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UGC Net SEP 2013 : ECONOMICS PAPER III

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PAPER-III ECONOMICS Signature and Name of Invigilator 1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................... (To be filled by the Candidate) (Name) ____________________________ 2. (Signature) __________________________ (Name) ____________________________ 01 S 1 3 1 Time : 2 /2 hours] Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Instructions for the Candidates 1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of questions. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal / polythene bag on the booklet. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal / without polythene bag and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the original OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are however, allowed to carry duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. S-01-13 Roll No. (In figures as per admission card) Roll No.________________________________ (In words) [Maximum Marks : 150 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75 1. 2. - 3. , - - , : (i) - / - / (ii) - / - - (iii) OMR - 4. (A), (B), (C) (D) : (C) 5. OMR OMR , 6. 7. (Rough Work) 8. OMR , , , , , 9. OMR OMR 10. / 11. ( ) 12. 1 P.T.O. ECONOMICS Paper III Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory. 1. A firm operating in perfectly competitive product and input markets. Maximizes its total profit when 4. Match the items in List I with items in List II : List I List II a. Various 1. Indifference combination that Map a consumer can purchase b. Various 2. Budget Line combination of two commodities that give the consumer equal satisfaction c. A set of 3. Consumer indifference Equilibrium curves d. Point of tangency 4. Indifference of a budget line Curves and indifference curve Codes : a b c d (A) 2 4 1 3 (B) 2 1 4 3 (C) 4 1 2 3 (D) 4 2 1 3 5. Match the items in List I with items in List II : List I List II a. Residual 1. Nut. K. Claimant Wicksel Theory b. Loanable Funds 2. BergsonTheory Samuelson c. Compensation 3. Walker Criteria d. Social Welfare 4. KaldorFunction Hicks Codes : a b c d (A) 3 1 4 2 (B) 3 2 1 4 (C) 2 1 3 4 (D) 2 3 4 1 (A) Px = MC and MC is rising x x (B) MPa MPb Pa = Pb (C) MPa MPb 1 = = Pa Pb MC x (D) MPa MPb 1 1 Pa = Pb = MC = Px x 2. Shadow price refers to (A) change in the value of the constraint per unit change in the objective function. (B) change in the value of objective function per unit change in any one of the constraints. (C) the change in the value of the primal solution per unit change in the dual solution. (D) all the above. 3. In an economy of two individuals (A & B) and two commodities (X and Y) general equilibrium of exchange is reached when (A) MRTSXY = MRTSYX (B) MRSXY = PX / PY (C) (MRSXY)A = (MRSXY)B (D) MRSXY = PY / PX Paper-III 2 S-01-13 III : (75) - (2) 1. (A) Px = MC MC x 4. x (B) MPa MPb Pa = Pb (C) MPa MPb 1 = = Pa Pb MC x (D) MPa MPb 1 1 Pa = Pb = MC = Px x 2. 3. (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D) 5. (A B) (X Y) (A) MRTSXY = MRTSYX (B) MRSXY = PX / PY (C) (MRSXY)A = (MRSXY)B 3 a 2 2 4 4 b 4 1 1 2 c 1 4 2 1 d 3 3 3 3 I II II I a. 1. . b. 2. c. 3. d. 4. - : (A) (B) (C) (D) (D) MRSXY = PY / PX S-01-13 I II I II a. 1. (Indifference) b. 2. c. 3. d. 4. : a 3 3 2 2 b 1 2 1 3 c 4 1 3 4 d 2 4 4 1 Paper-III 6. 7. 8. Assertion (A) : An Iso Cost Line is a straight line. Reason (R) : The market rate of exchange between the two inputs is constant. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 9. In the long run, the autonomous consumption will (A) be infinity (B) remains unchanged (C) decline but will remain positive (D) be zero 10. Which of the following statements is not true in case of the balanced budget multiplier ? Assertion (A) : The rate of fall of MR Curve is more than twice the rate of fall of AR. Reason (R) : The MR & AR Curves are linear and negatively sloped. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (A) The first round contractionary effect of additional tax revenue ( b, T; b = MPC) is less than the explanatory effect of additional Government expenditure (= G). Which of the following is true with regard to peak-load pricing ? (a) It is applicable only for electrical public utilities. (b) It leads to substitution in consumption from the period of peak demand to the period of low demand. (c) It leads to reduction in consumer welfare. (d) It leads to higher consumer welfare during peak periods when demand and marginal costs are low. Codes : (A) (a) & (b) only. (B) (a) & (c) only. (C) (b) and (d) only. (D) (b) & (c) only. (D) None of the above Paper-III (B) (C) 11. The value of tax multiplier for b proportional taxes is 1 b + bt (where b = MPC and t = tax rate). The value of balanced budget multiplier is unity when taxes are lump sum taxes. For a small economy in a flexible exchange rate system that begins in the long-run equilibrium point, a higher rate of inflation in the shortrun will be followed by (A) An increase in the exchange rate and decline in net exports. (B) Decrease in the exchange rate and an increase in net exports. (C) Contractionary monetary policy and real exchange rate appreciation. (D) Explanatory monetary policy and real exchange rate depreciation. 4 S-01-13 6. 7. 8. (A) : (R) : : (A) (A) (R) (A) (R) (B) (A) (R) , (A) (R) (C) (A) , (R) (D) (A) , (R) 9. (A) (C) (D) 10. (B) ? (A) ( b, T; b = MPC) (= G) (B) (A) : . . . . (R) : . . . . : (A) (A) (R) (A) (R) (B) (A) (R) , (A) (R) (C) (A) , (R) (D) (A) , (R) - b 1 b + bt ( b = MPC t = ) (C) 11. (D) ? (a) (b) (c) (d) : (A) (a) (b) (B) (a) (c) (C) (b) (d) (D) (b) (c) S-01-13 , , (A) (B) (C) (D) 5 Paper-III 12. Speculative demand for money is zero when market rate of interest is (A) more than the critical rate . (B) more than the market rate of interest but less than the critical rate (i.e. capital gains occur). (C) less than the market rate of interest. (D) lowest (i.e. in liquidity trap). 13. A positively sloped aggregate supply curve indicates that (A) an increase in aggregate demand will be associated with an increase in the price level and no change in equilibrium output. (B) an increase in aggregate demand will be associated with an increase in both the price level and equilibrium output. (C) an increase in aggregate demand will be associated with an increase in equilibrium output and no change in the price level. (D) none of the above. 14. 16. 17. Which of the following is not an interpretation of the golden rule of accumulation ? (A) Invest your profits, consume your wages. (B) The share of profit in output is equal to the ratio of investment to output. (C) Saving ratio should be equal to the elasticity of output with respect to capital. (D) None of the above. Paper-III Which of the following are true of disguised unemployment ? I. It represents potential savings. II. The marginal productivity of labour is zero or extremely low. III. It is due to the existence of joint family system. IV. It is confined to the rural areas. Codes : (A) II and IV (B) III and IV (C) I, II and III (D) I, II, III and IV 18. According to A.K. Sen, famines occurred in India because of (A) lack of proper distribution mechanism (B) lack of demand (C) lack of transportation (D) shortage of foodgrains 19. The capacity creating aspect of investment in growth theory was emphasised by (A) R.F. Harrod (B) E.D. Domar (C) R.M. Solow (D) P.A. Samuelson The rational expectations hypothesis does not imply : (A) People do not make systematic errors. (B) On average the economy will be close to Long-run Average Supply (LAS) Curve. (C) Policy makers have better information about the economy than other economic actors. (D) Macroeconomic policy changes must came as a surprise in order to have an impact on the real economy. In India, Five Year Plan formulated by (A) C.S.O. (B) Planning Commission (C) Finance Commission (D) Planning Ministry 15. 