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GATE 2015 : Biotechnology

10 pages, 55 questions, 38 questions with responses, 55 total responses,

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GATE 2015 BIOTECHNOLOGY BT Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each. Q.1 Which one of the following complement proteins is the initiator of the membrane attack complex? (A) C3a Q.2 (B) C3b (C) C5a Levinthal s paradox is related to (A) protein secretion (C) protein folding Q.3 (B) protein degradation (D) protein trafficking Which one of the following is a second generation genetically engineered crop? (A) Bt brinjal (C) Golden rice Q.4 (B) Roundup soyabean (D) Bt rice Based on the heavy chain, which one of the following antibodies has multiple subtypes? (A) IgM Q.5 (B) IgD (C) IgE (C) proplastid (B) phragmoplast (B) allergy to environmental antigens (D) a state of no energy ABO blood group antigens in humans are differentiated from each other on the basis of (A) sialic acid Q.8 (D) chromoplastid Anergy refers to (A) mitochondrial dysfunction (C) unresponsiveness to antigens Q.7 (D) IgG The cytokinetic organelle in plant cells is (A) centriole Q.6 (D) C5b (B) lipids (C) spectrin (D) glycoproteins Which one of the following organisms is used for the determination of phenol coefficient of a disinfectant? (A) Salmonella typhi (C) Candida albicans (B) Escherichia coli (D) Bacillus psychrophilus Q.9 A single subunit enzyme converts 420 moles of substrate to product in one minute. The activity of the enzyme is 10 Katal. Q.10 Which one of the following amino acids has the highest probability to be found on the surface of a typical globular protein in aqueous environment? (A) Ala Q.11 Q.13 (C) NO2 (B) N2O 3 The determinant of the matrix 2 6 0 5 8 0 0 is 4 (D) NH4+ . Which one of the following features is NOT required in a prokaryotic expression vector? (A) oriC BT (D) Ile Which one of the following is NOT a product of denitrification in Pseudomonas? (A) N2 Q.12 (C) Arg (B) Val (B) Selection marker (C) CMV promoter (D) Ribosome binding site 1/10 GATE 2015 Q.14 BIOTECHNOLOGY BT Production of monoclonal antibodies by hybridoma technology requires (A) splenocytes Q.15 (C) hepatocytes (D) thymocytes Which one of the following is INCORRECT about a typical apoptotic cell? (A) (B) (C) (D) Q.16 (B) osteocytes Phosphatidylserine is presented on the outer cell surface Cytochrome c is released from mitochondria Mitochondrial membrane potential does not change Annexin-V binds to the cell surface Identify the file format given below: >P1; JMFD Protein X Homo sapiens MKALTARQQEVFDLIRDHISRTLRQQGDWL (A) GDE Q.17 (B) FASTA (C) 11 (D) 12 (B) 100 20 (C) 20 (D) 100! 20! In DNA sequencing reactions using the chain termination method, the ratio of ddNTPs to dNTPs should be (A) 0 (C) 1 BT (B) 5 How many different protein sequences of 100 residues can be generated using 20 standard amino acids? (A) 100 Q.20 (B) < 0 (D) 0 < < max How many 3-tuples are possible for the following amino acid sequence? MADCMWDISEASE (A) 4 Q.19 (D) GCG Which one of the following relations holds true for the specific growth rate ( ) of a microorganism in the death phase? (A) = 0 (C) = max Q.18 (C) NBRF (B) < 1 (D) > 1 2/10 GATE 2015 Q.21 BIOTECHNOLOGY BT Which one of the following graphs represents uncompetitive inhibition? (A) (B) 1 [v 0 ] 1 [v0 ] 0 0 1 [S] (C) (D) 1 [v0 ] 1 [v0 ] 0 Q.22 1 [S] 0 1 [S] 1 [S] Choose the appropriate pair of primers to amplify the following DNA fragment by the polymerase chain reaction (PCR). 