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ICSE Class X Prelims 2023 : All subjects (Pawar Public School (PPS), Hadapsar, Pune)

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PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION (2021-2022) ENGLISH LANGUAGE Std.: X Date: 18/02/2022 Max Marks: 40 Duration: 1h 30m Maximum Marks: 40 Time allowed: One and a half hours Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. Attempt all questions. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ] Question 1 Write a composition (300 - 350 words) on any one of the following: [20] (i) You had attended an online Career Counselling event. Did you like the event? Did it give you perspectives on different career choices other than the conventional ones? How has this event helped you reassess your own choice of career? (ii) On occasion of Teacher s Day, you had been asked to conduct an online English Literature period for class IX students. Narrate how you prepared for the class, the reaction of the students, if you able to achieve what you wanted to do and your feelings at the end of the session. (iii) Chasing marks rather than knowledge has led to the blurring of moral boundaries. Express your views for or against the topic. (iv) Write an original short story which ends with: ..........as the dawn broke they realised that their lives would never be the same again. (v) Study the picture given below. Write a short story or description or an account of what the picture suggests to you. Your composition may be about the subject of the picture or you may take suggestions from it Question 2 Select any one of the following: [10] (i) You have subscribed to an online learning app. You found some gross errors in the content. Write a letter to the customer care department highlighting this issue. (ii) Write a letter to your friend advising him/her to limit screen time in the present scenario of online education. Also mention how it would benefit them. Question 3 (i) (ii) You are the President of the school Community Service Club. You and your team are planning to organize an Adult Literacy drive in your school. Write a notice to be put up on the school notice board, giving details of the event. [5] Write an e-mail inviting a well-known social worker from your locality to inaugurate the event. [5] PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION (2021-22) SUBJECT: LITERATURE IN ENGLISH Std. X Max. Marks: 40 Date: 09/02/2022 Duration: 1 hr. Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. The paper has four sections. Section A is compulsory All questions in Section A must be answered. You must attempt one question from each of the Sections B, C and D. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. SECTION A Question 1 Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.) (i) What was the final event of the day in the poem, Nine Gold Medals ? (a) 1000 m race (b) 100 cm race (c) 100 m race (d) One metre race. (ii) Which region did Abou Ben Adhem belong to? (a) Europe (b) Middle East (c) India (d) South East (iii) Which of the following words would best describe Margot? (a) Frail and ignorant (b) Cute and sweet (c) Arrogant and stubborn (d) Weak and pale (iv) Who was the founder of modern Olympic Games? [10] (a) Luz Long (b) Pierre de Coubertin (c) Jesse Owens (d) Hitler (v) Speak when you re spoken to. Who said these words and to whom? (a) Jesses Owens coach to Jesse Owens. (b) The teacher to William (c) Luz Long to Jesse Owens (d) William to Margot (vi) How did Jesse Owens come to Germany? (a) By road transport (b) By rail transport (c) By air transport (d) By water transport (vii) Dr. Bellario recommends the young lawyer to the court because . (a) he was not immature. (b) he was an old man with a young body. (c) he was not furnished with any opinion. (d) he was Bassanio s friend. (viii) Which of the following characters can be described as being very contradictory, loyal and extravagant? (a) Antonio (b) Bassanio (c) Gratiano (d) Shylock (ix) What does Lorenzo compare the deed of gift to ? (a) Panna (b) Channa (c) Manna (d) Fanna (x) What according to Bassanio would have been the best thing to do? (a) To cut his left hand and swear that he had lost the ring defending it. (b) To cut his right hand and swear that he had lost the ring defending it. (c) To swear that he had lost the ring defending it from a thief. (d) To swear that he had lost the ring defending it from a Jew. SECTION B DRAMA (The Merchant of Venice by William Shakespeare - Acts 4 and 5) Question 2 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: Shylock: My deeds upon my head! I crave the law The penalty and forfeit of my bond. Portia: Is he not able to discharge the money? (i) Where are Shylock and Portia at this time? What reason does Bassanio give in his dialogue for Shylock s refusal to accept the money? [2] (ii) Later in the scene, why does Antonio state that fortune shows herself more kind than is her custom ? [2] (iii) What does Antonio not repent for? How does he wish to convey his respects to Bassanio s wife? [3] (iv) When Shylock loses the case at the end of the scene, what are the penalties imposed upon him? [3] Question 3. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow. Portia: Inquire the Jew s house out, give him this deed, And let him sign it. We ll away to night, And be a day before our husbands home: (i) Who is the speaker speaking to? Why are they looking for the Jew s house? [2] (ii) Why does Portia find Bassanio generous only in making offers? [2] (iii) In the later scene, why does Portia think Bassanio had given away the ring? Why does she feel that he had given the ring to a woman? (iv) Why does Antonio pledge himself once again? What is the forfeiture this time? Why does Antonio say, I am dumb ? [3] [3] SECTION C PROSE - SHORT STORIES (Treasure Trove A Collection of ICSE Poems and Short Stories) Question 4 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: That was Margot s poem, read in a quiet voice in the still classroom while the rain was falling outside. Aw, you didn t write that! protested one of the boys. I did, said Margot. I did. (i) What were the inhabitants of this place called? Why were they here? [2] (ii) What was Margot s poem about? What had she written? [2] (iii) Which incident enables us to know that Margot was different from the rest of the children? [3] (iv) How did the absence of sun impact Margot physically? [3] Question 5 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: Something must be eating you, he said proud the way foreigners are when they ve mastered a bit of American slang. You should be able to qualify with your eyes closed. Believe me, I know it, I told him and it felt good to say that to someone. (i) Who is the foreigner? Why did he approach Jesse Owens? [2] (ii) Explain the line- Something must be eating you . [2] (iii) What does the foreigner say to relieve Jesse of his anxiety? [3] (iv) How does the foreigner epitomize the Olympic Spirit? [3] SECTION D POETRY (Treasure Trove A Collection