6 is S-01-13 12. 13. 16. 14. 15. ? (A) , (B) (C) (D) S-01-13 7 . . (A) (B) (C) (D) 19. ? (A) . . (B) . . (C) . . (D) . . ? I. II. III. IV. : (A) II IV (B) III IV (C) I, II III (D) I, II, III IV 18. (A) (B) (C) (D) : (A) (B) (LAS) (C) (D) - - 17. (A) (B) ( ) (C) (D) ( ) (A) . . . (B) (C) - (D) Paper-III 20. In which year, the Wildlife Board in India was established ? (A) 1952 (B) 1968 (C) 1986 (D) 1992 21. 25. Indian planning mechanism was criticised by (A) A.K. Sen (B) Jagdish Bhagwati (C) L.K. Jha (D) Bimal Jalan Assertion (A) : In the agricultural lending mechanism of India, moneylenders despite their usurious rates of interest are still predominant. Reason (R) : Most often the commercial banks could not meet the target of 18% of their total lending for the agricultural sector in the country. Codes : 22. 23. Aam Admi Bima Yojana provides social security to (A) all labour in rural areas (B) all landless labour living below poverty line in rural areas (C) all labour in urban areas (D) all labour in both rural and urban areas List I i. 1st Five Year Plan ii. 2nd Five Year Plan iii. 5th Five Year Plan (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) (C) 26. b. Heavy industries c. Anti-poverty Programmes d. Luxury items Which one of the following does not come under land reforms in India ? (a) Abolition of Intermediaries and Tenancy Legislation (b) Ceiling on Land Holding and Co-operating Farming (c) Tenancy Legislation Technology Upgradation (d) Abolition of Intermediaries and Green Revolution and Codes : Which State in India has the lowest Infant Mortality Rate ? (A) Maharashtra (B) Goa (C) Gujarat (D) Kerala Paper-III (A) is true and (R) is false. (D) (A) is false and (R) is true. List II a. Agriculture Codes : (A) i a, ii b, iii c (B) i d, ii b, iii c (C) i d, ii c, iii a (D) i c, ii a, iii b 24. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (A) (a) and (c) (B) (a) and (d) (C) (a) and (b) (D) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 8 S-01-13 20. 21. 22. 23. ? (A) 1952 (B) 1968 (C) 1986 (D) 1992 25. (R) : 18% , , ? (A) . . (B) (C) . . (D) : (A) (A) (R) (R) (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (A) , (R) (D) (A) 26. (A) (R) , (A) (R) (C) I II i. a. ii. b. iii. c. d. : (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) : , (R) ? (a) (b) (c) (d) i a, ii b, iii c i d, ii b, iii c i d, ii c, iii a i c, ii a, iii b : 24. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) S-01-13 (A) (a) (c) (B) (a) (d) (C) (a) (b) (D) (a), (b), (c) 9 (d) Paper-III 27. 28. 29. Assertion (A) : In India, Green Revolution was also criticised as Wheat Revolution. Reason (R) : The productivity of wheat in India during the 1970 s was one of the highest in the world. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 30. 31. Paper-III Members of the World Trade Organization are required to (A) eliminate all tariffs. (B) allocate quotas on a first come first basis. (C) prevent their firms from dumping . (D) enforce patent rights for patent holders from other countries. 33. Match items given in List I with those in List II : List I List II a. Green Revolution 1. Oilseeds b. Yellow Revolution 2. Milk c. White Revolution 3. Fish d. Blue Revolution 4. Wheat Codes : a b c d (A) 4 1 2 3 (B) 4 2 1 3 (C) 2 1 3 4 (D) 2 4 3 1 Hedging refers to (A) the acceptance of a foreign exchange risk (B) the covering of a foreign exchange risk (C) foreign exchange speculation (D) foreign exchange arbitrage 32. Assertion (A) : Agricultural income is taxed by the Union Government. Reason (R) : Agriculture is a State subject. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. The fundamental cause for the collapse of the Bretton Woods System was (A) the liquidity problem (B) the adjustment problem (C) the confidence problem (D) all of the above Which of the following is not related with optimum currency area ? (A) Optimal geographical area for several currencies whose exchange rates are relatively pegged. (B) Single currency do not fluctuate vis- -vis other currencies. (C) Single currency or the pegged currencies fluctuate jointly vis -vis other currencies. (D) Optimal geographical area for a single currency. 10 S-01-13 27. 28. 29. (A) : (R) : 1970 : (A) (A) (R) (A) (R) (B) (A) (R) , (A) (R) (C) (A) , (R) (D) (A) , (R) 30. 31. (A) (B) (C) (D) S-01-13 a 4 4 2 2 b 1 2 1 4 c 2 1 3 3 d 3 3 4 1 11 (A) (B) , (C) (D) 33. I II I II a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4. : (A) (B) (C) (D) 32. (A) : (R) : : (A) (A) (R) (A) (R) (B) (A) (R) , (A) (R) (C) (A) , (R) (D) (A) , (R) (A) (B) (C) (D) ? (A) (B) - (C) (D) Paper-III 34. Which of the following issues did the Uruguay Round not address ? (A) Migration (B) Intellectual Property Rights (C) Services (D) Tariff 35. The experience with managed exchange rates since 1973 (A) strongly supports a fixed exchange rate system. (B) strongly supports a freely flexible exchange rate system. (C) mildly supports a flexible exchange rate system. (D) supports some restriction on exchange rate fluctuations. 36. List I a. Free trade area 1. b. Customs union 2. c. Common market 3. d. Economic union 4. Codes : a (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1 Paper-III b 1 2 3 3 c 3 4 1 4 37. 38. d 4 1 4 2 12 Which one of the following tax is within the jurisdiction of the State Governments as enumerated in List II of the Constitution of India ? (A) Taxes other than stamp duties on transactions in stock exchange and future markets. (B) Taxes on Railway freights and fares. (C) Taxes on mineral rights subject to any limitations imposed by the Parliament. (D) Rate of stamp duty in respect of certain financial documents. 39. List II No restrictions on trade and factor movement Trade is free and no Customs Duties No Customs Duties but duties on nonmembers Advanced stage of integration An example of a Euro currency is (A) a Dollar deposit outside the U.S. (B) a Pound Sterling deposit outside the U.K. (C) a Mark deposit outside Germany (D) All of the above Match the items given in List I with those in List II : List I List II I. Third Finance 1. J.M. Shelat Commission II. Sixth Finance 2. A.K. Chanda Commission III. Seventh 3. K.C. Pant Finance Commission IV. Tenth Finance 4. K. Brahmananda Commission Reddy Codes : I II III IV (A) 4 1 3 2 (B) 3 4 1 2 (C) 2 3 4 1 (D) 2 4 1 3 S-01-13 34. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 35. 1973 (A) (B) (C) (D) - 36. I a. b. c. d. 1. 2. 3. 4. 37. 38. : II ? (A) (B) (C) , (D) 39. II , - (A) . . (B) . . (C) (D) I I I. 1. II. 2. III. 3. IV. 4. II . . . . . . . : a b c d (A) 2 1 3 4 (B) 3 2 4 (C) 2 3 (D) 1 3 S-01-13 II I II III IV (A) 4 1 3 2 1 (B) 3 4 1 2 1 4 (C) 2 3 4 1 4 2 (D) 2 4 1 3 13 Paper-III 40. 41. Which of the following are Government of India debt obligations ? I. State Provident Funds II. Small Savings III. Reserve Money IV. Reserve Funds and Deposits Codes : (A) I and II are correct. (B) I, II and IV are correct. (C) II and IV are correct. (D) I, II and III are correct. 44. (A) 9.0 percent (B) 18.0 percent (D) 23.0 percent Arrange the following in chronological order : I. Task Force on Direct and Indirect Taxes (Kelkar Committee) II. Replacement of State Sales Tax by Value Added Tax III. Introduction of MODVAT IV. Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act Codes : (A) III, II, IV, I (B) III, I, IV, II (C) III, IV, I, II (D) II, III, IV, I 45. Find out the items which are not in the scope of the Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM) : (A) Internal earmarking within local body budgets for basic services to the urban poor. (B) Provide legal and financial support to metro/mono-rail projects in urban areas. (C) Earmarking of at least 20-25 percent of developed land in all housing projects for the economically weaker sections and low income groups category. (D) Implementation of a sevenpoint charter for provisioning of seven basic entitlements/ services. Match different deficit indicators given in List I with the value in List II for the Union Budget 2013-14 : List I List II i. Revenue deficit a. 1.5 ii. Effective revenue b. 1.8 deficit iii. Fiscal deficit c. 3.3 iv. Primary deficit d. 4.8 Codes : i ii iii iv (A) a c b d (B) b c d a (C) c b d c (D) a d c b Paper-III 15.0 percent (C) 42. Which of the following tax is introduced in India in 1953 and abolished in 1985 ? (A) Estate Duty (B) Expenditure Tax (C) Gift Tax (D) Agricultural Income-tax 43. As per the revised estimate, the plan expenditure of the budget estimate for 2012-13 in India has been lowered by 46. Which Economic Survey has introduced a new chapter on Sustainable Development and Climate Change ? (A) Economic Survey 2004-05 (B) Economic Survey 2007-08 (C) Economic Survey 2009-10 (D) Economic Survey 2011-12 14 S-01-13 40. 41. ? I. II. III. IV. : (A) I II (B) I, II IV (C) II IV (D) I, II III 44. (A) 15.0 (C) 18.0 (D) 45. 9.0 (B) I. ( ) II. III. . . . . . . (MODVAT) IV. : (A) III, II, IV, I (C) III, IV, I, II 2012-13 ? 23.0 (JNNURM) (A) (B) / 20-25 (D) 1953 1985 ? (A) (B) - (C) - (D) 43. I II 2013-14 I II i. a. 1.5 ii. b. 1.8 c. 3.3 iii. iv. d. 4.8 : / (C) (B) III, I, IV, II (D) II, III, IV, I , / 42. (A) (B) (C) (D) S-01-13 i a b c a ii c c b d iii b d d c 46. ? (A) (B) 2009-10 (D) 15 2007-08 (C) iv d a c b 2004-05 2011-12 Paper-III 47. 48. Match the different Five Year Plans of India given in List I with the annual growth rate of National Income (at 2004-05 prices) given in List II : List I List II i. Eighth Plan a. 5.5 percent ii. Ninth Plan b. 6.7 percent iii. Tenth Plan c. 7.5 percent iv. Eleventh Plan d. 7.8 percent Codes : i ii iii iv (A) b a c d (B) a c d b (C) b d a b (D) d b c a 51. 52. What has been the monthly per capita expenditure (Uniform Reference Period) for urban population of India (at 2004-05 prices) as per the 68th Round of NSSO (2011-12) ? (A) ` 707.24 (B) ` 1,359.75 (C) ` 1,785.81 (D) ` 2,401.68 49. (A) (B) (C) (D) 53. What is the formula for tax devolution used by the Thirteenth Finance Commission of India ? Formula Population (%) (1971) Area (%) Fiscal capacity distance (%) Fiscal Discipline (A) 25.0 (B) 10.0 (C) 25.0 (D) 17.5 Paper-III 17.5 25.0 10.0 10.0 10.0 47.5 47.5 25.0 What will be the value of HerfindahlHirschmann Index of market concentration for the following industry ? Share of firms Industry Which of the following programmes is not included in rural infrastructure development in India ? (A) Integrated Low Cost Sanitation Scheme (ILCS) (B) Bharat Nirman (C) Indira Awas Yojana (IAY) (D) Total Sanitation Campaign (TSC) 50. For a firm in long-run equilibrium producing an allocatively efficient level of output where marginal cost is equal to demand, which of the following does not apply ? (A) Price is sufficient to cover the opportunity cost. (B) Profit of the firm becomes zero. (C) Price is sufficient to cover costs. (D) This situation also satisfies the consumers. 47.5 17.5 17.5 47.5 16 Firm 1 30 Firm 2 25 Firm 3 15 Firm 4 15 Firm 5 10 Firm 6 5 55 35 2100 None of the above Make out a correct combination from the following sets I & II in the context of the industrial economics : Set I Set II i. SCP a. James Approach Buchanan ii. Transaction b. Neoclassical Cost Theory Theory iii. Public Choice c. HerfindahlTheory Hirschmann Index iv. Industrial d. Williamson Concentration Codes : i ii iii iv (A) b d a c (B) c d b c (C) a c d b (D) d b a c S-01-13 47. I II (2004-05 ) I II i. a. 5.5 b. 6.7 ii. iii. c. 7.5 iv. d. 7.8 : (A) (B) (C) (D) 48. 