5 -GACCTGTGG-----------------------------ATACGGGAT-3 3 -CTGGACACC-----------------------------TATGCCCTA-5 Primers P. Q. R. S. (A) P and R Q.23 (B) P and S 5 -GACCTGTGG-3 5 -CCACAGGTC-3 5 -TAGGGCATA-3 5 -ATCCCGTAT-3 (C) Q and R (D) Q and S Consider the following infinite series: 1 + r + r 2 + r 3 + ... If r = 0.3, then the sum of this infinite series is _____________. Q.24 2x1 + x2 = 3 5x1 + bx2 = 7.5 The system of linear equations in two variables shown above will have infinite solutions, if and only if, is equal to ______________. BT 3/10 GATE 2015 Q.25 BIOTECHNOLOGY BT The interaction between an antigen (Ag) and a single-chain antibody (Ab) was studied using Scatchard analysis. The result is shown below. Y [Ab-Ag] [Ag] 0 X [Ab-Ag] The affinity of interaction and the total concentration of antibody, respectively, can be determined from (A) slope and Y-intercept (C) X-intercept and slope (B) Y-intercept and slope (D) slope and X-intercept Q. 26 Q. 55 carry two marks each. Q.26 An isolated population on an island has the following genotypic frequencies: Genotype AA Aa aa Frequency 0.3 0.4 0.3 Assuming that there are only two alleles ( and ) for the gene, the genotypic frequency of the next generation will be ______________. Q.27 How many rooted and unrooted phylogenetic trees, respectively, are possible with four different sequences? (A) 3 and 15 Q.28 (B) 15 and 3 (C) 15 and 12 (D) 12 and 3 Match the compounds in Group I with the correct entries in Group II. Group I Group II 1) K+ ionophore 2) Electron transfer from cytochrome b to cytochrome c1 3) F1 subunit of ATP synthase 4) Cytochrome oxidase 5) Adenine nucleotide translocase P) Cyanide Q) Antimycin A R) Valinomycin S) Aurovertin (A) P-5, Q-2, R-3, S-1 (C) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3 Q.29 in (B) P-5, Q-2, R-1, S-3 (D) P-4, Q-5, R-3, S-1 What are the eigenvalues of the following matrix? 1 1 2 4 (A) 2 and 3 BT (B) 2 and 3 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 3 4/10 GATE 2015 Q.30 BIOTECHNOLOGY BT For a discrete random variable shown below: ( ) = {0,1,2,3} and the cumulative probability , ( ) The mean value of Q.31 0 1 2 3 0.5 0.6 0.8 1.0 is ______________. Match the drugs in Group I with their mechanism of action in Group II. Group I P) Paclitaxel Q) Colchicine R) Etoposide S) Methotrexate Group II 1) Inhibits protein translation 2) Inhibits microtubule depolymerization 3) Inhibits DNA replication 4) Alkylates DNA 5) Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase 6) Inhibits microtubule polymerization (A) P-1, Q-6, R-3, S-4 (C) P-1, Q-3, R-6, S-5 Q.32 The limit of the function (1 + ) as n (A) ln x (C) e Q.33 ( ) is x (B) P-2, Q-6, R-3, S-5 (D) P-2, Q-3, R-6, S-4 is (B) ln 1 x (D) ex Match the cells in Group I with their corresponding entries in Group II. Group I Group II P) Mast cells Q) Natural killer cells R) Neutrophils S) Dendritic cells 1) Activation of the complement pathway 2) Expression of CD56 3) Contains azurophilic granules 4) Defense against helminthic infection 5) Production of antibodies specific to bacteria 6) Contains long membranous projections (A) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-5 (C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-5 Q.34 BT (B) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-6 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-6 Oxygen transfer was measured in a stirred tank bioreactor using dynamic method. The dissolved oxygen tension was found to be 80% air saturation under steady state conditions. The measured oxygen tensions at 7 s and 17 s were 55% and 68% air saturation, respectively. The volumetric is ____________s . mass transfer coefficient 5/10 GATE 2015 Q.35 BIOTECHNOLOGY BT Match the microorganisms in Group I with their fermentation products in Group II. Group I P) Leuconostoc mesenteroides Q) Rhizopus oryzae R) Gluconobacter suboxydans S) Streptomyces olivaceus Group II 1) Cobalamin 2) Sorbose 3) Dextran 4) Lactic acid 5) Butanol (A) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (B) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-4 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 Q.36 Plasmid DNA (0.5 g) containing an ampicillin resistance marker was added to 200 l of competent cells. The transformed competent cells were diluted 10,000 times, out of which, 50 l was plated on agar plates containing ampicillin. A total of 35 colonies were