of ICSE Poems and Short Stories) Question 6 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: The athletes had come from so many countriesTo run for the gold, for the silver and bronze Many weeks and months in training All building up to the games (i) What games are being referred to, in the extract? To run for the gold, for the silver and bronze What does this line imply? [2] (ii) How do you know that the athletes looked forward to these games? [2] (iii) What happened when the signal was given? [3] (iv) Which is the literary device used by the poet in the last two lines of the poem? Why does he use it? What does he wish to convey? [ 3] Question 7 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: What writest thou? - The vision raised its head, And with a look made of all sweet accord, Answered, The names of those who love the Lord. (i) Who is asking this question to whom? Where is the vision writing? [2] (ii) How is the vision referred to? How do you know that the vision was benevolent? [2] (iii) What did the speaker ask the vision after this extract? What was the answer? How did the speaker react? (iv) What message does this poem convey? [3] [3] PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION I (2021-22) SUBJECT PHYSICS Std.: X Date: 11/02/2022 Max. Marks: 40 Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. Attempt all questions from Section A and any three questions from Section B. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. SECTION A Attempt all questions 1. Observe the sound waves displayed on the oscilloscope screens. Which sound wave gets louder and has a pitch that decreases? 2. For the circuit shown, the current is 2 A and the voltmeter reads 12 V. Calculate the energy that is transferred by the resistor in 10 seconds? A 2.4 J B 14.4 J C 240 J D 1440 J [1] [1] 3. The paths of three radiations are as shown below. Identify the row which correctly states X, Y and Z. [1] 4. The cable for an electric kettle (with a metal casing) contains a wire that is connected to the earth pin of the plug. Which danger does this guard against? [1] A the cable to the kettle becoming too hot B the casing of the kettle becoming live C the casing of the kettle becoming wet on the outside D the casing of the kettle overheating 5. Study the following diagram carefully. As the lower end of the magnet oscillates between positions P and R, a varying e.m.f. is induced in the coil. When the value of this e.m.f. is 0 V, where would the lower end of the magnet be? A at R only B at Q only C at P or at R D at P or at Q [1] 6. 200 g of a substance is initially in the solid state. It is heated at a steady rate of 500 J/s. The graph shows how the temperature of the substance changes with time. [1] What is the specific latent heat of fusion of the substance? A 20000J / kg B 30000J / kg C 500000J / kg D 750000J / kg 7. Four nuclides are represented below. 6 A3 7X3 6P4 7S5 Which pair of nuclides are isotopes of the same element? [1] A A and X B A and P C P and S D X and P 8. The diagram represents a sound wave. Which statement about the sound wave is correct? A The amplitude of the wave is increasing. B The frequency of the wave is decreasing. C The pitch of the sound is increasing. D The volume of the sound is decreasing. [1] 9. A student makes a resistor with a certain length of wire. He makes another resistor from the same material. If he wants to ensure that the second resistor is of a higher resistance, he should use a wire that is: [1] A longer and thicker. B longer and thinner. C shorter and thicker. D shorter and thinner. 10. Radioactive emissions from a source pass into an electric field as shown. What is emitted by this source? [1] A neutrons and -rays only B -particles and -particles only C -particles and -rays only D -particles and -rays only SECTION B (Attempt any three questions from this Section.) Question 2 a) State the factors which affect loudness. b) Study the following circuit and calculate: [3] (ii) The total resistance of the circuit. [2] (iii) The current in 0.6 resistor. [1] c) Given below is a heating curve for ice at 0 C. [4] (Specific latent heat of ice = 336000 J/kg, specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J/kgK) (i) If 4032 J of heat energy was supplied for the ice to melt, what was the mass of ice that melted? (ii) Calculate the rate at which heat was provided for water to change its temperature from 0 C to 100 C. (iii) Which part of the graph represents vaporization? (iv) Why is CD larger than AB? Question 3 a) A current carrying conductor is placed in an external magnetic field as shown below: (i) State your observation when the key is closed. [1] (ii) State the reason for your observation. [1] (iii) State an application of this phenomenon. [1] b) (i) A nucleus of 23$ 92 emits and alpha particle and decays into Thorium (Th). The nucleus of Th emits a beta particles and decays into Protactinium (Pa). (ii) Write the nuclear equation for these transformations. [2] When does the nucleus of an atom tend to be radioactive? [1] c) (i) Name the electrical component shown in the pictures above. [1] (ii) To which wire is this component connected? [1] (iii) What is the potential of the above stated wire? [1] (iv) Name the wire that is used for safety purposes. [1] Question 4 a) Study the arrangement given below. When the South pole of the magnet is moved towards the coil, the ammeter pointer moves to the left. b) c) (i) State two ways by which we can make the pointer move to the right. [2] (ii) How can we make the pointer switch faster between left and right? [1] In a 3-pin plug: (i) Why is the earthing pin thicker and longer than the other two pins? [2] (ii) State the colour code for the live wire as per the new convention. [1] The figure below shows two tuning forks of the same frequency mounted on two separate sound boxes with their open ends facing each other. Tuning fork A is set into vibrations. [4] (i) What will you observe when tuning fork, A is set into vibrations? (ii) Name the phenomenon that tuning fork B exhibits. (iii) State the reason for your answer in (ii). (iv) What would you observe if tuning fork, B is replaced with another tuning fork of adifferent frequency? Question 5 a) b) (i) State any two advantages of using an electromagnet. [2] (ii) State a device that uses an electromagnet. [1] Heat energy is supplied at a constant rate to 100 g of ice at 0 C. The ice is converted into water 0 C in 2 minutes. How much time will be required to raisethe temperature of water from 0 C to 20 C? (Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J/gK, latent heat capacity of ice = 336 J/g) c) [3] An electric kettle is rated 230 V, 1.5 kW . Find: (i) the current that flows through the heating element. [1] (ii) the heat that will be produced in 6 mins. [1] (iii) The power consumed if the line voltage falls to 180 V. [2] Question 6 a) b) c) (i) (i) State two medical uses of radio-isotopes and the isotopes used. (iii) State any one precaution to take while disposing radioactive waste. [1] State two similarities and one difference between beta rays and cathode rays. [3] On what basis can you differentiate between two sounds of the same pitch and loudness? (ii) [2] [1] The ratio of amplitudes of two sound waves of the note of middle G in air is 2:5. Find the ratio of their: 1. Pitch. 