49. i b a b d ii a c d b iii c d a c 51. iv d b b a - ? 1 2 3 4 5 6 30 25 15 15 10 5 52. (2004-05 ) ( ) 68 . . . . (2011-12) ? (A) ` 707.24 (B) ` 1359.75 (C) ` 1785.81 (D) ` 2401.68 (A) 55 (B) 35 (C) 2100 (D) ? (A) (ILCS) (B) (C) (D) (TSC) 53. ? (%) (%) (%) (1971) 50. (A) (B) (C) (D) S-01-13 25.0 10.0 25.0 17.5 17.5 25.0 10.0 10.0 10.0 47.5 47.5 25.0 , , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) I II II I i. . . . a. ii. b. iii. c. iv. d. : (A) (B) (C) (D) 47.5 17.5 17.5 47.5 17 i b c a d ii d d c b iii a b d a iv c c b c Paper-III 54. Backward-bending supply curve of labour suggests that 58. The components of the organized sector of the money market I. Bill market II. Stock market III. Gift-edged market IV. Bank loan market Codes : (A) I and III are correct. (B) I, III and IV are correct. (C) I, II and IV are correct. (D) I and IV are correct. 59. Assertion (A) : The prices of Government securities in giftedged market are not formed freely. Reason (R) : The Reserve Bank of India has a monopoly dealer position and the demand for Government securities has a captive nature. Codes : (A) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct. (D) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 60. Find out the correct answer from the codes given below : Credit Rating Agencies in India I. CRISIL II. ICRA III. TDICI IV. CARE Codes : (A) I and II are correct. (B) I, II and III are correct. (C) I and IV are correct. (D) I, II and IV are correct. (A) when wage rate increases, supply of labour declines. (B) when wage rate declines, supply of labour increases. (C) there is no relationship between wage rate and labour supply. (D) when wage rate increases, initially labour supply increases and after some point with the increase in wage rate, labour supply decreases. 55. Who among the following is not associated with the collective bargaining by the labour with the management ? (A) R.G. Lipsey (B) Neil W. Chamberlain (C) Carl M. Stevens (D) Bevars D. Mabry 56. The M1 definition of money is (A) Currency outside banks and checking deposits (B) Currency outside checking deposits travellers checks (C) banks, and Currency outstanding checking deposits and (D) Currency outstanding, checking deposits and money market deposit accounts 57. The biggest component of reserve money in India is (A) Treasury bills (B) Currency in circulation (C) Bankers deposits with RBI (D) Other deposits with RBI Paper-III 18 S-01-13 (A) (B) (C) (D) , 55. I. II. III. IV. : (A) I III (B) I, III IV (C) I, II IV (D) I IV (A) : (R) : : (A) (A) , (R) (B) (A) (R) , (R), (A) (C) (A) , (R) (D) (A) (R) (R), (A) 60. : I. (CRISIL) II. (ICRA) III. (TDICI) IV. (CARE) : (A) I II (B) I, II III (C) I IV (D) I, II IV ? (A) . . (B) . (C) . (D) . 56. 58. 59. 54. M1 (B) , (C) (D) , (A) 57. (A) (B) (C) . . . (D) . . . S-01-13 19 Paper-III 61. Regression coefficient is independent of change in (A) origin but not of scale (B) both origin and scale (C) scale but not of origin (D) none of these Cobb-Douglas production function Q = AL K1 does not possess the characteristics of (A) Constant Returns to Scale (B) Unit Elasticity of Substitution (C) Variable Elasticity of Substitution (D) Linear homogeneity 68. Given that function is 67. Estimate of Total Fertility Rate (TFR) from the given Age-Specific Fertility Rates (ASFR) : Age Group ASFR 15 19 19.6 20 24 147.3 25 29 132.9 30 34 56.2 35 39 18.1 40 44 3.8 45 49 1.0 (A) 1.56 (B) 1.86 (C) 2.39 (D) 2.62 For a viable input-output system which conditions are postulated ? (A) Hawkins-Simon conditions (B) Kuhn-Tucker conditions (C) Bhagwati-Eckaus conditions (D) Von Neumann conditions 64. Given Harrod s Growth Model as under : S(t) = Y(t) I(t) = [Y(t) Y(t 1)] S(t) = I(t) , > 0. In this model sustained growth is indicated by satisfying the condition (A) >0 (B) <0 (C) >1 (D) <1 In a multiple regression with two independent variables and 12 observations F value calculated is to be tested. What will be degrees of freedom for numerator and denominator in testing procedure ? (A) 1 and 12 (B) 2 and 11 (C) 2 and 10 (D) 1 and 10 63. Linear Programming Technique was developed for the first time by (A) Koopmans (B) Dantzig (C) Leontief (D) Mahalanobis 66. 