Trending ▼   ResFinder  

UGC NET DEC 2013 : ECONOMICS PAPER III

23 pages, 150 questions, 3 questions with responses, 3 total responses,    0    0
ugc_net
   		+Fave Message
ProfileTimelineUploadsQ & A
 Home > ugc_net >

Formatting page ...

PAPER-III ECONOMICS Signature and Name of Invigilator 1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................... (To be filled by the Candidate) (Name) ____________________________ Roll No. 2. (Signature) __________________________ (In figures as per admission card) (Name) ____________________________ D 01 Roll No.________________________________ (In words) 1 3 Time : 2 1/2 hours] Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Instructions for the Candidates [Maximum Marks : 150 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75 1. 2. - 3. , - - , : (i) - - (ii) - / - - (iii) OMR - 4. (A), (B), (C) (D) : (C) 5. OMR OMR , 6. 7. (Rough Work) 8. OMR , , , , , 9. - OMR OMR 10. / 11. ( ) 12. 13. , 1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of questions. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means such as change of response by scratching or using white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the test question booklet and Original OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions, English version will be taken as final. D-01-13 1 P.T.O. ECONOMICS PAPER III Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory. 1. 2. 3. 4. The Model of Managerial Enterprise is associated with (A) R.A. Gordan (B) R. Marris (C) Baumol (D) Scitorsky 5. List I (a) Technical Monopoly List II (1) Gold and Silver (b) Global Market (2) Cartel Which one of the following is not an assumption of linear programming ? (A) Constant output prices (B) Constant input prices (C) Increasing returns to scale (D) Technologically fixed factor proportion (c) Legal Monopoly (3) Coca Cola (d) Oligopoly (4) Patent Rights Codes : (a) (d) (1) (4) (2) (2) (1) (4) (C) (4) (3) (1) (2) (D) (4) Match List-I with List-II : List I List II (a) Offer Curves (1) Public Revenue (b) Laffer Curves (2) Sticky Price (c) Lorenz Curve (3) Reciprocal demand (d) Kinked (4) Inequalities Demand Curve Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (3) (1) (4) (2) (B) (1) (3) (2) (4) (C) (3) (4) (1) (2) (D) (4) (1) (2) (3) (c) (B) (3) 6. (b) (A) (3) In the Paul Sweezy Model of Oligopoly in the Kinked Demand Curve, the point of kink represents (A) Quantity Rigidity (B) Price Rigidity (C) Both the Price and Quantity Rigidity (D) Only Price Rigidity Paper-III Match the items in List I with items in List II : (1) (2) (3) Assertion (A) : Consumer Surplus is the difference between the potential price and actual price. Reason (R) : There exists an inverse relationship between the price and consumer surplus. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 2 D-01-13 III : (75) - (2) 1. ? (A) . . (B) . (C) (D) 2. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 3. 4. 5. (a) (A) (B) (C) (D) D-01-13 (b) (1) (3) (4) (1) (c) (4) (2) (1) (2) 3 (1) (4) (2) (2) (1) (4) (3) (1) (2) (D) (4) (d) (2) (4) (2) (3) (d) (C) (4) -I -II : I II (a) (1) (b) (2) (c) (3) (d) (4) : (c) (B) (3) 6. (b) (A) (3) , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (3) (1) (3) (4) -I -II : I II (a) (1) (b) (2) (c) (3) (d) (4) ( ) : (1) (2) (3) (A) : , (R) : : (A) (A) (R) (R), (A) (B) (A) (R) , (R), (A) (C) (A) , (R) (D) (A) , (R) Paper-III 7. 8. Assertion (A) : The long run cost curve is L shaped rather than U shaped. Reason (R) : The new technique of production of large plants reduce the total cost per unit of output in the long run. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (D) (R) is false, but (A) is true. 11. 12. 9. A major portion of the multiplier effect is realized in fewer periods when marginal propensity to consume is (A) unity (B) larger (C) smaller (D) none of the above 10. The optimum capital stock is achieved when the user cost of capital is equal to (A) the interest rate (B) the depreciation rate (C) the marginal product of capital (D) Tobin s Q Paper-III 4 Which of the following is true in case of the orthodox (early) Keynesians ? 