obtained. The transformation efficiency is ______________ 106 cfu g . Q.37 Match the reagents in Group I with their preferred cleavage sites in Group II. Group I Group II P) Cyanogen bromide Q) o-Iodosobenzoate R) Hydroxylamine S) 2-Nitro-5-thiocyanobenzoate 1) Carboxyl side of methionine 2) Amino side of methionine 3) Carboxyl side of tryptophan 4) Amino side of cysteine 5) Asparagine-glycine bonds (A) P-1, Q-3, R-5, S-4 (C) P-1, Q-2, R-5, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 (D) P-4, Q-2, R-5, S-3 Q.38 Saccharomyces cerevisiae produces ethanol by fermentation. The theoretical yield of ethanol from 2.5 g of glucose is ______________ g. Q.39 Choose the CORRECT sequence of steps involved in cytoplast production. (A) (B) (C) (D) Q.40 Digestion of cell wall protoplast viability cybrid formation osmotic stabilizer protoplast viability cybrid formation Osmotic stabilizer digestion of cell wall cybrid formation Protoplast viability osmotic stabilizer digestion of cell wall Osmotic stabilizer digestion of cell wall cybrid formation protoplast viability Match the antibiotics in Group I with their modes of action in Group II. Group I P) Chloramphenicol Q) Rifampicin R) Tetracycline S) Quinolone (A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-5 (C) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 BT Group II 1) Inhibits protein synthesis by acting on 30S ribosomal subunit 2) Interferes with DNA replication by inhibiting DNA gyrase 3) Inhibits protein synthesis by acting on 50S ribosomal subunit 4) Interferes with RNA polymerase activity 5) Inhibits -lactamase activity (B) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2 6/10 GATE 2015 Q.41 BIOTECHNOLOGY BT The diameters of a large and a small vessel are 1.62 m and 16.2 cm, respectively. The vessels are geometrically similar and operated under similar volumetric agitated power input. The mixing time in the small vessel was found to be 15 s. Determine the mixing time (in seconds) in the large vessel. (A) 15 Q.42 If A = (B) 30 (D) 122 4 2 , then A2 + 3A will be 1 3 30 10 31 (C) 7 (A) Q.43 (C) 61 20 20 13 21 28 4 20 (D) 5 (B) 10 18 10 15 Consider the following multiple sequence alignment of four DNA sequences. Shannon s entropy of the above alignment is ______________. Q.44 The Ki of a novel competitive inhibitor designed against an enzyme is 2.5 M. The enzyme was assayed in the absence or presence of the inhibitor (5 M) under identical conditions. The Km in the presence of the inhibitor was found to be 30 M. The Km in the absence of the inhibitor is ______ M. Q.45 A heterozygous tall plant ( ) was crossed with a homozygous dwarf plant ( ). The resultant seeds were collected. If five seeds are chosen at random, then the probability (in %) that exactly two of these seeds will yield dwarf plants is ______________. Q.46 Assuming random distribution of nucleotides, the average number of fragments generated upon digestion of a circular DNA of size 4.3 10 bp with AluI (5 -AG CT-3 ) is _________ 10 . Q.47 A synchronous culture containing 1.8 10 monkey kidney cells was seeded into three identical flasks. The doubling time of these cells is 24 h. After 24 h, the cells from all the three flasks were pooled and dispensed equally into each well of three 6-well plates. The number of cells in each well will be _____________ 10 . Q.48 An in vitro translation system can synthesize peptides in all three reading frames of the RNA template. When 5 - UCUCUCUC----(UC)n---UCUCUCUC - 3 was used as the template in this in vitro translation system, the synthesized peptides contained 50% each of serine and leucine. When 5 - CCUCCUCCU---(CCU)n--CCUCCU - 3 was used as the template, the synthesized peptides contained 33.3% each of serine, leucine, and proline. Deduce the codon for proline. (A) UCU BT (B) CUC (C) CCU (D) UCC 7/10 GATE 2015 0 14 28 Antigen X Antigen Z Antigen X + Antigen Y Three distinct antigens X, Y and Z were used to raise antibodies. Antigen Z was injected in