus weight on bit S x Match the curves with their titles (A) P-III, Q-IV, R-II, S-I (C) P-IV, Q-III, R-II, S-I MN (B) P-II, Q-IV, R-I, S-III (D) P-I, Q-III, R-II, S-IV 5/8 GATE 2014 Q.35 MINING MN The height H of a drawpoint in a sublevel caving stope is 3.0 m. If the angle of repose ( ) of broken ore is 350, the digging depth y of the loader as shown in the figure in m is _______ Waste rock Ore 450 2 H 4 14 ) y For an explosives company, the probability of producing a defective detonator is 0.02. The probability that a lot of 50 detonators produced by the company contains at most 2 defective detonators is __________ Q.37 The area enclosed by the curves y = x 2 and y = x 3 for x [ 0, ] is (A) 1/12 (C) 1/2 (D) 1 The value of a, for which the function below is continuous at x = 1 is 2 x + ax 2 , x 1 f ( x) = 4 x + 3, x > 1 (A) -5 Q.39 (B) 0 (D) 10 (G (B) a (1 r ) (C) a 1+ r (D) a 1 r A centrifugal pump has a discharge rate of 2000 L of water per min against a total head of 200 m. If the pump efficiency is 75%, the input power to the pump in kW is N (A) 87.20 (B) 49.05 (C) 13.33 (D) 7.50 A dragline is required to remove 3,00,000 m3 of rock per month on the bank volume basis. Consider the following data for the dragline operation. Effective working hours per month = 450 Bucket fill factor = 0.8 Cycle time = 65 s Swell factor of the rock = 1.25 The minimum bucket capacity of the dragline in m3 is M Q.41 (C) 5 The sum of the infinite series a + ar + ar 2 + ar 3 + + ar n 1 + for r < 1 is (A) a (1 + r ) Q.40 AT E Q.38 (B) 1/6 20 Q.36 (A) 7.70 MN (B) 9.63 (C) 12.04 (D) 18.80 6/8 GATE 2014 Q.42 MINING MN A direct rope haulage pulls 8 tubs loaded with coal through an incline of length 500 m having an inclination of 1 in 6. Consider the following additional data. Capacity of tub = 1.0 tonne Tare weight of tub = 500 kg Hauling speed = 9 km per hour Coefficient of friction between wheel and rail = 1/60 Coefficient of friction between rope and drum = 1/10 Mass of rope per meter = 1.5 kg The minimum power required to haul the tubs in kW is (A) 345.50 (B) 348.60 (C) 350.10 (D) 365.50 A coal mine receives two bids for purchase of a new dragline. The first bid quotes Rs. 150 crore as a price to be paid in full on delivery. The second bid quotes Rs. 180 crore as a price payable at the end of the third year after delivery. If the discount rate is 12%, the difference in NPV between the first and second bids in crore of rupees is __________ Q.44 Match the following in the context of underground mine environment Instrument 20 14 ) Q.43 Measuring parameter P. Haldane apparatus I. R. Hygrometer II. III. Mine air composition IV. Ignition point temperature AT S. Anemometer Air velocity E Q. Godbert-Greenwald apparatus Humidity (B) P-III, Q-IV, R-I, S-II (C) P-IV, Q-II, R-III, S-I (D) P-I, Q-III, R-IV, S-II (G (A) P-II, Q-I, R-III, S-IV A mine airway having cross-section of 2.2 m 2.2 m and length 500 m contains a bend. Given that the airway friction factor is 0.01 Ns2m 4, shock loss factor for the bend is 0.07 and density of air is 1.2 kg/m3, the equivalent length of the airway in m is __________ Q.46 In order to estimate the NVP in a mine, measurements are made at the main fan as shown below. N Q.45 M Fan speed (RPM) 800 950 Fan drift pressure (Pa) 655 730 Fan quantity (m3/s) 82.2 85.5 The NVP in Pa is ____________ Q.47 MN The resistances of two splits A and B are 0.35 Ns2m 8 and 0.05 Ns2m 8 respectively. The combined resistance of the shafts and trunk airways is 0.4 Ns2m 8. A booster fan is planned to be installed in split A to increase the quantity flowing through it. Assuming that the surface fan continues to operate at a constant pressure of 1000 Pa, the critical pressure of the booster fan in Pa is _______ 7/8 GATE 2014 Q.48 MINING MN A pitot tube is inserted in a ventilation duct with the nose facing the air flow. A vertical U-tube manometer filled with alcohol (specific gravity 0.8) has been used for pressure measurements such that 10.2 mm is read as the total pressure and 8.8 mm as the static pressure. Given the density of air to be 1.2 kg/m3, the air velocity at the nose of the pitot tube in m/s is ____________ Q.49 3m S A 4m 14 ) B An illumination source S shown in the figure emits light equally in all directions. At a point A on the floor, the illuminance is 5.0 lux. The illuminance at point B on the floor in lux is ________ (A) 70.0 Q.51 (B) 75.0 (C) 80.0 (D) 83.3 A waste water effluent has BOD5 of 80 mg/L and the reaction rate constant is 0.16 per day. The ultimate BOD in mg/L is (B) 100 (C) 120 AT (A) 85 Q.52 20 Two machines A and B while operating simultaneously produce a sound pressure level of 85 dBA at a point. When the machine A stops, the sound pressure level at that point reduces to 80 dBA. The sound pressure level at the same point due to machine A operating alone in dBA is E Q.50 (D) 145 A series of tri-axial compression tests conducted on sandstone samples reveal the following relationship between major and minor principal stresses (G 1 = 50 + 3 3 [stresses are in MPa] The cohesion in MPa and angle of internal friction in degrees of sandstone respectively are (A) 14.43, 30.0 (C) 0.21,73.9 (D) 0.21,16.1 Six detonators each having resistance of 1.5 ohm are connected in parallel. A 15 V exploder is connected to the detonators by two single-core cables of resistance 3 ohm each. The current in the circuit in Ampere is __________ N Q.53 (B) 14.43, 60.0 The failure and the repair rates of a shovel are 0.06 hr 1 and 0.04 hr 1 respectively. The availability of the shovel in percentage is ____________ Q.55 The individual reliability values of four sub-systems are given in the figure below. The reliability of the system is _________ M Q.54 0.6 0.6 A B C D 0.5 0.5 END OF THE QUESTION PAPER MN 8/8

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