62. 65. P = [ L List I a. b. c. d. Codes : a (A) ii (B) iii (C) iv (D) i Paper-III C.E.S. production + (1 )K ] List II i. Distribution parameter ii. Substitution parameter iii. Returns to parameter iv. Efficiency parameter b iii iv i ii c i ii ii iii scale d iv i iii iv 20 S-01-13 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 66. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) S(t) = Y(t) I(t) = [Y(t) Y(t 1)] S(t) = I(t) , > 0 12 F ? (A) 1 12 (B) 2 11 (C) 2 10 (D) 1 10 , , (A) (B) - ? (A) - (B) - (C) - (D) (C) (D) b. iii. iv. d. 15 19 20 24 25 29 30 34 35 39 40 44 45 49 (A) 1.56 (C) 2.39 : a b c d (A) ii iii i iv (B) iii iv ii i (C) iv i ii iii (D) ii iii iv S-01-13 i <1 - (ASFR) - . . . . II i. ii. c. >1 68. <0 - Q = AL K1 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) P = [ L + (1 )K ] a. >0 67. CES : I 21 19.6 147.3 132.9 56.2 18.1 3.8 1.0 (B) 1.86 (D) 2.62 Paper-III 69. 70. 71. Which of the following is not correct about a population pyramid ? (A) On the right side of the pyramid women s age structure is shown. (B) It shows age and sex distribution of a population. (C) An expansive pyramid is narrow at the base but it expands as it moves up towards higher ages. (D) Population pyramids can be used to find the economic dependents supported in a particular population. 72. 73. What is the meaning of the term heteroscedasticity ? (A) The variance of errors is not constant. (B) The variance of dependent variable is not constant. (C) The errors are not linearly independent of one another. (D) The errors have non-zero mean. 74. Which of the following estimation techniques are available for the estimation of over-identified systems of simultaneous equations ? (i) OLS (ii) ILS (iii) 2SLS (iv) IV Codes : (A) (iii) only (B) (iii) and (iv) only (C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) 75. The situation of people in villages and towns of strong emigration receiving high amount of remittances has been described as private affluence and public squalor by (A) M. Todaro (B) John K. Galbraith (C) Arthur Lewis (D) Gunar Myrdal Suppose that observations are available on the monthly bond prices of 100 companies for five years. What type of data are these ? (A) Cross Sectional (B) Time Series (C) Panel (D) Qualitative The order condition is (A) a necessary and sufficient condition for identification. (B) a necessary but not sufficient condition for identification. (C) a sufficient but not necessary condition for identification. (D) a condition that is neither necessary nor sufficient for identification. Which of the following models can be estimated using OLS following suitable transformation, if necessary ? Here e denotes the exponential. (i) yt = + t + ut (ii) yt = + ext + ut (iii) yt = + 2 xt + ut (iv) ln (yt) = + ln(xt) + ut Codes : (A) (i) only (B) (i) and (iii) only (C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) Paper-III 22 S-01-13 69. 70. 71. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 72. 73. (Heteroscedasticity) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 74. ? (i) . . . (OLS) (ii) . . . (ILS) (iii) 2 SLS (iv) IV : (A) (iii) (B) (iii) (iv) (C) (ii), (iii) (iv) (D) (i), (ii), (iii) (iv) 75. , , , ? (A) . (B) . (C) (D) 100 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) : (A) (B) (C) (D) . . . , , ? e (i) yt = + t + ut (ii) yt = + ext + ut (iii) yt = + 2 xt + ut (iv) ln (yt) = + ln(xt) + ut : (A) (i) (B) (i) (iii) (C) (i), (iii) (iv) (D) (i), (ii), (iii) (iv) S-01-13 23 Paper-III Space For Rough Work Paper-III 24 S-01-13

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