a mouse on day zero followed by the administration of antigens X and Y on day 28. A second injection of antigen X was administered on day 70. The antibody titers were monitored in the serum every day and the results are shown below: Serum antibody titer Q.49 BIOTECHNOLOGY BT 42 56 70 84 98 Days Which one of the following statements regarding the antibody titers in the serum is INCORRECT? (A) (B) (C) (D) Z-specific IgG will be high on day 14 X-specific antibody titer will be high on day 84 X-specific IgG will be high on day 42 Y-specific IgG will be high on day 84 Q.50 The standard free energy change ( G ) for ATP hydrolysis is 30 kJ mole . The in vivo concentrations of ATP, ADP and Pi in E. coli are 7.90, 1.04 and 7.90 mM, respectively. When E. coli cells are cultured at 37 C, the free energy change ( G) for ATP hydrolysis in vivo is _________ kJ mole . Q.51 In a fed-batch culture, 200 g L glucose solution is added at a flow rate of 50 L h . The initial culture volume (at quasi steady state) and the initial cell concentration are 600 L and 20 g L , respectively. The yield coefficient (Yx/ s) is 0. g cell mass g substrate . The cell concentration (g L ) at quasi steady state at t= h is (A) 40 BT (B) 52 (C) 60 (D) 68 8/10 GATE 2015 Q.52 BIOTECHNOLOGY BT Cytoplasmic extract from the wild type strain of a bacterium has the ability to convert a colorless substrate (S) to a colored product (P) via three colorless intermediates X, Y and Z, in that order. Each step of the pathway involves a specific enzyme coded by a distinct gene. Four mutant strains (a ,b ,c ,d ) were isolated, whose extracts are incapable of producing the colored product in the presence of S. In a series of experiments, extracts from the individual mutants were incubated with X, Y, or Z and scored for color development. The data are summarized in the table below. (Yes: color developed, No: no color developed) Compounds a Mutants b c d X Y Z No No No No Yes Yes Yes Yes Yes No No Yes Based on the data, which one of the following is the correct order of enzymes involved in the pathway? (A) (B) d S c X a b Y Z a P (C) S d X c b Y Z P (D) b S a X d c Y Z c P S b X a d Y Z P Q.53 Samples of bacterial culture taken at 5 PM and then the next day at 5 AM were found to have 10 and 10 cells mL , respectively. Assuming that both the samples were taken during the log phase of cell growth, the generation time of this bacterium will be ______________h. Q.54 Biomass is being produced in a continuous stirred tank bioreactor of 750 L capacity. The sterile feed containing 8 g L glucose as substrate was fed at a flow rate of 150 L h . The microbial and system follows Monod s model with m = 0.4 h , Ks = 1.5 g L Yx/ s = 0. g cell mass g substrate . Determine the cell productivity (g L h ) at steady state. (A) 0.85 BT (B) 0.65 (C) 0.45 (D) 0.25 9/10 GATE 2015 5 kb 3 kb 2 kb 5 -GGATCC-3 BamHI 3 -CCTAGG-5 5 kb 3 kb Sample Marker Sample A linear double stranded DNA of length 8 kbp has three restriction sites. Each of these can either be a BamHI or a HaeIII site. The DNA was digested completely with both enzymes. The products were purified and subjected to an end-filling reaction using the Klenow fragment and [ -32P]-dCTP. The products of the end-filling reaction were purified, resolved by electrophoresis, stained with ethidium bromide (EtBr) and then subjected to autoradiography. The corresponding images are shown below. Marker Q.55 BIOTECHNOLOGY BT 2 kb 300 5 -GGCC-3 3 -CCGG-5 900 1 kb HaeIII 1 kb EtBr Autoradiograph The numbers below each band in the sample lane in the autoradiograph represent their mean signal intensity in arbitrary units. Which one of the following options is the correct restriction map of the DNA? 2 kb 3 kb 2 kb 1 kb 2 kb BamHI 3 kb 1 kb 2 kb 3 kb 1 kb 2 kb 2 kb HaeIII HaeIII BamHI HaeIII 2 kb BamHI (D) BamHI (C) HaeIII HaeIII BamHI 2 kb BamHI (B) BamHI (A) 3 kb 1 kb END OF THE QUESTION PAPER BT 10/10

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