2. Loudness [3] 3. Velocity PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION-I (2021-2022) SUBJECT - CHEMISTRY Std.: X Max Marks: 40 Date: 15/01/2022 Duration: 1 1/2 h Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the Question Paper. The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. Section A is compulsory. Attempt any three questions from Section B. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in [ ]. SECTION A (Attempt all questions from this section.) Question 1 Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.) (i) (ii) [10] Elements Q and S combine together to form an ionic compound under normal conditions.Which of the following statements is likely to be true? [A] Both Q and S are metals [B] Q is a metal and S is a non-metal [C] One of Q and S has a lone pair of electrons [D] Both Q and S are non-metals The number of C-H bonds present in a propane molecule are: (iii) [A] 4 [C] 8 [B] 10 [D] 6 (iv) The IUPAC name of Ethylene is: (v) [A] Propane [B] Propyne [C] Ethene [D] Ethyne Carbon to carbon double bond is found in: [A] 2-butylene [B] Acetaldehyde [C] Acetic acid [D] Ethyl alcohol (vi) The metals Aluminium and magnesium are present in the alloy: [A] Duralumin [B] Magnalium [C] Brass [D] Stainless steel (vii) Dilute hydrochloric acid will produce a white precipitate when added to a solution of : [A] Silver nitrate [B] Zinc nitrate [C] Calcium nitrate [D] Sodium nitrate (viii) Substitution reaction is a characteristic property of: [A] Alkanes [B] Alkynes [C] Alkenes [D] Alcohols (ix) Hydrogen chloride can be obtained by adding concentrated sulphuric acid to: (x) [A] NaCl [B] Na2SO4 [C] Na2CO3 [D] NaNO3 Ammonia can be obtained by adding water to: [A] Ammonium chloride [B] Ammonium nitride [C] Magnesium nitride [D] Magnesium nitrate (xi) The formation of 1-2 dibromoethane from ethene and bromine is an example of: [A] substitution [B] Addition [C] Dehydration [D] Dehydrohalogenation SECTION B (Attempt any three questions from this Section.) Question 2 (a) (b) Define: (i) Isomerism (ii) Ores Name the compound formed when: (i) Sulphur trioxide reacts is absorbed in 98% Sulphuric acid in absorption tower during the manufacture of Sulphuric acid. (ii) Bauxite reacts with sodium hydroxide. [2] [2] (c) (d) Draw the structural diagram for each of the following: (i) Acetylene (ii) Acetic acid (iii) Iso-butane Write a balanced chemical equation for each of the following: (i) Catalytic oxidation of ammonia. (ii) Action of concentrated nitric acid on sulphur. [3] [3] (iii) Complete combustion of ethane. Question 3 (a) Identify the anion present in the following compounds. (i) [2] Compound Z which on reacting with dilute sulphuric acid liberates a gas which has no effect on acidified potassium dichromate but turns lime water milky. (ii) The solution of Compound L on reacting with freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution followed by addition of few drops of concentrated sulphuric acid to the reactants along the sides of a test tube forms a brown ring at thejunction of the two liquids. (b) State the conditions required for the following reactions to take place: [2] (i) Catalytic hydrogenation of ethyne. (ii) Halogenation of alkanes. (c) Answer the following questions with respect to the extraction of Aluminium using bauxite as the main ore. (i) [3] Write well balanced equation for the first step involved in the conversion of the aboveOre of aluminium in the Bayer s process. (ii) The aluminium oxide for the electrolytic extraction of aluminium is obtained byheating aluminium hydroxide. Write the equation for this reaction. (iii) What are the insoluble impurities formed in the first step of Bayer s process called? (d) State the observation for the following, when: (i) Excess of chlorine gas is reacted with ammonia gas. (ii) Ethene is passed through a solution of bromine in CCl4. (iii) Concentrated sulphuric acid is added to blue vitriol [3] Question 4 (a) Answer the following questions related to the extraction of aluminium by electrolysis: [2] (i) Give the equation for the reaction that takes place at the anode. (ii) Explain why it is necessary to renew the anode periodically. (b) Industrially, ammonia is prepared by Haber process. Following questions are based on Haber process: [2] (i) Name the promoter used in Haber process. What is the use of promoter in the reaction? (ii) Which is the favorable condition for the formation of ammonia: high pressure or low pressure? (c) Give the balanced equations for the following conversions A to E: A CuO Cu Cu(NO3)2 CuO A compound A when warmed with concentrated sulphuric acid gives a gas B which (d) fumes in moist air and gives dense white fumes with ammonia. [3] (i) Identify and name the compound A . (ii) Write the equation for the laboratory preparation of the above evolved gas B . (iii) State the property of gas B demonstrated by fountain experiment. Question 5 (a) Give one word for the following statements: [2] (i) The property of element by virtue of which atoms of the elements can link to each other in the form of a long chain or ring structure. (ii) Organic compounds containing CHO functional group. (b) The first step in the manufacture of nitric acid is the catalytic oxidation of ammonia. [2] (i) State the name of the industrial process which starts with the reaction above. (ii) What is the name of the catalyst? (c) Give reason for the following: [3] (i) Ethyne is more reactive than ethane. (ii) Sulphur trioxide is dissolved in conc. Sulphuric acid rather than water in the absorption tower during the Contact process. (iii) Barium chloride solution can be used to distinguish between dilute sulphuric acid and [3] dilute nitric acid. (d) Find the odd one out and explain your choice: [3] (i) Cryolite, Alumina, Fluorspar, Feldspar. (ii) Ethanoic acid, Nitric acid, Methanoic acid, Propanoic acid. (iii) C2H2, CH4, C2H6, C4H10. Question 6 (a) Name the following organic compound: [2] (i) The compound with 4 carbon atoms whose functional group is a acid. (ii) The first homologue whose general formula is CnH2n-2 (b) Give the IUPAC names for the following structures: [2] H3C CH CH2 CH2 Cl (i) CH3 H3C CHO (ii) (c) Select the correct answer from the brackets to complete the following statements: [3] (i) The catalyst used industrially which speeds up the conversion of sulphur dioxide to sulphur trioxide is (ii) [Platinum/ Vanadium pent oxide]. In Bayer s process the ore from which aluminium is extracted must first be treated with [NaOH/ Na2CO3] so that pure aluminium oxide can be obtained. (iii) Aqua regia is a mixture of one part of hydrochloric acid] and three parts of _ [conc. nitric acid /conc. [conc. nitric acid /conc. hydrochloricacid]. (d) Complete the table given below: [3] Name of the process Reactants (i) Nitrogen + hydrogen inthe ratio (1:3) (iii) Oleum + water Product formed (ii) Sulphuric acid PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION (2021-22) SUBJECT BIOLOGY Std.: X Date: 17/02/2022 Max Marks: 40 Duration: 1 hr. Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. Attempt all questions from Section A and any three questions from Section B. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. SECTION A (Attempt all questions.) Question 1 Multiple Choice Questions: 1. The respiratory pigment found in erythrocytes: A. Haemoglobin B. Xanthophil C. Carotene D. Anthocyanin 2. The innermost layer of meninges. A. Piamater B. Arachnoid layer C. Grey matter D. Duramater 3. Which part of the eye is grafted in a needy patient from a donated eye? A. Conjunctiva B. Cornea C. Choroid D. Ciliary muscles 4. Which one of the following is a simple reflex? A. Writing B. Dancing C. Eating D. Swallowing 5. The organ that produces urea. A. Liver B. Kidney C. Pancreas D. Heart [10] 6. A. B. C. D. is plasma devoid of fibrinogen. Perilymph Blood CSF Serum 7. The number of cranial nerves in humans. A. 12 pairs B. 31 pairs C. 33 pairs D. 10 pairs 8. The A. Alpha B. Beta C. Delta D. Gamma cells of the pancreas secrete insulin. 9. The basic unit of brain. A. Nephron B. Neuron C. Artery D. Vein 10. Photoreceptor cells that are sensitive to dim light A. Rods B. Cones C. Rhodopsin D. Iodopsin SECTION B (Attempt any three questions from this Section.) Question 2 (i) Explain the term Master gland . Write the function of oxytocin. (ii) What part of the nephron lies in the medulla and cortex? (iii) Which part of the ear is associated with: A. Static balance B. Dynamic balance C. Transferring the impulse to the brain (iv) Given below is a diagrammatic representation of a certain part of the process of circulation of blood in man. Study the same and then answer the questions that follow: [2] [2] [3] [3] A. Name the parts labelled 6. B. Give the number and name of the vessel which contains the maximum amount of urea a few hours after a protein rich meal. C. Mention one structural difference between blood vessels 3 and 8 . Question 3 (i) Draw and label an Eosinophil and a Monocyte. (ii) Where is Tricuspid valve located? What is its function? (iii) Study the diagram given below and answer the following questions. [2] [2] [3] A. Name the parts labelled 1, 2, 3, and 4. B. Name one organic and one inorganic constituents of the fluid that flows down the part labelled 1. (iv) Give the exact location of: [3] A. Adrenal glands. B. Pancreas C. Thyroid gland Question 4 (i) Draw and label a neuron. [2] (ii) Differentiate between dark and light adaptation by writing the name of the pigment which is regenerated. [2] (iii) Write any three effects observed when Sympathetic system is in action. [3] (iv) Write the full form of: [3] A. ACTH B. LH C. FSH Question 5 (i) How are cytons and axons arranged in the Brain and spinal cord. [2] (ii) Define negative Feedback with the help of an example. [2] (iii) Draw a diagram to show myopia and its correction using a lens. [3] (iv) Write any three functions of tears. [3] Question 6 (i) Write the name of the disorder caused by hypersecretion and hyposecretion of somatotropin. (ii) [2] Define: [2] A. Diapedesis B. Phagocytosis (iii) Draw and label a reflex arc. [3] (iv) Write the function of: [3] A. Hypothalamus B. Organ of Corti C. Glucagon Page 2 of 3 PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION (2021-2022) SUBJECT HISTORY & CIVICS Std.: X Max Marks: 40 Date:10/02/2022 Duration:1 # hr. You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. Attempt all questions from Part I (Compulsory). A total of three questions are to be attempted from Part II, one out of two questions from Section A and two out of three questions from Section B. The marks intended for questions are given i.e. questions from Section B.The marks intended for questions are given in brackets [ ]. PART I (Attempt all questions from this Part.) Question 1 Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. [10] Q1. Which amongst the following is not the reason of President s Indirect Election? a) He would become a rival centre of power to the Council of Ministers. b) As the membership of the house would be dominated by a majority party, his election would make him a nominee of the ruling party. c) His election is through the electoral college which represents the whole nation. d) President is impeached by 2/3rd members of both the Houses. Q2. a) b) c) d) Under which Article can the President promulgate Ordinances? Article 122 Article 123 Article 120 Article 121 Q3. a) b) c) d) The most important members of the Council of MinistersCabinet Ministers Ministers of State Deputy Ministers Parliamentary Secretaries Q4. a) b) c) d) This order is issued by the Supreme Court when a person has usurped an office: Quo-Warranto Mandamus Writ of Prohibition Habeas Corpus Page 3 of 3 Q5. Which of the following is not the qualification required for the judge of the Supreme Court? a) Citizen Of India b) The person should be 30 years of age. c) Has served as an advocate of the High Court or two or more such courts for at least 10 years. d) Is, in the opinion of the President a distinguished Jurist. Q6. a) b) c) d) The countries which were not a part of the Allied PowersGermany Russia France Britain Q7. a) b) c) d) According to the Treaty of Versailles the Navy was limited to20,000 men 15,000 men 17,000 men 14,000 men Q8. a) b) c) d) The Principal Judicial organ of the UN General Assembly Security Council International Court of Justice Secretariat Q9. a) b) c) d) WHO was established in the year? 1950 1948 1946 1944 Q10. The full form of NAMa) Non-Aligned Movement b) Non-Associated Movement c) Not Aligned Movement d) No way aligned Movement PART-II Section-II (Attempt any one question from this Section.) Question 2 Indian Judicial system is an integral one. In reference to this statement answer the following questions. a) b) c) d) What is the composition of the Supreme Court? Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court? [2] What are the advantages of the Lok Adalat? [2] What is Original Jurisdiction? Mention two type of cases which come under Original Jurisdiction. [3] Explain the differences between the Court of District Judge and Sessions Judge. [3] Page 4 of 3 Question 3 The President is Constitutional head of the state with the executive powers in the hands of the Cabinet , in reference to this statement answer the following questions: a) b) c) d) Mention any two qualifications required for the election of the Vice-President. Mention any two ways in which the Parliament controls the Executive. Mention any three Legislative powers of the President. Mention the differences between Council of Ministers and Cabinet. [2] [2] [3] [3] SECTION B (Attempt any two questions from this Section.) Question 4 After the Second World War the world was called a Bipolar world, In reference to this statement answer the following questions. a) Explain the term NAM . [2] b) When and where was the First Summit of NAM held? [2] c) Name the founding fathers of NAM [3] d) What were the objectives of the NAM? [3] Question 5 Look at the picture given and answer the questions that follow: a) b) c) d) What was the name of this organisation? When was it established? Explain the composition of the Security Council. Mention any three functions of the General Assembly. Mention any three functions of the UNESCO in the field of science. [2] [2] [3] [3] Question 6 The world wars led to massive destructions, with reference to this statement answer the following questions: a) Mention two reasons why Hitler invaded Poland. [2] b) Mention any two points of similarities between the ideologies of Fascism and Nazism. [2] c) Explain any three terms of the Treaty of Versailles. [3] d) Explain any three causes that led to World war-I. [3] e) Std: X Date: 16/02/2022 PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMLINARY EXAMINATION -I (2021-2022) SUBJECT GEOGRAPHY Max Marks: 40 Attempt all questions from Section A and any three questions from Section B. The marks intended for questions are given in brackets [ ] SECTION A ( Attempt all questions.) Question 1 On the outline map of India provided mark and name the following: [10] (i) Western Ghats. (ii) River Kosi. (iii) Shade and label the Gulf of Khambat. (iv) Shade and label the Coromandel Coast (v) The Longitude 82 E. (vi) Mark and label Chennai. (vii) Karakoram Pass. (viii) Mark and name the Jharia coal field. (ix) Shade and label the Thar Desert. (x) Mark and label the Deccan Plateau. SECTION B (Attempt any three questions from this Section.) Question 2 (i) (a) Give any one use of Copper. (b) Mention one advantage of using biogas as a source of power. (ii) What grade of Iron is mostly in India? Name two states that lead in the production of Iron Ore. (iii) With reference to Hirakud dam answer the following: (a) On which river is it situated? (b) Odisha has been benefitted greatly from the Hirakud project. Justify the statement giving two reasons. (iv) (a) State two disadvantages of using coal as a source of power. (b) Why is there a need to conserve minerals? [2] [2] [3] [3] Question 3 (i) What are the climatic conditions required for the growth of wheat? (ii) Name any two agricultural seasons of India, with one example of crop. [2] [2] (iii) With reference to Cotton cultivation answer the following: (a) Name the soil found suitable for its growth. (b) Name the two leading producers of this crop in India. (c) Define Ginning. (iv) Give reasons for each of the following: (i) Tea bushes have to be pruned at regular intervals (ii) Ratoon cropping is popular in sugarcane. (iii) Rice is not the main crop of the Deccan Plateau. [3] [3] Question 4 (i) Differentiate between public sector and private sector industry giving suitable example for each from India. (ii) State any two factors for the migration of the sugar industry to the South India. (iii) With reference to Tata Iron and steel plant answer the following: (a) Name the state in which it is located. (b) Name the mines from where iron ore is obtained. (c) Name the mines from where coal is obtained. (iv) (a)Why are petrochemical products growing in popularity? (b) State the importance of electronics industry in the field of Education in our country. [2] [2] [3] [3] Question 5 (i) Give two ways in which rail transport is useful for the people of India. [2] (ii) Give two reasons for the means of transport being called the lifelines of a nation s Economy. [2] (iii) (a) Why are South Indian rivers not ideal for water transport? (b) Mention one advantage of Coastal Shipping. [3] (iv) Give three reasons to why airways are becoming a popular means of Transport. [3] Question 6 (i) Why is there a need for safe waste disposal in India? (Two points) (ii) How can waste be reduced? Explain with the help of an example. (iii) Give a reason for each of the following: (a) We should avoid using polythene bags. (b) Chemical fertilizers be replaced by organic manure. (c) Sugarcane waste can be recycled into useful products. (iv) What do you mean by the following terms: (a) Composting (b) Segregation (c) Dumping [2] [2] [3] [3] 1 of 5 2 of 5 PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE MOCK TEST (2021-22) SUBJECT-ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE STD: X 40 Date: 08/02/2022 hr Max. Marks: Duration: 1 Maximum Marks: 40 Time allowed: One and a half hours Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. _______________________________________________________________________ Attempt all questions from the Section A and any three questions from Section B. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets []. _______________________________________________________________________ Section A ( Attempt all questions from this section) Choose the correct answer to the question from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only) 1) Which one is not appropriate for CNG ? a. odourless and smoke b. more efficient c. the fuel tank is light in weight d. Lighter than air so it can be stored safely 2) The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands was signed here. a. Cairo b. India c. Iran d. Brazil 3) Which one of them is not an advantage of satellite Remote Sensing? a. solves the problem of drought and flood b. inaccessible places can be studied c. repetitive coverage can be done d. images obtained can be used as permanent records 4) This nuclear disaster was triggered due to the earthquake and the tsunami that occurred in the Northern part of Japan a. Fukushima nuclear disaster b. Chernobyl nuclear disaster c. Kyshtym nuclear disaster d. Windscale nuclear disaster 5) Large amount of heat energy is stored in the lower layers of the earth's crust. This is called ________ energy. a. Biomass b. Biogas c. Nuclear 3 of 5 d. Geothermal 6) It is a type of incinerator used for burning waste. a. Rotary kiln b. Plate Tower c. Cyclone separator d. Electrostatic precipitator 7) Ozone depletion occurs from which layer of the atmosphere? a. Troposphere b. Stratosphere c. Mesosphere d. Thermosphere 8) _________is the technology of acquiring information about the Earth's surface without actually being in contact with it. a. Geographic information system b. Global positioning system c. Remote Sensing d. Ground penetrating radar 9) Which is the first Indian Remote Sensing satellite? a. Bhaskara b. IRS-1A c. Cartosat -1 d. Resourcesat-1 10) Periyar National Park is situated in this state. a. Kerala b. Karnataka c. Madhya Pradesh d. Uttaranchal Section B (Attempt any three questions from this section) Question 2 i. Define biodiversity. ii. Why is nuclear fusion comparatively better than nuclear fission? iii. Mention the characteristics of MNCs. iv. Write three advantages of gasohol. [2] [2] [3] [3] Question 3 i. Name the different types of solid waste. ii. Name any two agreements for environmental protection. iii. Write a short note on CITES. iv. What is international trade? Write its benefits. [2] [2] [3] [3] Question 4 i. Write the