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UGC NETJUN 2014 : GENERAL PAPER

15 pages, 120 questions, 116 questions with responses, 310 total responses,

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Signature and Name of Invigilator PAPER-I 1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................ (To be filled by the Candidate) (Name) ____________________________ 2. (Signature) __________________________ Roll No. (In figures as per admission card) (Name) ____________________________ J 00 1 4 Roll No.________________________________ (In words) Test Booklet Code Time : 1 1/4 hours] Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Instructions for the Candidates 1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of questions, out of which the candidate would be required to answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal / polythene bag on the booklet. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal / without polythene bag and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Code should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given inside this Booklet, which is common for Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means such as change of response by scratching or using white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the original OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are however, allowed to carry original question booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions, English version will be taken as final. W-00 W [Maximum Marks : 100 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60 1. 2. - (60) , (50) 3. , - - , : (i) - / - / (ii) - / - - (iii) - OMR OMR - 4. (A), (B), (C) (D) : (C) 5. - I - II OMR OMR OMR , 6. 7. (Rough Work) 8. OMR , , , , , 9. OMR - OMR 10. / 11. ( ) 12. 13. , P.T.O. Paper I I Note : This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks. Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions. In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will be evaluated. : (60) (2) (50) (50) (50) 1. 1. Break-down in verbal communication is described as (A) (A) Short circuit (B) (B) Contradiction (C) (C) Unevenness (D) (D) Entropy 2. The Telephone Model of Communication was first developed in the area of (A) Technological theory (B) Dispersion theory (C) Minimal effects theory (D) Information theory 2. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 3. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for 2013 has been conferred on (A) Karan Johar (B) Amir Khan (C) Asha Bhonsle (D) Gulzar 3. 2013 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 4. Photographs are not easy to (A) publish (B) secure (C) decode (D) change 4. - _____ (A) (B) (C) (D) 5. The grains that appear on a television set when operated are also referred to as (A) sparks (B) green dots (C) snow (D) rain drops 5. , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 6. In circular communication, the encoder becomes a decoder when there is (A) noise (B) audience (C) criticality (D) feedback 6. (A) (B) (C) (D) W-00 2 7. (A) 19 QUESTION DOMESTIC , RESPONSE ? (B) 20 (C) 23 ` 7, ` 8 ` 10 ? (A) 19 (B) 20 (C) 23 (D) 29 8. 7. In a post-office, stamps of three different denominations of ` 7, ` 8, ` 10 are available. The exact amount for which one cannot buy stamps is (D) 29 8. In certain coding method, the word QUESTION is encoded as DOMESTIC. In this coding, what is the code word for the word RESPONSE ? (A) OMESUCEM (A) OMESUCEM (B) OMESICSM (B) OMESICSM (C) OMESICEM (C) OMESICEM (D) OMESISCM (D) OMESISCM 9. 9. If the series 4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22, .... is continued in the same pattern, which one of the following is not a term of this series ? (A) 31 (A) 31 (B) (C) (B) 32 (C) 33 4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22, ........ , ? 32 (D) 35 (D) 35 10. 10. Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML, PP, ...........by choosing one of the following option given : 33 BB, FE, II, ML, PP, ........... : (A) TS (B) ST (A) TS (B) (C) RS (D) SR (C) (D) SR 11. 11. A man started walking from his house towards south. After walking 6 km, he turned to his left and walked 5 km. Then he walked further 3 km after turning left. He then turned to his left and continued his walk for 9 km. How far is he away from his house ? (A) 3 km (B) 4 km (C) 5 km (D) 6 km W-00 3 RS ST 6 5 3 9 ? (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6 P.T.O. (A) 32 (B) 36 50 99 2 7 ? (C) 40 (D) 38 (A) 32 (C) 40 12. One writes all numbers from 50 to 99 without the digits 2 and 7. How many numbers have been written ? 12. 13. - - (A) (B) (C) (D) 13. If a large diamond is cut up into little bits, it will lose its value just as an army is divided up into small units of soldiers, it loses its strength. The argument put above may be called as (A) Analogical (B) Deductive (C) Statistical (D) Causal 14. Given below are some characteristics of logical argument. Select the code which expresses a characteristic which is not of inductive in character. 14. (A) (D) The conclusion is based on observation and experiment. 15. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms can both be true but can not both be false, the relation between those two propositions is called 15. : (D) (C) The conclusion conclusively follows from its premises. (C) (B) The conclusion is based on causal relation. (B) (A) The conclusion is claimed to follow from its premises. , , , ? (A) (B) contrary (B) (C) subcontrary (C) - (D) subaltern (D) (A) contradictory W-00 (B) 36 (D) 38 4 16. Given below are two premises and four conclusions drawn from those premises. Select the code that expresses conclusion drawn validly from the premises (separately or jointly). Premises : (a) All dogs are mammals. (b) No cats are dogs. Conclusions : (i) No cats are mammals. (ii) Some cats are mammals. (iii) No dogs are cats. (iv) No dogs are non-mammals. Codes : (A) (i) only (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii) 16. - - ( ) - : : (a) (b) : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) - : (A) (i) (B) (i) (ii) (C) (iii) (iv) (D) (ii) (iii) 17. Given below is a diagram of three circles A, B & C inter-related with each other. The circle A represents the class of Indians, the circle B represents the class of scientists and circle C represents the class of politicians. p, q, r, s ... represent different regions. Select the code containing the region that indicates the class of Indian scientists who are not politicians. 17. A, B C A , B C p, q, r, s..... , : Codes : (A) q and s only (B) s only (C) s and r only (D) p, q and s only W-00 q s (B) s (C) s r (D) p, q s (A) 5 P.T.O. 18 22 ( ) Read the following table carefully. Based upon this table answer questions from 18 to 22 : Net Area under Irrigation by sources in a country (Thousand Hectares) Year Govern-Private Tanks Tube ment canals canals Other Total wells & sources other wells 1997-98 1998-99 1999-00 2000-01 2001-02 2002-03 2003-04 2004-05 2005-06 17117 17093 16842 15748 15031 13863 14444 14696 15268 211 212 194 203 209 206 206 206 207 2593 2792 2535 2449 2179 1802 1908 1727 2034 32090 33988 34623 33796 34906 34250 35779 34785 35372 3102 3326 2915 2880 4347 3657 4281 7453 7314 55173 57411 57109 55076 56672 53778 56618 58867 60196 18. Which of the following sources of Irrigation has registered the largest percentage of decline in Net area under irrigation during 1997-98 and 2005-06 ? (A) Government canals (B) Private canals (C) Tanks (D) Other sources 19. Find out the source of Irrigation that has registered the maximum improvement in terms of percentage of Net irrigated area during 2002-03 and 2003-04. (A) Government canals (B) Tanks (C) Tube wells and other wells (D) Other sources 20. In which of the following years, Net irrigation by tanks increased at the highest rate ? (A) 1998-99 (B) 2000-01 (C) 2003-04 (D) 2005-06 21. Identify the source of Irrigation that has recorded the maximum incidence of negative growth in terms of Net irrigated area during the years given in the table. (A) Government canals (B) Private canals (C) Tube wells and other wells (D) Other sources 22. In which of the following years, share of the tube wells and other wells in the total net irrigated area was the highest ? (A) 1998-99 (B) 2000-01 (C) 2002-03 (D) 2004-05 W-00 1997-98 1998-99 1999-00 2000-01 2001-02 2002-03 2003-04 2004-05 2005-06 17117 17093 16842 15748 15031 13863 14444 14696 15268 211 212 194 203 209 206 206 206 207 2593 2792 2535 2449 2179 1802 1908 1727 2034 32090 33988 34623 33796 34906 34250 35779 34785 35372 3102 55173 3326 57411 2915 57109 2880 55076 4347 56672 3657 53778 4281 56618 7453 58867 7314 60196 1997-98 2005-06 ( ) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 19. 2002-03 2003-04 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 20. ? 18. (A) 1998-99 (C) 2003-04 (B) 2000-01 (D) 2005-06 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 22. ? 21. (A) 1998-99 (C) 2002-03 6 (B) 2000-01 (D) 2004-05 23. . . . ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 24. - / / ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 25. 23. The acronym FTP stands for (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) File Transfer Protocol (B) Fast Transfer Protocol (C) File Tracking Protocol (D) File Transfer Procedure 24. Which one of the following is not a/an image/graphic file format ? (A) PNG (B) GIF (C) BMP (D) GUI 25. The first web browser is (A) Internet Explorer (B) Netscape (C) World Wide Web (D) Firefox ? (A) (RAM) (B) (ROM) (C) (CD ROM) (D) (TCP) 27. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 26. 26. When a computer is booting, BIOS is loaded to the memory by (A) RAM (B) ROM (C) CD-ROM (D) TCP 27. Which one of the following is not the same as the other three ? (A) MAC address (B) Hardware address (C) Physical address (D) IP address 28. Identify the IP address from the following : 28. : (A) 300 215 317 3 (A) 300 215 317 3 (B) 302 215@ 417 5 (B) 302 215@ 417 5 (C) 202 50 20 148 (C) 202 50 20 148 (D) 202 50 20 148 W-00 (D) 202 50 20 148 7 P.T.O. 29. The population of India is about 1.2 billion. Take the average consumption of energy per person per year in India as 30 Mega Joules. If this consumption is met by carbon based fuels and the rate of carbon emissions per kilojoule is 15 106 kgs, the total carbon emissions per year from India will be 29. 1.2 30 15 106 , - ? (A) (D) 2400 million metric tons 5400 (D) (C) 5400 million metric tons 540 (C) (B) 540 million metric tons 54 (B) (A) 54 million metric tons 2400 30. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 31. 