Trending ▼   ResFinder  

UGC NET JUN 2014 : ECONOMICS PAPER III

24 pages, 148 questions, 79 questions with responses, 85 total responses,    0    0
ugc_net
   		+Fave Message
ProfileTimelineUploadsQ & A
 Home > ugc_net >

Formatting page ...

PAPER-III ECONOMICS Signature and Name of Invigilator 1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................... (To be filled by the Candidate) (Name) ____________________________ Roll No. 2. (Signature) __________________________ (In figures as per admission card) (Name) ____________________________ J 01 Roll No.________________________________ (In words) 1 4 Time : 2 1/2 hours] Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Instructions for the Candidates [Maximum Marks : 150 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75 1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of questions. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means such as change of response by scratching or using white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the test question booklet and Original OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry original question booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions, English version will be taken as final. J-01-14 1 1. 2. - 3. , - - , : (i) - - (ii) - / - - (iii) OMR - 4. (A), (B), (C) (D) : (C) 5. OMR OMR , 6. 7. (Rough Work) 8. OMR , , , , , 9. - OMR - OMR 10. / 11. ( ) 12. 13. , P.T.O. ECONOMICS Paper III Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory. 1. Which of the following are the basic assumptions of cardinal utility analysis ? I. Utility is a measurable and quantifiable entity. II. Marginal utility of money changes with changes in real income. III. Utilities derived from various goods are inter-dependent. IV. The use of introspective method in judging the behaviour of marginal utility. Codes : (A) I and II are correct. (B) I and III are correct. (C) I and IV are correct. (D) I, III and IV are correct. 2. Engel Curve denotes (A) various amounts of a good which a consumer would be willing to purchase at various price levels. (B) various amounts of a good which a consumer would be willing to purchase at various income levels. (C) various amounts of a good purchased when the price of its substitutes tend to rise. (D) the relationship between income effect and substitution effect. 3. 4. 5. Paper-III 2 A graphical illustration used to explain efficiency conditions and demonstrates how the allocations of some goods and resources can be improved through exchange is called (A) production possibility curves (B) social indifference curves (C) Edgeworth box diagram (D) Phillips curve 6. A producer is said to be operating with excess capacity (A) when he produces an output greater than that given by the minimum Average Total Cost (B) when he produces an output greater than at given by the maximum Average Total Cost (C) When he produces an output equal to that given by the minimum Average Total Cost (D) When he produces an output smaller than that given by the Minimum Average Total Cost Assertion (A) : Harvey Leibenstein asserted that marginal conditions required for economic efficiency are not usually satisfied in practice. Reason (R) : People are not fully motivated towards maximization or minimization. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct. (C) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is incorrect explanation of (A). (D) (R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect. Match the following : List I a. A double 1. Kaldor-Hicks Test b. Compensation 2. Principle c. Social 3. Welfare function d. Impossibility 4. theorem Codes : a b c (A) 4 1 3 (B) 3 4 1 (C) 3 4 2 (D) 4 3 2 List - II A. Bergson K.J. Arrow T. Scitovsky KaldorHicks d 2 2 1 1 J-01-14 III : (75) - (2) 1. 