full form of the given abbreviations- IUCN and PETA ii. What is the importance of wildlife? iii. Describe any three human activities that affect earth s resources. iv. Write a short note on Montreal protocol. [2] [2] [3] [3] 4 of 5 Question 5 i. What is the meaning of ex -situ conservation? Give an example. ii. What are the provisions under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972? iii. How can biotechnology help in waste treatment? iv. Write three disadvantages of methanol. [2] [2] [3] [3] Question 6 i. Why is conserving energy important on a global level? ii. Give two examples to show that reuse strategy is beneficial. iii. What is aerobic composting? Give two disadvantages of the same. iv. Write the objectives of the Convention on biological diversity. [2] [2] [3] [3] 5 of 5 Std.: X Date: 12/02/2022 PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPASAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION (2021-2022) SUBJECT: PHYSICAL EDUCATION Max. Marks:50 Duration: 11/2 hr Answer questions from any two games you have studied. Each game is divided into two Sections, SECTION A and SECTION B. Attempt all questions from SECTION A and any two questions from SECTION B of the two games that you have studied. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. CRICKET SECTION A (Attempt all questions.) Question 1 Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.) [5] (i) Where is the headquarter of BCCI? (a) Mumbai (b) Delhi (c) Kolkata (d) Pune. (ii) What is the weight of Cricket ball? (a) 150-160 grams (b) 155-163 grams (c) 156-163 grams (d) 156-165 grams. (iii) The terms used when a batsman gets out while facing the first delivery of the innings (a) Duck (b) Golden Duck (c) Rabbit (d) Ferret. (iv) What is the full form of IPL? (a) International Premier League (b) Interschool Premier League (c) Interstate Premier League (d) Indian Premier League (v) For which hand signal umpire touches his tip of one hand to same shoulder? (a) One shot (b) Power play (c) Leg byes 6 of 5 (d) Free hit. SECTION B (Attempt any two questions from this Section.) Question 2 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) What is maiden over in cricket? Explain the term night watchman. State any three duties of leg umpire. State any three conditions in which runs are added in team s total and not to the batsman s total. [2] [2] [3] [3] Question 3 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Differentiate between five days and four days test match. Explain the term Yorker. State any three variations of fast bowling. Write down any six fielding positions on off side in cricket. [2] [2] [3] [3] Question 4 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Explain the roll of third umpire in a match. Mention any four equipments used in cricket. Write a short note on follow on in five day test match cricket. Name any three strokes played by the batsman in cricket. [2] [2] [3] [3] FOOTBALL SECTION A (Attempt all questions.) Question 5 Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.) [5] (i) What is the diameter of center circle? (a) 9 m (b) 18 m (c) 7.32 m (d) 2.44 m (ii) What is the circumference of football? (a) 68-71.12 cm (b) 68-72 cm (c) 67-71.21 cm (d) 68-72.12 cm (iii) What is height of goalpost from ground? (a) 24 ft (b) 16 ft (c) 21 ft (d) 8 ft (iv) What is the way to start the football match? 7 of 5 (a) Kick off (b) Penalty kick (c) Corner kick (d) Free kick (v) The term used when a referee holds yellow card above head. (a) Play on (b) Expulsion (c) Offside (d) Caution SECTION B (Attempt any two questions from this Section.) Question 6 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Explain the term extra time. Explain the term outer circle . Give any three offences for which yellow card is shown to a player. State any three ways of trapping the ball. [2] [2] [3] [3] Question 7 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Explain the term dribbling. When is the ball considered out of play? State any three situations when direct free kick is awarded. Explain the term sudden death. [2] [2] [3] [3] Question 8 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) List any two National and International governing bodies. Explain the term Technical area. What are the duties of the referee before the match? Write a short note on Subroto cup. [2] [2] [3] [3] BASKETBALL SECTION A (Attempt all questions.) Question 9 Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.) [5] (i) What is the weight of basketball? (a) 600-640 gm (b) 500-550 gm (c) 600-650 gm (d) 500-600 gm 8 of 5 (ii) What is the duration of extra period? (a) 10 min (b) 15 min (c) 20 min (d) 5 min (iii) How many time outs are there in second half of the basketball match? (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 1 (iv) What is the radius of centre circle? (a) 3.6 m (b) 1.8 m (c) 3.5 m (d) 7.32 m (v) The term used when a ball that is alive but not in the possession of either team. (a) Hold ball (b) Loose ball (c) Dead ball (d) Carry SECTION B (Attempt any two questions from this Section.) Question 10 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Explain the term three second rule. Name any four fundamental skills in Basketball. State any three occasions when ball becomes dead during the match. Define the team triple threat. [2] [2] [3] [3] Question 11 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) What is meant by back court. . Explain the term clean shot in basketball. What is duration of the game? How is the time divided? Mention any three duties of scorer in a basketball match. [2] [2] [3] [3] Question 12 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) List any two International tournaments.. Briefly explain the 24 second rule. Write a short note on dribbling. Explain the baseball pass in basketball. [2] [2] [3] [3] VOLLEYBALL SECTION A (Attempt all questions.) 9 of 5 Question 13 Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.) [5] (i) What is the length of antenna? (a) 1.80 m (b) 1.08 m (c) 2.10 m (d) 1.50 m (ii) A player who wears a different uniform other than his team mates is called? (a) Attacker (b) Setter (c) Blocker (d) Libero (iii) For which hand signal umpire makes a circular motion with the forefinger. (a) Substitution (b) Rotation fault (c) Change of courts (d) Catch (iv) What is the height of net for women? (a) 2.25 m (b) 2.10 m (c) 2.43 m (d) 2.24 m (v) What are the length and width of volleyball court? (a) 28 m * 15 m (b) 18 m * 10 m (c) 20 m * 15 m (d) 18 m * 9 m SECTION B (Attempt any two questions from this Section.) Question 14 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Explain the term front zone. Briefly explain the double block in volleyball. Differentiate between service zone and substitution zone. Write a short note on team composition. [2] [2] [3] [3] Question 15 (i) Explain the term back zone. (ii) Write a short note on bump pass. (iii) Explain any three types of services used in volleyball. (iv) State any three blocking faults. [2] [2] [3] [3] Question 16 (i) Explain the