
	Trending ▼ ICSE CBSE 10th ISC CBSE 12th CTET GATE UGC NET Vestibulares ResFinder

UGC Net JUN 2013 : GENERAL PAPER

15 pages, 120 questions, 47 questions with responses, 53 total responses,

	ugc_net	+Fave Message
	Profile Timeline Uploads Q & A

Home > ugc_net >

Formatting page ...

Signature and Name of Invigilator PAPER-I 1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................ (To be filled by the Candidate) (Name) ____________________________ 2. (Signature) __________________________ Roll No. (In figures as per admission card) (Name) ____________________________ S 00 1 3 Roll No.________________________________ (In words) Test Booklet Code Time : 1 /4 hours] Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Instructions for the Candidates 1 1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of questions, out of which the candidate would be required to answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal / polythene bag on the booklet. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal / without polythene bag and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Code should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given inside this Booklet, which is common for Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the original OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are however, allowed to carry duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. W-00 W [Maximum Marks : 100 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60 1. 2. - (60) , (50) 3. , - - , : (i) - / - / (ii) - / - - (iii) - OMR OMR - 4. (A), (B), (C) (D) : (C) 5. - I - II OMR OMR OMR , 6. 7. (Rough Work) 8. OMR , , , , , 9. OMR OMR 10. / 11. ( ) 12. P.T.O. FOR OFFICE USE ONLY 1 21 41 2 22 42 3 23 24 43 44 25 26 45 46 27 28 47 48 29 49 10 30 50 11 31 51 12 52 13 32 33 14 34 54 15 35 55 16 36 56 17 18 19 37 38 57 58 39 40 Marks Obtained Question Number Marks Obtained Question Number Marks Obtained Question Number Marks Obtained 59 60 4 5 6 7 8 9 20 53 Total Marks Obtained (in words) ........................................... (in figures) .......................................... Signature & Name of the Coordinator ................................... (Evaluation) W-00 Date ......................... 2 Note : : Paper I I This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks. Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions. In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will be evaluated. (60) (2) (50) (50) (50) 1. The world population growth rate at a 1. certain reference year was 3.5%. 3.5% Assuming exponential growth of population, after how many years, the population of the world would have 16 ? increased by a factor 16 ? (A) ~ 80 (B) ~ 40 (A) ~ 80 years (B) ~ 40 years (C) ~ 160 (D) ~ 320 (C) ~ 160 years (D) ~ 320 years 2. 2. Telephone is an example of (A) linear communication ? (B) non-linear communication (A) (B) (C) circular (C) (D) (D) mechanised 3. Means of grapevine communication are (A) formal (B) informal (C) critical (D) corporate 4. Communication issues at the international level are addressed by (A) ILO (B) ITU (C) UNDP (D) UNESCO 3. (A) (B) (C) (D) 4. 5. Referential framing used by TV audience connects media with (A) reality (B) falsity (C) negativity (D) passivity 5. 6. The communicated knowledge in a classroom is considered as (A) non-pervasive treasure (B) limited judgement (C) autonomous virtue (D) cultural capital 7. Classroom communication is normally considered as (A) effective (B) affective (C) cognitive (D) non-selective 8. A person writes all the numbers from 0 to 99. The number of times digit 3 will be written is (A) 18 (B) 19 (C) 20 (D) 21 W-00 6. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) ? (A) - (B) (C) (D) : ? (A) (B) (C) (D) - 0 99 3 ? (A) 18 (B) 19 (C) 20 (D) 21 7. 8. 3 P.T.O. 9. Starting from point A, Ajit walks 14 metres towards west, he then turns to his right and walks 14 metres and then turns to his left and walks 10 metres. He again turns to his left and walks 14 metres and reaches to the point E. The shortest distance between A and E is (A) 38 (B) 42 (C) 52 (D) 24 9. 10. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table. A is between E and F. E is opposite to D and C is not in either of the neighbouring seats of E. The person opposite to B is (A) C (B) D (C) A (D) F 10. 11. The missing term in the series 2, 7, 24, 77, ?, 723 is (A) 238 (B) 432 (C) 542 (D) 320 11. 12. In certain city the Taxi charges comprise of a fixed charge and the charge of the distance travelled. A person paid ` 156 for a journey of 16 km and another person paid ` 204 for the journey of 24 km. The amount paid by a passenger who has travelled 30 km is (A) 236 (B) 240 (C) 248 (D) 256 12. 13. In certain code HEALTH is written as KHDOWK. The code of NORTH will be (A) QRUWK (B) RQWUK (C) RWQUK (D) RWUKQ 13. 14. Yadav, Arjun, Rajesh and Kamal play cricket. Rajesh and Kamal play tennis but do not play football. Yadav does not play Badminton but play golf. Arjun does not play tennis. Kamal sometimes plays Badminton. Who does play only cricket ? (A) Yadav (B) Arjun (C) Rajesh (D) Kamal 14. W-00 A 14 , 14 10 : 14 E A E ? (A) 38 (C) 52 (B) 42 (D) 24 A, B, C, D, E F A, E F E, D C, E - B ? (A) C (C) A (B) D (D) F ( ) ? 2, 7, 24, 77, ?, 723 (A) 238 (B) 432 (C) 542 (D) 320 : 16 ` 156/- 24 ` 204/- 30 ? (A) 236 (C) 248 HEALTH KHDOWK NORTH (A) QRUWK (C) RWQUK 4 (B) 240 (D) 256 (B) RQWUK (D) RWUKQ , , - ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) / - / (B) / - / (C) / - / (D) / - / 16. ? (A) - (B) - (C) (D) 15. A deductive argument can not be valid : (A) If its premise / premises is/are true and its conclusion is true. (B) If its premise / premises is /are true and its conclusion is false. (C) If its premise / premises is/are false and its conclusion is false. (D) If its premise / premises is / are false and its conclusion is true. 15. 16. An analogical argument is strengthened by (A) making the claim bolder while its premises remain unchanged. (B) reducing the claim made on the basis of the premises affirmed. (C) remaining the claim unchanged while the evidence in its support is found to exhibit greater frailty. (D) None of the above. , (A) (B) - (C) (D) 18. - : (A) , (B) , (C) , (D) , 19. ? (A) - - (B) - - (C) (D) 17. 17. If two propositions cannot both be false but may both be true, what is the relation between the two propositions ? (A) Contrary (B) Sub-contrary (C) Sub-alternation (D) Contradictory 18. Given below are some codes of arrangements of three items in order of wider scope. Select the correct code. (A) Garments, cloth and shirts (B) Cloth, garments and shirts (C) Shirts, garments and cloth (D) Garments, shirts and cloth 19. What is equivalent of the statement All atheists are pessimists ? (A) All non-pessimists are nonatheists. (B) All non-atheists are nonpessimists. (C) All pessimists are atheists. (D) None of the above. W-00 5 P.T.O. 20 23 : ( ) In the following table, trends in production of energy in India by primary sources are given. Study the table and answer Question Nos. 20 to 23 : (Production in peta Joules) Crude Year Coal & Natural Electricity Total PetroLignite Gas (Hydro & leum Nuclear) 2006-07 7459 1423 1223 4763 14,868 2007-08 7926 1429 1248 4944 15,547 2008-09 8476 1403 1265 5133 2009-10 9137 1411 1830 2010-11 9207 1579 2012 ( ) 2006-07 7459 1423 1223 4763 14,868 2007-08 7926 1429 1248 4944 15,547 16,277 2008-09 8476 1403 1265 5133 16,277 4511 16,889 2009-10 9137 1411 1830 4511 16,889 5059 17,857 2010-11 9207 1579 2012 5059 17,857 20. In which year primary sources recorded the lowest growth in total production of energy ? (A) 2007 08 (B) 2008 09 (C) 2009 10 (D) 2010 11 20. 21. Which source of energy has shown the highest growth rate in production during 2006-07 to 2010-11 ? (A) Coal & lignite (B) Crude petroleum (C) Hydro & nuclear electricity (D) Total production of energy ? (A) 2007-08 (B) 2008-09 (C) 2009-10 (D) 2010-11 21. 2006-07 2010-11 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 22. 2008-09 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 22. Which one of the following primary sources of energy has recorded the highest growth in production in 2008 09 ? (A) Coal & lignite (B) Crude petroleum (C) Natural gas (D) Hydro & nuclear electricity 23. 