1. Interest elasticity of demand for money is extremely high. 2. Interest elasticity of demand for money is low. 3. Changes in the quantity of money do not have important predictable effects on the level of economic activity. 4. Demand for money is unstable. (A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 1, 3, 4 (C) 1, 2, 4 (D) 2, 3, 4 13. Which of the following is true ? a. Indifference curves slope downward from left to right. b. Indifference curves slope downward from right to left. c. Indifference curves are convex to the point of origin of the two axes. d. Indifference curves never intersect each other. (A) a, b and c are true. (B) b, c and d are true. (C) a, c and d are true. (D) a and d are true. If the economy is operating at potential GDP, an increase in money supply will lead to (A) Stagflation (B) Structural inflation (C) Demand-side inflation (D) Supply-side inflation Which of the following statement is false ? (A) The IS curve is flatter, lower the value of the Keynesian multiplier and lower the interest resistiveness of investment. (B) The IS curve is steeper lower the value of the Keynesian multiplier and lower the interest resistiveness of investment. (C) The position of LM curve depends negatively on the price level and the resistiveness of the money demand to the changes in income. (D) The LM curve is flatter, the larger the interest resistiveness of the money demand and the lower the income resistiveness of the money demand. D-01-13 7. 8. (A) : U L (R) : : (A) (A) (R) (R), (A) (B) (A) (R) , (R), (A) (C) (A) , (R) (D) (R) , (A) 11. 12. ? a. ( ) b. ( ) c. ( ) d. ( ) (A) a, b c (B) b, c d (C) a, c d (D) a d 9. 13. (A) (B) (C) (D) Q D-01-13 ( ) ? 1. 2. 3. 4. : (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D) 10. (A) (B) (C) - (D) - 5 1, 2, 3 1, 3, 4 1, 2, 4 2, 3, 4 ? (A) , . . (B) , . . ( ) (C) . . (D) , . . Paper-III 14. 15. Which of the following statements are true ? 1. Increased government spending affects aggregate spending more quickly than does an increase in money supply. 2. An increase in aggregate demand has no effect upon real output when aggregate supply is vertical. 3. An increase in government spending always crowds out an equal amount of private sector interest sensitive spending. 4. Increased government spending affects aggregate supply less quickly than does an increase in money supply. Codes : (A) 1 & 2 (B) 1 & 3 (C) 1 & 4 (D) 3 & 4 16. 17. Paper-III Which is the better measure of welfare ? (A) National Income (B) Per Capita Income (C) Per Capita Disposable Income (D) Gross National Product 19. Which of the following year of the 11th Five Year Plan registered the highest GDP growth rate ? (A) 2007-08 (B) 2008-09 (C) 2009-10 (D) 2010-11 20. What is the main purpose U.N.E.P. ? (A) Equal development (B) Economic development (C) Reduction in temperature (D) Sustainable development 21. 6 Multi-dimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is a new index to be included in (A) World Human Report (B) Human Development Report (C) World Development Report (D) India s Human Development Report 18. In the context of the theory of economic growth, match the theory/facts given in List I with their propounders given in List II : List I List II (a) Stylised facts of (1) R.M. economic Solow growth (b) Exogenous (2) N. Kaldor growth theory (c) Golden rule of (3) Radner & accumulation Samuelson (d) Optimal growth (4) E.S. Phelps turnpikes Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (2) (1) (3) (4) (B) (3) (2) (1) (4) (C) (2) (1) (4) (3) (D) (2) (4) (3) (1) The endogeneous growth theory seeks to provide explanation for which of the following determinants of growth that the Solow s model did not explain ? (A) Technical Progress (B) Labour Growth (C) Role of the government in promoting growth (D) All the above Foodgrains in India are canalized by (A) ONGC (B) OIL (C) FCI (D) MMTC of D-01-13 14. 15. 16. (a) (b) (c) (1) (3) (2) (1) (1) (4) (4) (3) (1) D-01-13 2007-08 2008-09 2009-10 2010-11 . . . . ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 21. (3) (D) (2) ? 