term Screening in Volleyball. (ii) Write a short note on Indian Volleyball League. (iii) List any three faults that a player is likely to commit while playing the ball. [2] [2] [3] 10 of 5 (iv) Briefly explain the term technical time-out. [3] BADMINTON SECTION A (Attempt all questions.) Question 17 Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.) [5] (i) What is the weight of shuttle? (a) 4.74 5.50 gm (b) 4.50 5.50 gm (c) 4 5 gm (d) 4.60 5.60 gm (ii) The term used to indicate zero in scoring. (a) Flick (b) Lunge (c) Love (d) All (iii) When BAI was formed? (a) 1920 (b) 1934 (c) 1936 (d) 1951 (iv) What is the height of net? (a) 5 ft (b) 6 ft (c) 5.5 ft (d) 6.5 ft (v) What is the another name for shuttle cock? (a) Feather (b) Deuce (c) Love (d) Bird SECTION B (Attempt any two questions from this Section.) Question 18 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Explain the term Court. ` State the various National and International tournaments. Write a short note on BWF. Briefly explain the types of services. [2] [2] [3] [3] Question 19 11 of 5 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Explain the term wood shot.` Write a short note on racket. Write any three situations when shuttle is not in play. Mention any three duties of the umpire. [2] [2] [3] [3] Question 20 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Define the term short serve. What do you mean by net lift. Explain the term underhand backhand stroke. Write a short note on Thomas cup. [2] [2] [3] [3] 12 of 5 PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION (2021-22) SUBJECT: ECONOMICS Std. X Marks: 40 Date: 21/02/2022 hr. Max. Duration: 1 Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. Attempt all questions from Section A and any three questions from Section B. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. SECTION A (Attempt all questions.) Question 1 Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.) [10] (i) _____________ is one of the primary functions of Commercial Banks. a) Accepting Deposits b) Buying and selling of foreign currency c) Acts as trustee d) Collection of funds (ii) When a currency note or notes of particular denomination ceases to be a legal tender, it is termed as __________________. a) Demonetization b) Withdrawal c) Denomination d) Elimination (iii) Not providing after sales service despite the necessary payment is Consumer _______________. a) Education b) Exploitation c) Awareness d) Right (iv) In the term Public Finance, the word Public is used to signify the ____________. a) People b) Government c) Region d) Nation (v) A tax is a _____________________ collection by the government. a) Legal 13 of 5 b) Voluntary c) Optional d) Personal (vi) ____________ acts as a banker to the government. a) Central Bank b) Commercial Bank c) Cooperative Bank d) Industrial Bank (vii) a) b) c) d) Increase in Defence Expenditure leads to increase in __________________. Public revenue Public debts Public income Public expenditure (viii) When the prices rise at a very fast rate from more than 20 to 100 percent per annum or more, it is called ________________ inflation. a) Creeping b) Walking c) Running d) Hyper (ix) Public Debts is a government ____________. a) Revenue b) Expenditure c) Program d) Scheme (x) Checking the quality and guarantee card of a product is a ________ of a consumer. a) Right b) Duty c) Knowledge d) Option SECTION B (Answer any three questions from this Section.) Question 2: a) What do you mean by Public Finance? [2] b) How are taxes important? [2] c) What are the reasons for the growth of Public Expenditure? [3] d) Write any three objectives of Demonetization. [3] Question 3: 14 of 5 a) Explain how credit is created by Commercial Bank on the basis of Secondary Deposits. [2] b) Differentiate between Direct and Indirect Taxes. [2] c) Explain first three stages of Inflation. [3] d) Write any three harmful effects of Food Adulteration. [3] Question 4: a) Write a short note on GST. [2] b) What is Public Expenditure? [2] c) Explain any three Consumers Rights. [3] d) Write any three points of difference between Central Bank and Commercial Banks. [3] Question 5: a) What is the significance of Public Revenue? [2] b) Differentiate between Redeemable and Irredeemable debts. [2] c) Explain any three functions of Commercial Bank. [3] d) Write any three effects of Inflation on Production. [3] Question 6: a) Write the meaning of Proportional Tax and Progressive Tax. [2] b) Write any two reasons for Consumer exploitation. [2] c) Explain the role of Central Bank as a Banker to the Bank. [3] d) What are Public Debts? Write about Internal Debts and External Debts. [3] 15 of 5 PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION (2021-22) SUBJECT: COMMERCIAL APPLICATIONS Std. X Marks: 50 Date: 12/02/2022 hr. Max. Duration: 1 Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. SECTION A (Attempt all questions.) Question 1 Choose the correct answer to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question. Write the correct answer only.) i) Income and Expenditure Account shows the _______________ of the organization. a) Profit and loss b) Capital gain c) Surplus and deficit d) Cash position ii) ____________ is the direct method of recruitment. a) Field recruitment b) Advertisement c) Trade union d) Employment exchange iii) _____________ is a two-way process. a) Recruitment b) Selection c) Training d) Placement iv) ______________ makes the people environmentally conscious. a) Moral values b) Emotional values c) Future values d) Environmental values v) Central Bank is a _______________ bank. a) People s b) Industrial c) Government s d) Commercial vi) Receipts and Payment account shows the ___________ of the organization. a) Debtors 16 of 5 b) Creditors c) Bad debts d) Cash position vii) __________ Act states the rights of the consumers. a) RIT b) Consumer Protection c) RTE d) Companies viii) Cheque book is issued to the _____________ account holders. a) Current b) Fixed c) Recurring d) Running ix) Human resource management is the management of __________. a) Outside people b) People at work c) Ex-employee d) Trade union x) ___________ shows the assets and liabilities of the organization. a) Trading account b) Receipts and Payment account c) Income and expenditure account d) Balance sheet SECTION B (Answer any four questions from this Section.) Question 2 a) State any two points of differences between Central Bank and Commercial Bank. [2] b) Write any two demerits of Internal sources of Recruitment. [2] c) Write any three uses of a Balance Sheet. [3] d) Explain Food Adulteration by giving three examples. [3] Question 3 a) Justify either for or against by giving a reason for the following statement. [2] External source of recruitment does not offer a wider choice in the selection of candidates. b) State any two features of Human Resources. [2] c) Briefly explain any three elements of Public Relation. [3] d) Write the importance of three Rs , Reduce, Reuse and Recycle for a healthy environment. [3] Question 4 a) What do you