30. Which of the following cities has been worst affected by urban smog in recent times ? (A) (B) (C) : (D) : (A) Paris (B) London (C) Los Angeles (D) Beijing 31. The primary source of organic pollution in fresh water bodies is (A) run-off urban areas (B) run-off from agricultural forms (C) sewage effluents (D) industrial effluents 32. 32. Lahar is a natural disaster involving (A) eruption of large amount of material (A) (B) strong winds (B) (C) strong water waves (C) (D) (D) strong winds and water waves W-00 8 ? (A) 1.5 C 2 C (B) 2.0 C 3.5 C (C) 0.5 C 1.0 C (D) 0.25 C 0.5 C 34. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 33. In order to avoid catastrophic consequences of climate change, there is general agreement among the countries of the world to limit the rise in average surface temperature of earth compared to that of pre-industrial times by (A) 1.5 C to 2 C (B) 2.0 C to 3.5 C (C) 0.5 C to 1.0 C (D) 0.25 C to 0.5 C 33. 34. The National Disaster Management Authority functions under the Union Ministry of (A) Environment (B) Water Resources (C) Home Affairs (D) Defence 35. Match List I and List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : List I List II a. Flood 1. Lack of rainfall of sufficient duration b. Drought 2. Tremors produced by the passage of vibratory waves through the rocks of the earth c. Earthquake 3. A vent through which molted substances come out d. Volcano 4. Excess rain and uneven distribution of water Codes : a b c d (A) 4 1 2 3 (B) 2 3 4 1 (C) 3 4 2 1 (D) 4 3 1 2 35. 36. Which one of the following green house gases has the shortest residence time in the atmosphere ? (A) Chlorofluorocarbon (B) Carbon dioxide (C) Methane (D) Nitrous oxide 36. W-00 I II : I II a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4. : a (A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 9 b 1 3 4 3 c 2 4 2 1 d 3 1 1 2 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) P.T.O. 37. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below : i. Rajasthan receives the highest solar radiation in the country. ii. India has the fifth largest installed wind power in the world. iii. The maximum amount of wind power is contributed by Tamil Nadu. iv. The primary source of uranium in India is Jaduguda. Codes : (A) i and ii (B) i, ii and iii (C) ii and iii (D) i and iv 37. : i. ii. iii. iv. : (A) i ii (B) i, ii iii (C) ii iii (D) i iv 38. Who among the following is the de facto executive head of the Planning Commission ? (A) Chairman (B) Deputy Chairman (C) Minister of State for Planning (D) Member Secretary 38. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 39. Education as a subject of legislation figures in the (A) Union List (B) State List (C) Concurrent List (D) Residuary Powers 39. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 40. Which of the following are Central Universities ? 1. Pondicherry University 2. Vishwa Bharati 3. H.N.B. Garhwal University 4. Kurukshetra University Select the correct answer from the code given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4 (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4 40. ? 1. 2. 3. . . . 4. : (A) 1, 2 3 (B) 1, 3 4 (C) 2, 3 4 (D) 1, 2 4 W-00 10 41. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (i) and (ii). Statement : India should have a very strong and powerful Lokpal. Arguments : (i)Yes, it will go a long in eliminating corruption in bureaucracy. (ii) No, it will discourage honest officers from making quick decisions. Codes : (A) Only argument (i) is strong. (B) Only argument (ii) is strong. (C) Both the arguments are strong. (D) Neither of the arguments is strong. 41. (i) (ii) : : (i) , (ii) , : (A) (i) (B) (ii) (C) (D) 42. Which of the following universities has adopted the meta university concept ? (A) Assam University (B) Delhi University (C) Hyderabad University (D) Pondicherry University 42. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 43. Which of the following statements are correct about a Central University ? 1. Central University is established under an Act of Parliament. 2. The President of India acts as the visitor of the University. 3. The President has the power to nominate some members to the Executive Committee or the Board of Management of the University. 4. The President occasionally presides over the meetings of the Executive Committee or Court. Select the correct answer from the code given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 1, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 43. ? 1. 2. 3. 4. - : : (A) 1, 2 4 (B) 1, 3 4 (C) 1, 2 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 4 W-00 11 P.T.O. 44. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 45. ? (A) (B) - (C) (D) 46. : (A) (B) (C) (D) 47. - , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 48. 44. Which one of the following is considered a sign of motivated teaching ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) Students asking questions (B) Maximum students attendance of the (C) Pin drop silence in the classroom (D) Students taking notes 45. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching ? (A) Lecture (B) Discussion (C) Demonstration (D) Narration 46. Dyslexia is associated with (A) mental disorder (B) behavioural disorder (C) reading disorder (D) writing disorder 47. The e-content generation for undergraduate courses has been assigned by the Ministry of Human Resource Development to (A) INFLIBNET (B) Consortium for Communication Educational (C) National Knowledge Commission (D) Indira Gandhi National Open University 48. Classroom communication is normally considered as (A) effective (B) cognitive (C) affective (D) selective W-00 12 49. Who among the following, propounded the concept of paradigm ? (A) Peter Haggett (B) Von Thunen (C) Thomas Kuhn (D) John K. Wright 49. 50. In a thesis, figures and tables are included in (A) the appendix (B) a separate chapter (C) the concluding chapter (D) the text itself 50. 51. A thesis statement is (A) an observation (B) a fact (C) an assertion (D) a discussion 51. 52. 52. The research approach of Max Weber to understand how people create meanings in natural settings is identified as (A) positive paradigm (B) critical paradigm (C) natural paradigm (D) interpretative paradigm 53. Which one of the following is a nonprobability sampling ? (A) Simple random (B) Purposive (C) Systematic (D) Stratified 53. 54. Identify the category of evaluation that assesses the learning progress to provide continuous feedback to the students during instruction. (A) Placement (B) Diagnostic (C) Formative (D) Summative ( ) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) . ( - ) (A) (B) (C) (D) - (A) (B) (C) (D) - , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) - ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 54. (A) (B) (C) (D) 55. : (A) (B) (C) (D) 55. The research stream of immediate application is (A) Conceptual research (B) Action research (C) Fundamental research (D) Empirical research W-00 13 P.T.O. Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 56 to 60 : Traditional Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle of the individual and from that of the geographically delimited agglomeration of peoples or groups enjoying a common system of leadership which we call the State . The Indian State s special feature is the peaceful, or perhaps mostly peaceful, co-existence of social groups of various historical provenances which mutually adhere in a geographical, economic, and political sense, without ever assimilating to each other in social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in language. Modern Indian law will determine certain rules, especially in relation to the regime of the family, upon the basis of how the loin-cloth is tied, or how the turban is worn, for this may identify the litigants as members of a regional group, and therefore as participants in its traditional law, though their ancestors left the region three or four centuries earlier. The use of the word State above must not mislead us. There was no such thing as a conflict between the individual and the State, atleast before foreign governments became established, just as there was no concept of state sovereignty or of any church-and-state dichotomy. Modern Indian secularism has an admittedly peculiar feature : It requires the state to make a fair distribution of attention and support amongst all religions. These blessed aspects of India s famed tolerance (Indian kings so rarely persecuted religious groups that the exceptions prove the rule) at once struck Portuguese and other European visitors to the West Coast of India in the sixteenth century, and the impression made upon them in this and other ways gave rise, at one remove, to the basic constitution of Thomas More s Utopia. There is little about modern India that strikes one at once as Utopian : but the insistence upon the inculcation of norms, and the absence of bigotry and institutionalized exploitation of human or natural resources, are two very different features which link the realities of India and her tradition with the essence of all Utopians. 56. Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian State ? (A) Peaceful co-existence of people under a common system of leadership (B) Peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached to each other in a geographical, economic and political sense (C) Social integration of all groups (D) Cultural assimilation of all social groups. 57. The author uses the word State to highlight (A) Antagonistic relationship between the state and the individual throughout the period of history. (B) Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in time. (C) The concept of state sovereignty. (D) Dependence on religion. 58. Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian Secularism ? (A) No discrimination on religious considerations (B) Total indifference to religion (C) No space for social identity (D) Disregard for social law 59. The basic construction of Thomas More s Utopia was inspired by (A) Indian tradition of religious tolerance. (B) Persecution of religious groups by Indian rulers. (C) Social inequality in India. (D) European perception of Indian State. 60. What is the striking feature of modern India ? (A) A replica of Utopian State (B) Uniform laws (C) Adherence to traditional values (D) Absence of Bigotry W-00 14 56 60 : , , , , , , , - , - - ( - ) 16 ( ) , , ( ) 56. ? (A) - (B) , , , - (C) (D) 57. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 58. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 59. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 60. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) W-00 15 P.T.O. Space For Rough Work W-00 16

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