20. (4) (C) (2) 11 (MPI) (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D) (4) (B) (3) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 19. (d) (A) (2) - 18. -I -II : I II (a) (1) . . (2) . (b) (c) (3) (4) . . (d) : ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 17. ? 1. 2. 3. 4. : (A) 1 2 (B) 1 3 (C) 1 4 (D) 3 4 ( ) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 7 ONGC OIL FCI MMTC Paper-III 26. As per provisional data released by C.S.O. for Q1 of 2012-13, the GDP growth has been estimated at Income elasticity of demand for food in developed countries is less than (A) zero (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3 27. Apna Khet, Apna Kaam (i.e. own field, own work) is a new scheme under MNREGA and it was initiated in the State (A) Punjab (B) Gujarat (C) Rajasthan (D) Madhya Pradesh 28. 22. Price Scissors refer to (A) Relative price of fuel and industrial goods (B) Relative price of industrial goods in terms of agricultural goods (C) Relative price of imported goods in terms of the exported goods (D) None of the above 29. Assertion (A) : Yellow Revolution increased the production of seeds. Reason (R) : White Revolution increased the production of milk. (A) 5.1% (B) 5.5% (C) 5.9% (D) 6.2% 23. In whose economic theories, Malthus theories are in the base ? (A) Adam Smith (B) Ricardo (C) Keynes (D) Robins 24. There are four phases of a business cycle. Identify the correct sequence of the occurrence of these phases : (A) Recovery, Recession, Expansion, Depression (B) Recovery, Expansion, Depression, Recession (C) Depression, Expansion, Recession, Recovery (D) Recovery, Expansion, Recession, Depression 25. The Total Factor Productivity (TFP) in agriculture during the 11th plan in India Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (A) Increased (B) Declined (C) Remain unchanged (D) Had no specific pattern Paper-III 8 D-01-13 22. . . . 2012-13 , ? 26. (B) 5.5% (C) 2 5.9% (D) 3 27. 28. (D) 6.2% 23. 1 (C) (A) 5.1% (B) ? (A) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) , (MNREGA) , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) 24. : (A) , , , (C) , , , (D) 25. , , , (B) (C) , , , (D) 29. 11 (TFP) (A) (B) (C) (D) D-01-13 9 ? (A) : (R) : : (A) (A) (R) (R), (A) (B) (A) (R) , (R), (A) (C) (A) , (R) (D) (A) , (R) Paper-III 30. The immediate cause for the collapse of the Bretton Woods system was (A) the expectation that the U.S. would soon be forced to devalue the dollar. (B) the massive flight of liquid capital from the U.S. (C) the attempt by three small European Central Banks to convert part of their dollar holdings into gold at the Fed. (D) All of the above 31. In case of Fixed Exchange Rate regime adjustment in Balance of Payments takes place through (A) changes in price level (B) changes in exchange rate (C) changes in interest rate (D) none of the above 32. 35. Under a managed floating exchange rate system, the Nation s monetary authorities intervene in Foreign Exchange Markets to (A) smooth out short-run fluctuations in exchange rates (B) smooth out long-run fluctuations in exchange rates (C) smooth out short-run and longrun fluctuations in exchange rates (D) keep exchange rates fixed among a group of nations 36. Regarding M.F.N. (Most Favoured Nation) clause, find out the correct statement : (A) It guarantees special privilege to the contracting parties. (B) It guarantees only equal treatment. (C) The unconditional M.F.N. clause seems to be more equitable than the conditional one. (D) The conditional M.F.N. clause confers significant rights on the contracting party. Match List-I with List-II : List I List II (a) Hamilton (1) Trade creation List and Trade diversion effects (b) Marshall- (2) Indian Industry Learner (c) F.Y. Edge- (3) Elasticity worth approach (d) Jacob (4) Impoverishing Viner growth Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (2) (3) (1) (4) (B) (2) (3) (4) (1) (C) (3) (2) (4) (1) (D) (3) (2) (1) (4) Which of the following is related with optimum currency area ? (A) Optimal geographical area for a single currency (B) Optimal geographical area for several currencies whose exchange rates are relatively pegged (C) Single currency or the pegged currencies fluctuate jointly vis -vis other currencies (D) All the above A spot Foreign Exchange Transaction refers to (A) the purchase or sale of foreign exchange for delivery within two business days. (B) the sale of foreign exchange for delivery. (C) the purchase of foreign exchange for delivery. (D) none of the above. 