mean by Structured Interview and Group Interview? b) Differentiate between Saving deposit account and Current deposit account. [2] [2] 17 of 5 c) Write any three functions of a Central Bank. [3] d) Explain in short about Field recruitment, Walk-in Interview and Posters & Billboards as a Direct method of recruitment. [3] Question 5 a) State any one point of difference between Income & Expenditure Account and Receipt & Payment Account. [2] b) Justify either for or against by giving a reason for the following statement. [2] Sound Human Resource Management has a great significance for the society. c) Explain the importance of Distributor s relation with Organization. [3] d) Write in short about any three Consumer s Right. [3] Question 6 a) Write any two features of Receipt & Payment account. [2] b) What are the characteristics of Public Relation? [2] c) Write any three functions of Human Resource Management. [3] d) What are the benefits of Consumer s Education? [3] Question 7: Case Study PharmEasy was founded in 2015 by Dharmil Sheth and Dr. Dhaval Shah to the chronic care segment and offers a range of services such as teleconsultation, medicine deliveries, and sample collections for diagnostic tests. It connects over 60K brick-and-mortar pharmacies and 4K doctors in 16K postal codes across India. The platform also offers a SaaS* solution for pharmacies to use in procurement combined with delivery and logistics support, and credit solutions. It claims to have served over 20 Mn patients since its inception. (*SaaS Software as a service, is a way of delivering applications over the internet-as a service.) In reference to the above case, answer the following questions: a) What type of Bank account PharmEasy should have? [2] b) Do you think, Customer Relation is necessary for PharmEasy? Why? [2] c) Suggest a suitable source of recruitment to PharmEasy to hire doctors. Justify your suggestion by giving two reasons. [3] What services PharmEasy offers to its customers? [3] 18 of 5 PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION (2021-2022) SUBJECT COMPUTER APPLICATIONS Max. Marks: 50 Duration: 1 hr. 30 min. Std.: X Date: 23/02/2022 Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. SECTION A (Attempt all questions.) Question 1 Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.) (i) By default, (a) java.io (b) java.net (c) java.util (d) java.lang [10] package is imported in a Java program. (ii) State the value of y after the following is executed: char ch = 'A'; char chr = Character.toLowerCase(ch); int n = (int)chr-32; System.out.println((char)n + "\t" + chr); (a) 65 A (b) A 97 (c) A a (d) 97 a 19 of 5 (iii) Give the output of the following string methods: "VIDYALAYA".substring(2,5); (a) DYA (b) IDYA (c) IDY (d) DYAL (iv) Automatic conversion of primitive data into an object of wrapper class is called: (a) autoboxing (b) explicit conversion (c) shifting (d) unboxing (v) The process of wrapping code and data together into a single unit is termed as: (a) Encapsulation (b) Inheritance (c) Polymorphism (d) Abstraction (vi) The following statement : (a) assigns 37 to code[1] (b) assigns 25 to code[1] (c) assigns 38 to code[3] (d) assigns 42 to code[0] int code[ ]= {25,37,38,42}; (vii) A variable that is bounded to the object itself is called as: (a) Instance variable (b) Static variable (c) Local variable (d) Argument variable 20 of 5 (viii) The access modifier that gives least accessibility is: (a) private (b) public (c) protected (d) package (ix) Give the output of the following code: String s = "7"; int t = Integer.parseInt(s); t = t + 1000; System.out.println(t); (a) 1116 (b) 1007 (c) 7+ 1000 (d) 116+1000 (x) A package contains: (a) tags (b) classes (c) data (d) arrays SECTION B (Attempt any four questions.) Question 2 [10] Write a program to initialize a character array with five uppercase vowel letters and an integer array with the position of these vowels in the alphabetical order. Search for a particular vowel input by the user in the character array. If found, display the vowel by converting it to its opposite case along with its position in the alphabetical order, otherwise display Sorry not found! . Vowels: A, E, I, O, U Position of vowels in Alphabetical order: 1, 5, 9, 15, 21 21 of 5 Question 3 [10] Write a program in Java to accept a word from user and display the ASCII code of each character of the word. Sample Input: BLUEJ Sample Output: ASCII of B = 66 ASCII of L = 76 ASCII of U = 85 ASCII of E = 69 ASCII of J = 74 Question 4 [10] Write a program in Java to accept two integer arrays P[ ] and Q[ ] with size m and n respectively and join or merge them into a third array R[ ]. Example: Input: P[ ] = {5, 6, 45, 17, 2, 58, 33}; Q[ ] = {13, 25, 1, 0, 7, 9}; Output: The final Array after joining is : R[ ] = {5, 6, 45, 17, 2, 58, 33, 13, 25, 1 , 0, 7 , 9} Question 5 [10] Write a program to accept a string. Convert the string into uppercase letters. Count and output the number of double letter sequences that exist in the string. Example: Input : SHE WAS FEEDING THE LITTLE RABBIT WITH AN APPLE Output : Number of double letter sequences=4 Question 6 [10] Write a program to enter a sentence and display the sentence in reversing order of its word Example: Input: Computer is Fun Output: Fun is Computer 22 of 5 Question 7 [10] Define a class StringArray to accept and store 5 strings into the array and print the stringspresent at even position in that array. Example: Input: Hello, Good Morning, Hi, Bye, Thank You Output: Good Morning, Bye 1 of 5 PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE. PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION (2021-22) SUBJECT- ART (PAPER I) Still Life Std.: X Date: 12/02/2022 Max. Marks:100 Duration: 3hr Answer to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 5 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. Drawing or Painting form Still life This paper is for the use of only the supervising Examiner, in consultation with the Art Teacher. The question paper consists of one sheet printed on one side. Candidates must be instructed that ruling by any means whatsoever is forbidden. The candidate s Index number must be written clearly on the top right-hand corner of the front surface of the paper. The intended marks for question or parts of questions are given in bracket [] Candidates may attempt the question either Theme A or Theme B [100] EITHER Theme A A detailed study to be made of Pot, bunch of grapes and handkerchief. Candidates should drawand paint the Composition from sight in relation to its natural background. Special attention should be paid to light source, technique, structure, tone and colour. OR Theme B A detailed study of Grapes over pot, pear and grapes. Candidates should draw and paint the Composition from sight in relation to its natural background. Special attention should be paid to light source, technique, structure, tone and colour. A suitable colour drapery should be used for theforeground and background. 2 of 5

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