2. ? I. II. III. IV. : : (A) I II (B) I III (C) I IV (D) I, III IV 4. 5. , , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 6. ? (B) (C) (D) (A) : (R) : : (A) (A) (R) , (R), (A) (B) (A) , (R) (C) (A) (R) , (R), (A) (D) (R) , (A) : I II a. 1. . b. 2. . . 3. . c. d. 4. - : (A) 3. (A) (B) (C) (D) J-01-14 (A) (B) (C) (D) 3 a 4 3 3 4 b 1 4 4 3 c 3 1 2 2 d 2 2 1 1 Paper-III 7. 8. 11. According to Game Theory, if increased advertising, raises costs more than revenues and the profits of both firms decline, we have a (A) Positive-sum game (B) Non zero-sum game (C) Zero-sum game (D) Negative-sum game 9. Arrows impossibility theorem implies (A) Any social decision rule should not violates the requirements of rational choice. (B) Any social decision rule must violate atleast one of the requirements of rational choice. (C) Any social decision rule must violate all the requirements of rational choice. (D) It is impossible to violate social decision rules. 10. Bandwagon effect is found in (A) Relative Income hypothesis (B) Permanent Income hypothesis (C) Life cycle Hypothesis (D) Absolute Income hypothesis Paper-III 4 Let the consumption function in life cycle hypothesis be represented as w C = w + e y where e = number of post retirement years of living. y = average annual income during the working period Then Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) is represented by the equation : 1 (A) w + e ( y) w y (B) w + e y w y (C) w + e y (D) None of the above 12. The oligopoly model in which the businessman assumes that his competitors output are fixed and simultaneously decide how much to produce is (A) Cournot oligopoly model (B) Stackelberg oligopoly model (C) Chamberlin s oligopoly model (D) Bertrand oligopoly model Complete the statements given in List I with there given in List II : List I List II a. Instantaneous 1. MPC is adjustment of smaller income with investment spending occurs in b. Consumption 2. increase in lags income by investment one period in expenditure is once-forall c. Value of 3. state investment multiplier multiplier is zero when d. Major portion 4. dynamic of multiplier is multiplier realized in fewer periods when Codes : a b c d (A) 3 4 1 2 (B) 3 4 2 1 (C) 4 3 1 2 (D) 2 3 1 4 J-01-14 7. 8. , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 11. C = w + e y w e = y= (MPC) ? , , ? (A) - (B) - (C) - (D) - 9. 1 (A) w + e ( y) w y (B) w + e y w y (C) w + e y (D) 12. (A) (B) (C) (D) 10. / ? (A) (B) (C) (D) J-01-14 : I II : I II 1. MPC a. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4. : (A) (B) (C) (D) 5 a 3 3 4 2 b 4 4 3 3 c 1 2 1 1 d 2 1 2 4 Paper-III 13. Assertion (A) : The individual speculative demand for money is a discontinuous one. Reason (R) : Because the aggregate speculative demand for money function is smooth downward sloping with liquidity trap at extremely low interest rates. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect. (D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct. 14. Transaction Cost is also called (A) Shoe Leather Cost (B) Menu Cost (C) Opportunity Cost of holding cash (D) All of the above 15. Given the consumption function, C = 0.8Y, and the investment function I = 102 0.2i, then the IS-curve is (A) Y = 500 10i (B) Y = 450 i (C) Y = 510 i (D) Y = 505 2i 16. Match the premise given with that in List II : List I a. Price expectations 1. are static b. Price expectations 2. are adaptive c. People do not 3. make systematic errors d. Deviations of output from its natural rate is inversely related to the deviation of unemployment rate from its natural level Codes : a b c (A) 2 3 4 (B) 4 3 2 (C) 1 3 4 (D) 4 2 1 Paper-III 17. Given that the increment in aggregate demand (Y) per unit of time, t, is given by the equation 1 Y I = 1 MPC t d t and the increment in supply of output is represented by the equation k Y = t t s Where MPC = Marginal Propensity I k to Consume, & are change in t t investment & capital stock respectively, per unit of time, then the capacity creating effect or Domar effect of investment following goods market equilibrium equals 1 (A) (1 MPC) (B) 1 MPC 1 1 1 (C) (1 MPC) (D) 1 MPC 18. When the aggregate supply schedule is positively sloped, continuous increases in the nominal money supply, ceteris parilus, result in (A) No change in the price level and proportional increases in real output. (B) No change in real output and proportional increases in the price level. (C) An increase in the price level and real output. (D) An increase in the price level and a decrease in real output. 19. Golden Age as per Mrs. Joan N Robinson is (where N is growth K rate of population and K is growth rate of capital) N K (A) N = K N K (B) N > K N K (C) N < K (D) None of the above in List I List II Okun s law Phillips Curve Natural Rate of unemployment hypothesis 4. Rational expectations hypothesis d 1 1 2 3 6 J-01-14 13. (A) : (R) : : (A) (A) (R) (R), (A) (B) (A) (R) , (R), (A) (C) (A) , (R) (D) (A) , (R) 14. = t t s Y I k t : , , ? (A) (1 MPC) 1 (B) 1 MPC 1 (C) (1 MPC) 1 1 (D) 1 MPC , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 19. 18. (A) Y = 500 10i (B) Y = 450 i (C) Y = 510 i (D) Y = 505 2i I II : I II a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4. : : (A) (B) (C) (D) J-01-14 a 2 4 1 4 b 3 3 3 2 c 4 2 4 1 k MPC = , t C = 0.8Y I = 102 0.2i , IS ? 16. t (Y) Y 1 I : = 1 MPC t d t : (A) (B) (C) (D) 15. 17. N ( N K K ) (A) (B) d 1 1 2 3 (C) (D) 7 N K N = K N K N > K N K N < K Paper-III 24. MPK A technical change is neutral if MP L Arrange the Structural Development Processes in a sequential order : I. Resource Allocation Processes II. Accumulation Process III. Distributional Processes IV. Demographic Processes Codes : (A) I, IV, II, III (B) II, I, IV, III (C) III, II, I, IV (D) IV, III, I, II 25. 20. Match the items in List II : List I a. MPL is zero in overpopulated economies b. Two gap model c. Critical growth rate d. Backwash effects K remains unchanged at constant L ratio : (A) Harrod (B) Hicks (C) Solow (D) Kaldor 21. 22. 23. Concept of disembodied technical change is associated with I. Abramovitz II. Kaldor III. Kendrick IV. Solow (A) I and II (B) III and IV (C) I, III and IV (D) II, III and IV Joan Robinson s growth model deals with I. Desired growth rate II. Possible growth rate III. Natural growth rate IV. Warranted growth rate Codes : (A) I and III (B) II and IV (C) I and II (D) III and IV Codes : a (A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 4 26. Assertion (A) : To Marx, it is surplus labour that lead to capital accumulation. Reason (R) : The difference between actual labour and subsistence labour that a labourer puts in for which he receives nothing is surplus labour. Codes : (A) (A) is correct, but (R) is not the correct reason for (A). (B) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect. (C) Both (A) and (R) are correct. (D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect. Paper-III 8 b 3 4 1 2 c 4 2 3 1 List I with List II 1. Gunnar Myrdal 2. J.E. Mead 3. Arthur Lewis 4. Hollis Chenery & others d 2 1 4 3 Match the items in List List II : List I a. Learning by doing 1. b. Biased Technical 2. Progress 3. c. Co-efficient of sensitivity of income distribution d. Theory of 4. Demographic Transition : Four stages of Population growth Codes : a b c d (A) 3 4 1 2 (B) 1 3 2 4 (C) 2 1 4 3 (D) 4 2 3 1 I with List II Kaldor Karl Sax Kenneth J. Arrow Joan Robinson J-01-14 MPK 24. K 20. MP L L (A) (B) (C) (D) 21. ( ) ? I. II. III. IV. (A) I II (B) III IV (C) I, III IV (D) II, III IV 22. 23. : I. II. III. IV. : (A) I, IV, II, III (C) III, II, I, IV 25. ? I. II. III. IV. : (A) I III (B) II IV (C) I II (D) III IV (B) II, I, IV, III (D) IV, III, I, II I : I a. 1. MPL b. 2. c. 3. d. 4. II II . . : (A) (B) (C) (D) 26. (A) : (R) : , , : (A) (A) , (R), (A) (B) (A) (R) (C) (A) (R) (D) (A) (R) J-01-14 b 3 4 1 2 c 4 2 3 1 d 2 1 4 3 I II : I II a. 1. 2. b. c. 3. . d. 4. : : (A) (B) (C) (D) 9 a 1 3 2 4 a 3 1 2 4 b 4 3 1 2 c 1 2 4 3 d 2 4 3 1 Paper-III 27. Assertion (A) : Solow model is a major improvement over Harrod-Domar Model. Reason (R) : Solow built a model of long run growth without the assumption of fixed proportion in production. Codes : (A) (A) is correct, but (R) is not the correct reason of (A). (B) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct. (C) Both (A) and (R) are correct. (D) Both (A) and (R) are not correct. 28. The concentrations effect explained in Peacock-Wiseman hypothesis implies (A) public expenditure does not increase in smooth and continuous manner (B) public expenditure increases the necessity of increased revenue (C) the Central Government s economic activity to grow faster than that of subnational Governments (D) absolute level of public expenditure increases 29. A tax imposed upon monopoly profits (A) can be shifted forward (B) can be shifted backward (C) can be shifted both forward and backward (D) cannot be shifted Paper-III 10 Identify the chronology of the following Committees on tax reforms in India : I. Committee on Taxation of Agricultural Income and Wealth II. Kaldor Proposal for Tax Reform in India III. Taskforces on Direct and Indirect Taxes IV. Direct Taxes Administration Enquiry Committee Codes : (A) II, I, IV, III (B) II, IV, I, III (C) II, III, I, IV (D) I, III, IV, II 33. The plan expenditure on Revenue Account of the Union Government includes I. Economic Services II. Social and community services III. Grants-in-aid to States and Union Territories IV. Loans and Advances to finance public enterprises Codes : (A) I and II are correct. (B) I, II and III are correct. (C) I, II and IV are correct. (D) I, II, III and IV are correct. Debt obligations of Government of India (Government liabilities) I. State Provident Funds II. Small Savings III. Reserve Funds and Deposits IV. Consolidated Fund of India Codes : (A) II and III are correct. (B) I, II and III are correct. (C) II, III and IV are correct. (D) I, III and IV are correct. 32. 30. 31. Which of the following are the role of Finance Commissions in India ? I. To make recommendations on the distribution of tax proceeds between Centre and States. II. To make Recommendations on levying, removing or restructuring of taxes. III. To recommend Grants-in-aid under Article 275 of the Constitution IV. To recommend plan and other grants under Article 282 of the Constitution Codes : (A) I and II are correct. (B) I and III are correct. (C) I, III and IV are correct. (D) All are correct. J-01-14 27. (A) : , - (R) : : (A) (A) , (R), (A) (B) (A) , (R) (C) (A) (R) (D) (A) (R) 28. - (A) (B) (C) - (D) 29. 30. 31. 32. : I. II. III. IV. : (A) II, I, IV, III (C) II, III, I, IV (A) (B) (C) (D) 33. I. II. III. - IV. : (A) I II (B) I, II III (C) I, II IV (D) I, II, III IV J-01-14 ( ) I. II. III. IV. : (A) II III (B) I, II III (C) II, III IV (D) I, III IV 11 (B) II, IV, I, III (D) I, III, IV, II ? I. II. , : III. 275 - IV. 282 : (A) I II (B) I III (C) I, III IV (D) Paper-III 34. 37. 35. 39. A feasible effect of international trade is that (A) a monopoly in the home market becomes an oligopoly in the world market (B) an oligopoly in the home market becomes a monopoly in the world market (C) a purely competitive firm in the home market becomes an oligopolist (D) a purely competitive firm in the home market becomes a monopolist 40. Match the following : List I List II a. WTO 1. Provide finance to correct disequilibrium in balance of payments. b. IMF 2. Generally forbids the use of quantitative restrictions in trade. c. SAARC 3. Sanction of soft loans d. IDA 4. Promotes trade among South Asian Countries Codes : a b c d (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 3 4 1 (C) 2 1 4 3 (D) 3 2 4 1 The immediate cause for the collapse of the Bretton woods system was (A) the expectation that the U.S.A. would soon be forced to devalue the dollar (B) the massive flight of liquid capital from the U.S.A. (C) the attempt by three small European Central Banks to convert part of their dollar holding into gold at the Federal Reserve Bank. (D) All of the above The European Union has achieved all of the following, except (A) adopted a common fiscal policy for member nations (B) established a common system of agricultural price supports (C) disbanded all tariffs between its member countries (D) levied common tariffs on products imported from nonmembers J-01-14 Euro currency market is a part of a larger global market known as Eurodollar market. (A) Above statement is correct. (B) Above statement is not correct. (C) Above statement is partially correct. (D) Above statement is partially incorrect. 36. A sudden shift from import tariffs to free trade may induce short term unemployment in (A) import competing industries (B) industries that are only exporters (C) industries that sell domestically as well as export (D) industries that neither import nor export 38. Under a managed floating exchange rate system, the nation s monetary authorities intervene in foreign exchange markets to (A) smooth out short-run and longrun fluctuations in exchange rates (B) keep exchange rates fixed among a group of nations (C) smooth out short-run fluctuations in exchange rates (D) keep exchange rates flexible Paper-III 12 34. , ? (A) - (B) (C) (D) 35. 38. (A) . . . (B) . . . (C) (D) 39. ( ) (A) (B) (C) (D) 40. I II : I II a. . . . 1. b. . . . 2. c. 3. d. . . . 4. : : (A) (B) (C) (D) : (A) (B) (C) (D) - , (A) (B) (C) (D) 36. 37. (A) (B) (C) (D) J-01-14 a 1 2 2 3 b 2 3 1 2 c 3 4 4 4 d 4 1 3 1 13 Paper-III 41. 42. 43. A Foreign Trade Zone (FTZ) is (A) a regional area within which trade with foreign nations is allowed (B) a free trade agreement among several nations (C) designed to promote exports by deferring import duties on intermediate inputs and waving such duties if the final product is re-exported rather than sold domestically (D) designed to limit exports of manufactured goods by placing import taxes on goods made within the zone 44. 45. Paper-III 14 Margin requirement specified under which instruments of monetary policy ? (A) Variable Reserve Requirement (B) Statutory Liquidity Requirement (C) Selective Credit Controls (D) Open Market Operations 47. Which of the following will act as the lender of intermediate resort ? (A) RBI (B) NABARD (C) SBI (D) None of the above Assertion (A) : Primary financial markets deals in new financial claims. Reason (R) : It mobilises savings and supplies new capital to the business units. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not a correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 46. The formula that shows the correct relationship between I. The supply of high powered money (H) II. The currency (C) III. The money supply (M) IV. Required Reserves (RR) V. Excess Reserves (ER) VI. Demand deposits (D), is M D+C (A) H = C + RR + ER H D+C (B) M = C + RR + ER M C + RR + ER (C) D + C = H H C + RR + ER (D) M = D According to Gurley and shaw, the various substitutes of currency and commercial bank demand deposits should be assigned different weights according to (A) their degree of replacement (B) their degree of substitutability (C) their share in the money market (D) their share in money supply As per Micro, Small and Medium Enterprise Development Act, 2006, Medium Enterprises are defined as those with investments : (A) < 25 lakhs (B) 25 lakhs to 5 crores (C) 5 crores to 10 crores (D) > 10 crores J-01-14 41. 42. 44. ( ) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 47. M D+C = H C + RR + ER H D+C (B) M = C + RR + ER M C + RR + ER (C) D + C = H H C + RR + ER (D) M = D (A) : (R) : : (A) (A) (R) (R), (A) (B) (A) (R) (R), (A) (C) (A) , (R) (D) (A) , (R) 46. : I. (H) II. (C) III. (M) IV. (RR) V. (ER) VI. (D) , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 45. ( . . .) ? (A) (B) (C) ( ) : , (D) , , 2006 , ? (A) < 25 (B) 25 5 (C) 5 10 (D) > 10 (A) 43. ? (A) . . . (B) (C) . . . (D) J-01-14 15 Paper-III 48. 52. Theory of Industrial Location is associated with the names of I. Losch Suggest the correct choices about the nature of the Environmental Economics : II. Weber I. III. Christaller Nature of Market failure is similar to public goods under public finance. IV. Lerner II. Willingness to pay can be negative. III. It deals for items which are not used. IV. It deals for items which are used. Codes : (A) I & II (B) I only (C) I, II and III (D) I, II, III and IV Codes : (A) I, II, III & IV 49. The Committees related to industrial licensing policy are (B) I, II & III (C) II, III & IV I. Arjun Sengupta Committee (D) II & IV II. D.G. Karve Committee III. Subimal Dutt Committee IV. R.K. Hazari Committee 53. (A) I and II Which of the following methods would be used for estimation of price change of a house due to either pollution or good environment like existence of park and scenic beauty ? (B) II and III (A) Hedonic Method (C) III and IV (B) Contingent Valuation Method (C) Externality Effects Codes : (D) I, II and III (D) All of the above 50. Which Industrial Policy Resolution gave the public sector a strategic role in the Indian Economy ? (A) 1948 (B) (C) 54. (A) There are eight columns in a life table. (D) 1980 1977 In a life table which of the following does not fit ? 1956 (B) Average industrial growth rate during Tenth Plan period was (C) Age-specific birth rate can be derived from a life table. (A) 5.3% (B) (C) 51. It tells the mortality rate. (D) 15.3% (D) Age-specific life expectancy can be estimated Paper-III 10.2% 8.8% 16 age-specific J-01-14 48. ? I. II. III. IV. : (A) I II (B) I (C) I, II III (D) I, II, III IV 49. I. II. . . III. IV. . . : (A) I II (B) II III (C) III IV (D) I, II III 50. 51. 52. 53. (A) 5.3% (C) J-01-14 10.2% (B) 8.8% (D) 15.3% 17 ( ) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 54. ? (A) 1948 (B) 1956 (C) 1977 (D) 1980 : I. II. III. , IV. , : (A) I, II, III IV (B) I, II III (C) II, III IV (D) II IV ? (A) (B) - (C) - (D) - Paper-III 55. 58. Match the highest crop production states given in List I with List II from the given code : List I List II (States) (Highest crop production) a. West Bengal 1. Total course cereals b. Uttar Pradesh 2. Rice c. Maharashtra 3. Potato d. Gujarat 4. Groundnut Codes : a b c d (A) 2 3 1 4 (B) 3 2 1 4 (C) 4 2 3 1 (D) 1 3 4 2 59. About minimum support price, find out the correct combinations : I. If market price is higher, farmers will sell to the government. II. It ensures minimum assured price for the produce of the farmers. III. It helps in food security mission. IV. This is highly rewarding to farmers because they earn huge profits on their produce. Codes : (A) I, II & IV (B) II, III & IV (C) II & III (D) II & IV 60. Optimum theory of population tells about the relationship between Which of the followings have been important in growth of rice and wheat output in India after initiating green revolution programme ? I. Changes in cropping pattern II. Improved yields III. Crop insurance IV. Increased area under cultivation Codes : (A) II, III & IV (B) I, II & IV (C) I, II & III (D) I, III & IV (A) Population and food supply (B) Population resources and overall (C) Dependent population working population and (D) Present population and growth rate of population 56. What is meant neutralism ? by population (A) Impact of population growth on economic growth is negligible. (B) Growth rate of population is hovering around stationary population. (C) Impact of population growth on food supply is neutral. (D) Due to population growth, change in age structure is almost neutral. 57. What is the essence of wage goods model explained by Professor P.R. Brahmananda in the Indian economy context ? (A) It tells about low wage rate in the agriculture. (B) It tells about low wage rate for labour in the economy. (C) It tells about shift of labour from agriculture to industry. (D) It tells about the impact of the shortage of food items on the wage rate and growth rate of the economy. Paper-III 18 J-01-14 55. ? (A) (B) (D) 56. (C) (A) (C) (D) J-01-14 d 4 4 1 2 ? I. II. III. IV. : (A) II, III IV (B) I, II IV (C) I, II III (D) I, III IV , . . . - ? (B) c 1 1 3 4 60. , (A) b 3 2 2 3 , : I. , II. III. IV. : (A) I, II IV (B) II, III IV (C) II III (D) II IV (D) a 2 3 4 1 59. - (C) I II : II I ( ( ) ) a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4. : (A) (B) (C) (D) ? (B) 57. 58. 19 Paper-III 61. Green agriculture involves (A) organic farming and emphasis on horticulture (B) avoiding pesticides, chemical fertilizers while focussing on horticulture and floriculture (C) integrated pest management, integrated nutrient supply and integrated natural resource management (D) emphasis on food crops, horticulture and floriculture 62. The average cost function is given as 1 AC = 3 x2 10x + 9. The level of output at which average cost is equal to marginal cost is : (A) 18 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 21 The estimated regression equation of a firm producing scooter tyres is : ln y = 3.56 + 0.31 ln X1 0.05 ln X2 + 0.53 ln X3 + 0.37 ln X4, R2 = 0.89 (Y = output and X1 to X4 are factor inputs). Assuming that all the estimated parameters are statistically significant from zero, the firm has (A) constant returns to scale (B) decreasing returns to scale (C) increasing returns to scale (D) neutral returns to scale 66. 63. 65. The test statistic used to test the significance of the adjusted coefficient of multiple determination (R2) is : (A) t test (B) Z test 2 (C) test (D) F test 67. Given that the CES production function as : The demand and supply functions are given as : P = 30 5x and Ps = 3x 10 A[ L respectively (x = quantity). The consumer surplus is (A) 125 (B) 62.5 (C) 62.5 (D) 125 64. The linear programming problem specified as Max : Z = 3x1 + 5x2 + 10x3 Sub to: x1 + x2 + x3 100 9x1 + x2 + 8x3 95 x1 + 8x2 + 3x3 60 2x1 + 7x2 + x3 150 68. and x1 0, x2 < 0 and x3 > 0 has (A) (B) (C) (D) Paper-III a feasible solution an optimal solution multiple solutions no solutions 20 K ] Y= + (1 ) Match List I with List II and select the answer from the codes given below : List I List II a. A 1. Factor intensity b. 2. Elasticity of substitution c. 3. Factor homogeneity d. 4. Efficiency parameter Codes : a b c d (A) 1 4 2 3 (B) 2 4 1 3 (C) 1 2 3 4 (D) 1 4 3 2 The technique used to estimate the over-identified system of simultaneous equations is (A) ordinary least squares (B) maximum likelihood (C) limited information maximum likelihood (D) two stage least squares J-01-14 61. 62. (A) (B) (C) , (D) , 64. , (A) (B) (C) (D) 1 2 ( R ) ? (A) t- (B) Z- 2 (C) - (D) F- 67. . . . : 66. (B) 12 (D) 21 : P = 30 5x Ps = 3x 10 , x = : (A) 125 (C) 62.5 Y= A[ L + (1 ) K ] I II : I II a. A 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4. : (B) 62.5 (D) 125 : Max :Z = 3x1 + 5x2 + 10x3 : x1 + x2 + x3 100 9x1 + x2 + 8x3 95 (A) (B) (C) (D) x1 + 8x2 + 3x3 60 2x1 + 7x2 + x3 150 68. x1 0, x2 < 0 x3 > 0 (A) (B) (C) (D) J-01-14 : ln y = 3.56 + 0.31 ln X1 0.05 ln X2 + 0.53 ln X3 + 0.37 ln X4 R2 = 0.89 ( Y = X1 X4 ) : AC = 3 x2 10x + 9 ? (A) 18 (C) 15 63. 65. 21 a 1 2 1 1 b 4 4 2 4 c 2 1 3 3 d 3 3 4 2 (A) (B) (C) (D) Paper-III 69. 72. Which of the following assumptions are required to show the consistency, unbiasedness and efficiency of the OLS estimates I. E ( t) = 0 II. I. 71. Arjun Sengupta Codes : (A) I, II & III (B) II, III & IV (C) I, III & IV (D) I & II The sources of auto correlation among the following are : I. Omitted explanatory variables II. Interpolation in the statistical observation III. Mis-specification of the true random term IV. Economic variables to move together over time Codes : (A) I and II only (B) I, II and III only (C) I, III and IV only (D) All of the above 73. What is the share of single lane/intermediate lane in the total length of National Highways ? (A) 12 percent 74. (B) (C) (D) 29 percent 22 percent 15 percent During which year, gross domestic savings of the public sector turned negative in the Indian economy ? I. 1990 91 II. III. 1995 96 1999 2000 IV. Arrange the following sub-sectors of the services sector of the Indian economy in ascending order of their contributions to the GDP in recent years : I. Trade, hotels and restaurants II. Transport, storage and communication III. Financing, insurance, real estate and business services IV. Community, social and personal services Codes : (A) I, II, III, IV (B) II, IV, III, I (C) II, I, III, IV (D) I, III, IV, II Paper-III NIPFP method O.P. Chopra s method IV. cov ( t, t j) = 0 for all values of j 0 IV. t ~ N(0, 2) Codes : (A) II and IV only. (B) I and III only. (C) I, II and III only. (D) All the above four Kaldor s approach II. III. Var ( t) = 2 III. 70. Which of the following can be linked with those providing method for estimating black money in India ? 2002 2003 Codes : II and III (A) I and II (C) 75. (B) (D) I and IV III and IV What has been the projected investment ratio for the infrastructure development for the Eleventh Five Year Plan of India ? (A) 5.43 percent (B) (C) 6.53 percent 7.60 percent (D) 9.34 percent 22 J-01-14 69. , ( ) ? 72. I. 74. cov ( t, t ? Var ( t) = 2 III. / ? (A) 12 (B) 15 (C) 22 (D) 29 E ( t) = 0 II. ? I. II. . . . . . III. . . IV. : (A) I, II III (B) II, III IV (C) I, III IV (D) I II 73. OLS j) = 0 j 0 IV. t ~ N(0, 2) : (A) (B) (C) (D) 70. 71. II IV I III I, II III : : I. II. III. - IV. : (A) I II (B) I, II III (C) I, III IV (D) I. II. III. IV. , . . . : I. , II. , III. , , IV. , : (A) I, II, III IV (B) II, IV, III I (C) II, I, III IV (D) I, III, IV II J-01-14 1990 91 1995 96 1999 2000 2002 2003 : II (C) III IV (A) I 75. 23 III (D) I IV (B) II ? (A) 5.43 (B) 6.53 (C) 7.60 (D) 9.34 Paper-III Space For Rough Work Paper-III 24 J-01-14

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Top Contributors
to this ResPaper
(answers/comments)


Manibabu Pavuluri
(37)

chandasharma
(35)

Anushraba Sarkar
(3)

Ajay Nahar
(3)

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

 

  Print intermediate debugging step

Show debugging info


 


Tags : cbse ugc net question papers, UGC NET Solved Sample Question Paper, UGC NET Exam Papers, ugc net past question papers, ugc net syllabus, ugc net specimen, ugc net study material, UGC NET Study Materials FREE, UGC NET Exam Pattern, Free Ugc Net Online Practice Tests, ugc net previous question papers, central board of secondary education,  


© 2010 - 2025 ResPaper. Terms of ServiceContact Us Advertise with us

 

ugc_net chat