33. 34. Paper-III 10 D-01-13 30. 31. ? (A) . . (B) . . (C) (D) 34. (A) (B) (C) (D) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 32. (b) (3) (3) (2) (2) (c) (1) (4) (4) (1) (d) (4) (1) (1) (4) , ? (A) (B) (C) - (D) 36. . . . ( ) (A) (B) (C) . . . (D) . . . D-01-13 (a) (2) (2) (3) (3) 35. ? (A) (B) , , (C) - (D) ( ) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 33. -I -II : I II (a) - (1) (b) - (2) - (c) . . (3) (d) (4) : 11 Paper-III 37. 40. Match the items given in List I with those in List II : List I List II a. Committee on 1. Raja J. Taxation of Chelliah Agricultural Wealth and Income, 1972 b. Direct Taxes 2. L.K. Jha Enquiry Committee, 1970 c. Tax Reform 3. K.N. Committee, 1991 Wanchoo d. Indirect Tax 4. K.N. Raj Enquiry Committee, 1976 Codes : a b c d (A) 4 1 2 3 (B) 4 3 1 2 (C) 3 2 1 4 (D) 2 3 1 4 41. The biggest holder of Government of India dated securities : (A) Reserve Bank of India (B) Life Insurance Corporation of India (C) Employees Provident Fund (D) Commercial Banks 42. Arrange the introduction of the following taxes in India in chronological order : I. Service tax II. Income tax III. Banking cash transaction tax IV. Gift tax Codes : (A) II, IV, I, III (B) II, I, III, IV (C) II, III, I, IV (D) IV, II, I, III 43. Which of the following is true with respect to the monetary approach to the balance of payments ? Who amongst the following has not worked for estimation of Black Money in India ? (A) N. Kaldor (B) Dr. D.K. Rangnekar (C) O.P. Chopra (D) Sukhamoy Chakravarthy (A) A balance of payments deficit results from an excess supply of money in the nation. (B) A balance of payments surplus results from an excess demand for money. (C) Balance of payments disequilibrium are automatically corrected in the long run. (D) All the above 38. Which one of the following tax is within the jurisdiction of the Central Government as enumerated in List I of Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India ? (A) Taxes on mineral rights subject to any limitation imposed by the Parliament (B) (C) Taxes on the consumption and sale of electricity Taxes on sale and purchase of newspapers and on advertisements therein (D) Excise on alcoholic liquors for human consumption, opium, Indian hemp and other narcotics 39. Grants from the Centre to the States under the recommendations of Finance Commission are known as (A) Plan grants (B) Development assistance (C) Statutory grants (D) Discretionary grants Paper-III 12 D-01-13 37. ? (A) (B) (C) : (D) 38. (A) (B) (C) (D) ? (B) (C) (D) D-01-13 d 3 2 4 4 : I. II. III. IV. : , , (A) c 2 1 1 1 (A) (B) (C) (D) (D) b 1 3 2 3 42. (C) a 4 4 3 2 41. (B) -I -II : I II a. 1. . , 1972 b. , 2. . . 1970 c. , 1991 3. . . d. 4. . . , 1976 : (A) (B) (C) (D) -I ? (A) 39. 40. 43. 13 II, IV, I, III II, I, III, IV II, III, I, IV IV, II, I, III ? (A) . (B) . . . (C) . . (D) Paper-III 44. For which of the following items of household consumption expenditures in India, NSSO takes the reference period as 365 days ? (A) Clothing, footwear, bedding, education etc. (B) Edible oil, fish & meat, egg (C) Vegetables, fruits, spices, beverages & processed food (D) All other food, fuel & light, misc. goods & services 45. 49. What is the average monthly per capita expenditure (modified mixed recall period) for rural India in 200910 ? (A) ` 845.54 (B) ` 1053.64 (C) ` 1322.25 (D) ` 1984.46 46. 48. What is the target for total outstanding liabilities at the end of 2015-16 as per medium term Fiscal Policy Statement of the Union Budget 2013-14 (Percent of GDP) ? (A) 42.3 (B) 44.5 (C) 41.1 (D) 47.8 Which of the following years recorded growth rate of agricultureGDP (at constant prices) more than 5 percent ? i. 2006-07 ii. 2007-08 iii. 2010-11 iv. 2011-12 Codes : (A) i & iii (B) i, ii & iii (C) ii & iii (D) i & iv Paper-III 50. 47. 14 Which of the following items of private final consumption expenditure has the largest share (in the PFCE) in recent years in the Indian Economy ? (A) Clothing & Footwear (B) Gross rent, Fuel & Power (C) Transport & Communication (D) Furniture, Furnishings, etc. Which of the following has not been one of the terms of reference of the Thirteenth Finance Commission of India ? (A) The distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or may be, divided between them. (B) The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India. (C) The measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities in the State. (D) The method of rescheduling the debt burdens of the States in view of their growing deficits. Match price indices in India given in List I with their latest base year in List-II : List I List II (a) Wholesale Price (1) 2001= 100 Index (b) Industrial (2) 2010 = 100 Workers (CPIIW) (c) Consumer Price (3) 2004-05 = Index (New 100 Series) (d) Agricultural (4) 1986-87 Labourers (CPI=100 AL) Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (3) (1) (2) (4) (B) (3) (2) (4) (1) (C) (2) (1) (4) (3) (D) (2) (4) (1) (3) D-01-13 44. 45. , . . . . 365 ? (A) , , , (B) , , (C) - , , , - (D) , , 49. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 50. -I -II : I II (a) (1) 2001= 100 (2) 2010 = 100 (b) ( . . .- . .) (3) 2004-05 = (c) 100 ( ) (4) 1986-87 (d) =100 ( . . . - . .) : ` 845.54 ` 1053.64 ` 1322.25 ` 1984.46 2013-14 201516 ( . . . ) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 47. ( . . . . ) ? (A) (B) , (C) (D) , - 2009-10 ( ) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 46. 48. 42.3 44.5 41.1 47.8 . . . ( ) 5 ? i. ii. iii. iv. 2006-07 2007-08 2010-11 2011-12 : (A) i iii (B) i, ii iii (C) ii iii (A) (B) (C) (D) (D) i iv D-01-13 15 (a) (3) (3) (2) (2) (b) (1) (2) (1) (4) (c) (2) (4) (4) (1) (d) (4) (1) (3) (3) Paper-III 51. 52. Which of the following does not hold correct about the Demsetz view of concentration and monopoly power ? (A) Superior efficiency produces both increased concentration and more profits. (B) The causal link is from concentration to profitability. (C) The causal link is from efficiency to concentration. (D) The causal link is from efficiency to profit. 54. Which of the following is not an item of social security of labour ? (A) Wage (B) Maternity benefits (C) Pensions (D) Industrial injury 55. Find out the value of Gini coefficient for estimating the industrial concentration for the following industry using the formula Which of the following has not been suggested as the features of informal sector endorsed by the UN Statistical Commission (July, 1993) ? (A) Private un-incorporated Enterprises (B) No complete accounts are available that would permit a financial separation of the production activities of the Enterprise (C) Casual jobs or jobs of a limited short duration N 1 G = N (N 2 i + 1) Si (Where N i=1 is the number of firms and Si is the share of ith firm in terms of sales of the industry.) Firm Firm Firm Firm Industry 1 2 3 4 70 10 10 10 100 (A) 25 (B) 35 (C) 45 (D) 65 53. (D) The employment size of the enterprise is below a certain threshold 56. Relate the items given in List-I with the List-II with regard to Wage Theory : List I List II a. Iron law of wages 1. J.S. Mill b. Wage-funds 2. John R. theory Hicks c. Surplus-value 3. David theory Ricardo d. Marginal 4. Karl Marx productivity theory Codes : a b c d (A) 1 3 4 2 (B) 2 1 3 4 (C) 3 4 2 1 (D) 3 1 4 2 Paper-III Which of the following constitutes the intermediate layer in the threetier co-operative credit structure ? (A) State Co-operative Banks (B) Central Co-operative Banks (C) Primary Agricultural Societies Credit (D) NABARD 57. High powered money is (A) Banks reserves at Central Bank (B) Money held by the Banks (C) All loans and advances of Banks (D) Currency held by Public and cash reserves of the Banks 16 D-01-13 51. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 54. (A) 52. 1 G = N (N 2i + 1) Si i=1 (A) (B) (C) (D) 53. (A) (B) (C) (D) D-01-13 (C) (D) -I -II : I II a. 1. . . 2. . b. - c. 3. d. 4. : c 4 3 2 4 ( , 1993) ? (B) 56. b 3 1 4 1 (A) 25 35 45 65 a 1 2 3 3 (D) ( N Si i ) -1 -2 -3 -4 70 10 10 10 100 (C) (B) 55. N ? ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 57. (A) (B) (D) 17 (C) d 2 4 1 2 Paper-III 58. Assertion (A) : Investment companies have not been able to attract much public savings in India. Reason (R) : Investment companies are pure financial intermediaries and they specialise in the mobilisation of public saving for investment in corporate securities. Codes : (A) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct. (D) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 60. Find out the correct answer from the codes given below : Technique of selective credit control of RBI. I. Determination of margin requirement for loans against certain securities. II. Determination of maximum amount of advances or other financial accommodation. III. Changing of discretionary interest rates on certain type of advances. IV. Changing the cash reserve requirements of commercial banks. Codes : (A) I and II are correct. (B) I, II and III are correct. (C) I, II and IV are correct. (D) I and IV are correct. 59. Find out the correct answer from the code given below : Main features of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) I. RRBs have been established by sponsor bank usually a public sector commercial bank. II. RRBs grant direct loans and advances only to small and marginal farmers, rural artisans and agricultural labourers. III. The area of RRB is limited to a specified region comprising one or more districts of a State. IV. The lending rates of RRBs are not higher than the prevailing lending rates of co-operative societies. Codes : (A) II and III are correct. (B) I and III are correct. (C) I, II and IV are correct. (D) I, II and III are correct. 61. In a two variable regression Y is dependent variable and X is independent variable. The correlation coefficient between Y and X is 0.6. For this which of the following result is correct ? (A) 36% variations in Y are explained by X. (B) 60% variations in Y are explained by X. (C) 6% variations in Y are explained by X. (D) None of the above. 62. In a multiple regression with three independent variables, the regression coefficients are to be tested. Which test would be used ? (A) Z test (B) F test 2 (C) test (D) t test 63. Input-Output Technique was invented by (A) Gunnar Myrdal (B) Wassily Leontief (C) Hollis B. Chenery (D) Robert Solow Paper-III 18 D-01-13 (A) : (R) : : (A) (A) , (R) (B) (A) (R) , (R), (A) (C) (A) , (R) (D) (A) (R) (R), (A) 59. 60. D-01-13 - , ? (A) Z (B) F (C) 2 (D) t 63. 19 , Y X Y X 0.6 ? (A) Y 36% - X (B) Y 60% - X (C) Y 6% - X (D) 62. : ( . . .) : I. . . . : II. . . . , III. . . . , IV. . . . : (A) II III (B) I III (C) I, II IV (D) I, II III : : I. II. III. IV. : (A) I II (B) I, II III (C) I, II IV (D) I IV 61. 58. - ? (A) (B) (C) . (D) Paper-III 64. The Linear Cobweb model is given as Supply : qt = + pt 1 68. Demand : pt = + qt Age Where q(0) = q0 is initial condition. 4 5 For this model stability of market requires the condition 1 (A) | | < | | (B) | | < | | 1 (C) | | > | | (D) | | = | | 65. 70. Verdoon s law is about the (A) positive relation between the growth of population, employment and output with the growth of production per head. (B) negative relation between the growth of population, employment and output with the growth of production per head. (C) positive relation between population growth and employment. (D) negative relation between population growth and employment. The optimal solution is either an extreme point or is on a line connecting extreme points. All resources must be used up by an optimal solution. Given a production function Q = AL K ; , > 0, increasing returns to scale requires that (A) + = 1 (B) + =0 (C) + >0 (D) + > 1 67. For the demand function P = 10 3x x2, what is consumer s surplus at x = 3 ? (A) 16.25 (B) 20.50 (C) 07.50 (D) 12.50 Paper-III (B) 73.0 (D) 75.0 Match List I with List II for a hypothetical population fertility estimates : List I List II a. Total marital fertility 1. 4.0 rate b. General fertility rate 2. 1.3 c. Gross reproduction 3. 39.1 rate d. Total fertility rate 4. 0.7 Codes : a b c d (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 4 2 3 1 (C) 2 4 3 1 (D) 1 3 4 2 (D) All of the above. 66. lx dx Lx Tx ex 0.000194 99208 19 99,199 ? ? 0.000177 99189 18 ? 7,246,663 73.1 69. (A) There is only one solution to a linear program. (C) qx (A) 72.0 (C) 74.0 Which of the following statements is true concerning the optimal solution of linear program with two decision variables ? (B) From the following life-table, find out the value of life expectancy at age 4(e4). 20 D-01-13 64. : : qt = + pt 1 : pt = + qt q(0) = q0 68. 66. 67. Tx Lx 0.000177 99189 18 (A) (B) (C) (D) 69. 70. + =1 + =0 + >0 + >1 16.25 20.50 07.50 12.50 21 ? ex ? ? 7,246,663 73.1 72.0 73.0 74.0 75.0 -I -II : I II 1. 4.0 a. b. 2. 1.3 3. 39.1 c. 4. 0.7 d. : (A) (B) (C) (D) P = 10 3x x2, x = 3 ? D-01-13 dx 5 Q = AL K , , > 0 , (A) (B) (C) (D) lx 0.000194 99208 19 99,199 , , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D) qx 4 (A) | | < | | 1 (B) | | < | | (C) | | > | | 1 (D) | | = | | 65. - , 4 (e4) - : a 1 4 2 1 b 2 2 4 3 c 3 3 3 4 d 4 1 1 2 ? (A) , (B) , (C) (D) Paper-III 71. 72. 73. Which of the following statements is true concerning standard regression model ? (A) Y has a probability distribution (B) X has a probability distribution (C) The disturbance term is assumed to be correlated with X (D) For an adequate model the residual ( ) will be zero for all sample data points 74. List I List II a. Unit Root Test 1. DurbinWatson Test b. Contingency Table 2. Student s t-test c. Regression Coefficient 3. Stationarity d. Autocorrelation Which of the following statements are true concerning a triangular or recursive system ? (i) The parameters can be validly estimated using separate applications of OLS to each equation. (ii) The independent variables may be correlated with the error terms in other equations (iii) An application of 2 SLS would lead to unbiased but inefficient parameter estimates (iv) The independent variables may be correlated with error terms in the equations in which they appear as independent variables. (A) (ii) and (iv) only (B) (i) and (iii) only (C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) 4. 2-test Codes : a c d 2 3 1 4 (B) 4 2 3 1 (C) 3 4 2 1 (D) 75. b (A) 3 2 1 4 Consider the following system of equations, using standard notations : Y1 = 0 + 1Y2 + 3Y3 + 4X1 + 5X2 + u1 Y2 = 0 + 1Y3 + 2Y1 + 3X2 + u2 Y3 = 0 + 1X1 + 2X2 + 3X3 + u3 According to the order condition, the first equation is What would be the consequences for the OLS estimator if heteroscedasticity is present in a regression model but ignored ? (A) It will be biased. (B) It will be inconsistent. (C) It will be inefficient. (D) All (A), (B) and (C) will be true. Paper-III Match the following (A) Unidentified (B) Just identified (C) Over-identified (D) Not possible to tell whether the equation identified or not because reduced form of the model is not given. 22 D-01-13 71. 72. 73. 74. ? (A) Y (B) X (C) X (D) ^ ) (u I II a. 1. b. 2. - c. 3. d. ? (i) (OLS) (ii) (iii) 2 SLS (iv) , , (A) (ii) (iv) (B) (i) (iii) (C) (i), (ii) (iii) (D) (i), (ii), (iii) (iv) : 4. 2 : a c d 2 3 1 4 (B) 4 2 3 1 (C) 3 4 2 1 (D) 75. b (A) 3 2 1 4 : Y1 = 0 + 1Y2 + 3Y3 + 4X1 + 5X2 + u1 Y2 = 0 + 1Y3 + 2Y1 + 3X2 + u2 Y3 = 0 + 1X1 + 2X2 + 3X3 + u3 : - ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (A), (B) (C) OLS D-01-13 : (A) (B) (C) (D) 23 Paper-III Space For Rough Work Paper-III 24 D-01-13

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Top Contributors
to this ResPaper
(answers/comments)


zahidkhaan
(1)

mmhassan
(1)

Dharavath Venka...
(1)

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

 

  Print intermediate debugging step

Show debugging info


 


Tags : cbse ugc net question papers, UGC NET Solved Sample Question Paper, UGC NET Exam Papers, ugc net past question papers, ugc net syllabus, ugc net specimen, ugc net study material, UGC NET Study Materials FREE, UGC NET Exam Pattern, Free Ugc Net Online Practice Tests, ugc net previous question papers, central board of secondary education,  


© 2010 - 2025 ResPaper. Terms of ServiceContact Us Advertise with us

 

ugc_net chat