23. In which year, production of hydro and nuclear electricity was almost double the production of crude petroleum and natural gas taken together ? (A) 2006 07 (B) 2007 08 (C) 2008 09 (D) 2009 10 W-00 6 ? (A) 2006-07 (B) 2007-08 (C) 2008-09 (D) 2009-10 24. The Internet ethical protocol is called (A) net protocol (B) (C) net ethics 24. netiquette ? (A) (C) (D) net morality 25. 25. Commercial messages on the net are identified as (B) (D) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) Net ads (B) Internet commercials (C) Webmercials (D) Viral advertisements 26. 26. Manuel Castelle was the first to use the term ? (A) Internet society (A) (B) Electronic society (B) (C) Network society (C) (D) (D) Telematic society 27. 27. GIF stands for GIF ? (A) Global Information Format (A) (B) Graphics Information Format (B) (C) Graphics Interchange File (C) (D) (D) Graphics Interchange Format 28. Which one of the following is not an Operating System ? 28. ? (A) IBM AIX (A) (B) Linux (B) (C) Sun Solaris (C) (D) (D) Firefox W-00 7 P.T.O. / / ? 1. , 2. , 3. , 4. , : : (A) 1 2 (B) 2 4 (C) 2 (D) 4 30. (NAC) ? 1. 2. 3. - 4. : : (A) 1, 2 3 (B) 2, 3 4 (C) 1, 3 4 (D) 3 4 29. Which of the following is/are a minority institution(s) ? 1. Punjabi University, Patiala 2. Osmania University, Hyderabad 3. Kashmir University, Srinagar 4. St. Stephens College, Delhi Select the correct answer from the code given below : Codes : (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 4 (C) 2 only (D) 4 only 29. 30. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Advisory Council (NAC) ? 1. The National Advisory Council is a statutory body. 2. It is headed by the Prime Minister of India. 3. It facilitates constant interaction with the leaders of civil society. 4. It provides policy and legislative inputs to the Government of India. Select the correct answer from the code given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 3 and 4 31. 31. Which of the following are voluntary provisions in the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) ? 1. Minimum age of 21 for contesting elections to Panchayats. 2. Indirect elections to the post of Chairperson of Panchayats at the intermediate and district levels. 3. Representation of Members of Parliament and State Legislature on Panchayati Raj institutions. 4. Reservation of seats for backward classes. Select the correct answer from the code given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 3 and 4 W-00 8 73 (1992) ? 1. 21 2. 3. 4. : : (A) 1, 2 4 (B) 2, 3 4 (C) 1, 2 3 (D) 3 4 32. , , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 33. ? 1. 2. ( ) 3. 4. : : (A) 1 2 (B) 1 4 (C) 1, 2 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 4 34. 32. In which of the following States the segment of population, which is in majority, enjoys the benefit of reservation of seats in the State Assembly ? ? 1. 2. 3. 4. : : (A) 1, 2 3 (B) 1, 2 4 (C) 1, 3 4 (D) 1 2 (A) Meghalaya and Mizoram (B) Assam and Nagaland (C) Madhya Pradesh and Assam (D) Rajasthan and Arunachal Pradesh 33. Which of the following are the ways of acquiring Indian citizenship ? 1. 2. Birth Descent 3. Naturalisation 4. Incorporation of territory Select the correct answer from the code given below : Codes : (A) 1 and 2 (B) (C) (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 1 and 4 34. Which of the following statements about the Union Public Service Commission are correct ? 1. UPSC is a Constitutional body. 2. It serves as an advisory body. 3. It is called upon to advise the Government in regard to representation of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Civil Service. 4. It is consulted on appointments of Chairman and members of Tribunals and Commissions. Select the correct answer from the code given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) (C) (D) 1 and 2 W-00 1, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 9 P.T.O. Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. from 35 to 40 : I had occasion to work with her closely during the Women s International Year in 1975 when she was chairing a Steering Committee and made me the member in charge of publicity. Representatives from different political parties and women s organizations were on the committee and though the leftists claimed a sort of proprietary right over her, Aruna encouraged and treated all members alike. It was not her political affiliations or her involvement in a particular cause, which won her respect and recognition, but her utter honesty in public life, her integrity and her compassion for the oppressed which made her an adorable person. She had the courage to differ with and defy the mightiest in the land; yet her human spirit prompted her to work in the worst of slums to offer succour to the poor and the exploited. In later years around late eighties and early nineties Aruna Asaf Ali s health began to deteriorate. Though her mind remained alert, she could not actively take up her pet causes action for women s advancement, planning for economic justice, role of media, reaffirmation of values in public affairs etc. Slowly, her movements were restricted and Aruna who had drawn sustenance from common people, from her involvement in public life, became a lonely person. She passed away in July 1996. 35. Which Committee was chaired by Aruna ? (A) Women s International Year s Committee (B) Steering Committee of Women s International Year (C) A Committee of Publicity (D) Women s Organizations 36. Who were made the members of the Committee of Publicity ? Choose the answer from codes given below : (i) Representatives from different political parties. (ii) Representatives from the leftist parties. (iii) Representatives from the women s organizations. (iv) None of the above. Codes : (A) (i), (iii) (B) (i), (ii) (C) (i), (ii), (iii) (D) (iv) 37. Aruna earned respect because of (A) she identified with the leftists (B) she did not associate with any political party (C) chairing a Steering Committee (D) she identified with women s organizations 38. Who tried to monopolize Aruna as their proprietary right ? (A) Women Organizations (B) Leftists (C) Steering Committee (D) Some Political Parties 39. Aruna s health began to deteriorate from (A) 1985 2002 (C) 1981 2000 40. Aruna s pet cause(s) in her life was/ were (A) Role of media (C) Reaffirmation of values in public affairs W-00 10 (B) 1998 2000 (D) 1989 2001 (B) Economic justice (D) All the above 35 40 : 1975 , , - 1980 1990 , , , , , : , - - , 1996 35. ? (A) (C) (B) (D) ? : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) : (A) (i), (iii) (B) (i), (ii) (C) (i), (ii), (iii) (D) (iv) 37. (A) (B) (C) (D) 36. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 39. ? (A) 1985-2002 (B) 1998-2000 (C) 1981-2000 (D) 1989-2001 40. / / ? (A) (B) (C) : (D) 38. W-00 11 P.T.O. 41. : (A) (B) (C) (D) 42. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching ? (A) Lecture method (B) Discussion method (C) Demonstration method (D) Question-Answer method 42. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 43. Successful Communication classroom teaching is in 43. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) ( ) 44. Which one of the following types of evaluation assesses the learning progress to provide continuous feedback to both teachers and students during instruction ? 44. ? 41. A good teacher must be (A) resourceful and autocratic (B) resourceful and participative (C) resourceful and authoritative (D) resourceful and dominant (A) Circular (B) Reciprocal (C) Directional (D) Influential (A) (A) Placement evaluation (B) Formative evaluation (B) (C) Diagnostic evaluation (C) (D) (D) Summative 45. 45. Which one of the following is a scaled down teaching situation ? (A) Macro teaching (B) Team teaching (C) Cooperative teaching (D) Micro teaching W-00 12 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) CLASS (A) (B) (C) (D) 46. CLASS stands for (A) Complete Literacy and Studies in Schools (B) Computer Literates and Students in Schools (C) Computer Literacy and Studies in Schools (D) Centre for Literacy and Studies in Schools 46. 47. Which one of the following is not a type of experimental method ? (A) Single group experiment (B) Residual group experiment (C) Parallel group experiment (D) Rational group experiment 47. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 48. Which one of the following is not a non-parametric test ? (A) t-test (B) Sign test (C) Chi-square test (D) Run test 48. ? (A) - (B) (C) - (D) 49. Read the following statements one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R) : Assertion (A) : Qualitative research in India has a long way to go to reach international standards. Reason (R) : Because the funding agencies do not support qualitative research in academic institutions. Find the correct answer from the codes given below : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) Both (A) and (R) are false. 49. (A) (R) : (A) : (R) : : (A) (A) (R) (R), (A) (B) (A) (R) , (R), (A) (C) (A) , (R) (D) (A) (R) W-00 13 P.T.O. 50. Identify the correct sequence of research steps : (A) Selection of topic, review of literature, data collection, interpretation of findings (B) Review of literature, selection of topic, data collection, interpretation of findings (C) Selection of topic, data collection, review of literature, interpretation of findings (D) Selection of topic, review of literature, interpretation of findings, data collection 50. 51. Deconstruction is a popular method of research in (A) Basic Science (B) Applied Science (C) Social Science (D) Literature : (A) , , , (B) , , , (C) , , , (D) , , , 51. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 52. ( ) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 52. With which one of the following techniques communality is associated ? (A) Univariate analysis (B) Factor analysis (C) Case studies (D) SWOT analysis 53. The variable which impacts the relationship between an independent variable and a dependent variable is known as (A) antecedent variable (B) precedent variable (C) predictor variable (D) control variable 53. 54. Which one of the following is a nonprobability sampling method ? (A) Simple Random Sampling (B) Stratified Sampling (C) Cluster Sampling (D) Quota Sampling 55. By the year 2022, the Climate Change Action Plan of Government of India aims at installing (A) 20,000 MW of wind power (B) 25,000 MW of wind power (C) 20,000 MW of solar power (D) 10,000 MW of solar power 54. W-00 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 55. 2022 - ? (A) 20,000 (B) 25,000 (C) 20,000 (D) 10,000 14 56. Which one of the following biosphere reserves has UNESCO recognition ? (A) Manas (B) Kanchenjunga (C) Seshachalam Hills (D) Greater Nicobar 56. - (UNESCO) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 57. Which activity contributes to water pollution more than any other throughout world ? (A) Agriculture (B) Hydroelectric power generation (C) Industry (D) Urbanisation 57. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 58. Match List I with List II and find the correct answer from the codes given below : List I List II (Biosphere (Area of Reserve) Location) a. Nilgiri i. Deccan Peninsula b. Manas ii. Chhattisgarh c. Similipal iii. Eastern Himalaya d. Achankmariv. Western Amarkantak Ghat Codes : a b c d (A) i ii iii iv (B) ii iii iv i (C) iii iv ii i (D) iv iii i ii 58. I II : I II ( ( - ) ) a. i. b. ii. c. iii. d. iv. : 59. G5 are the five most important emerging economies of world. Which one of the following does not form part of G5 ? (A) Mexico (B) Brazil (C) China (D) Korea 59. -5 -5 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 60. Which of the following nations has the maximum per capita emissions of carbon di-oxide ? (A) China (B) Japan (C) USA (D) India 60. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) W-00 a (A) i (B) ii (C) iii (D) iv 15 b ii iii iv iii c iii iv ii i d iv i i ii P.T.O. Space For Rough Work W-00 W-00 16

Formatting page ...

Top Contributors
to this ResPaper
(answers/comments)

Kasivisalakshi ...
(16)

Bharathi Rajaram
(8)

anirbanmajumder
(7)

Harman Kaur
(4)

Formatting page ...

Tags : cbse ugc net question papers, UGC NET Solved Sample Question Paper, UGC NET Exam Papers, ugc net past question papers, ugc net syllabus, ugc net specimen, ugc net study material, UGC NET Study Materials FREE, UGC NET Exam Pattern, Free Ugc Net Online Practice Tests, ugc net previous question papers, central board of secondary education,

ugc_net chat

Horizontal lines at:
Guest Horizontal lines at:
AutoRM Data:
Box geometries: