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UGC NET JUN 2014 : ELECTRONIC SCIENCE PAPER II

11 pages, 50 questions, 50 questions with responses, 125 total responses,    0    0
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PAPER-II ELECTRONIC SCIENCE Signature and Name of Invigilator 1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................... (To be filled by the Candidate) (Name) ____________________________ Roll No. 2. (Signature) __________________________ (In figures as per admission card) (Name) ____________________________ J 88 Roll No.________________________________ (In words) 1 4 1 Time : 1 /4 hours] [Maximum Marks : 100 Number of Pages in this Booklet : 12 Instructions for the Candidates Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50 1. 2. - 3. , - - , : (i) - - (ii) - / - - (iii) OMR - 4. (A), (B), (C) (D) : (C) 5. I OMR OMR , 6. 7. (Rough Work) 8. OMR , , , , , 9. - OMR - OMR 10. / 11. ( ) 12. 1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given inside the Paper I Booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means such as change of response by scratching or using white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the test question booklet and Original OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry original question booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. J-88-14 1 P.T.O. ELECTRONIC SCIENCE Paper II Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory. 1. For the circuit shown in figure, the terminal voltage Vab is given by : 5. What bandwidth is needed for an FM signal that has a peak deviation of 3 KHz and handles audio signals from 200 Hz to 5 KHz ? (A) 6 KHz (B) (C) (A) 5 V (C) 2.5 V 2. 3. (B) 6 V (D) 3 V 16 KHz 10 KHz (D) 9.6 KHz 6. The earth has a conductivity of 10 2 mho/m, r = 10, r = 2, f = 10 GHz, the earth behaves like a (A) Good conductor (B) Moderate conductor (C) Good dielectric (D) Bad dielectric In which of the following base system, 132 is not a valid number ? (A) Base 16 (C) 7. The carrier velocity in a silicon p-i-n photodiode with 25 m depletion layer width is 3 104 m/s. The maximum response time for the pin diode is given by : (A) 52 ns (B) 2.5 ns (C) 62 ns (D) 5.2 ns (B) (D) Base 2 Base 8 Base 10 What is the relation between k and T such that a unity feedback control system whose open loop transfer function below is stable : k G(s) = s[s(s + 10) + T] (A) 0 < k < 10T (B) 0 > k > 10T (C) 0<k<T (D) 0 < k > T 4. For a JFET, above the pinch-off voltage, as the drain voltage increases, the (A) the drain current remains constant. (B) the drain current decreases. (C) the drain current increases linearly. (D) the drain current varies parabolically. Paper-II 8. Microprocessor development had happened because of LSI. What is LSI ? (A) Large Scale Integral (B) Large Signal Integration (C) Large Scale Integration (D) Long Signal Integration 2 J-88-14 9. 10. 11. 12. Stdio.h header file contains functions related to (A) prototypes for the standard input/output library functions. (B) prototypes for the standard input and standard output functions. (C) prototypes for the functions that perform input from files. (D) prototypes for functions that perform input from strings in memory and outputs to strings in memory. 1. T), S11, S22, S33 and S44 are nonzero. 2. All junctions are reciprocal i.e. Sjk = Skj 3. S11, S22, S33 and S44 are zero. 4. S13 = S23, S14 = S24, S43 = 0 and S34 = 0 Which one of the following is true ? The threshold voltage of a MOSFET can be lowered by 1. using a thinner gate oxide 2. reducing the carrier concentration in the substrate 3. increasing the carrier concentration in the substrate Of these statements : (A) 3 alone is correct. (B) 1 and 2 are correct (C) 1 and 3 are correct (D) 2 alone is correct (A) 1, 2 and 4 are correct. (B) 1 and 2 are correct. (C) 2, 3 and 4 are correct. (D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct. 13. In optical fibers, statements are given : following 1. 1550 nm is zero dispersion wavelength 2. 1330 nm is zero dispersion wavelength 3. At 1330 nm, attenuation is minimum 4. An angular position to be measured using a transducer. Which of the following types of transducers can be used for this purpose ? 1. Circular potentiometer 2. LVDT 3. E-pick off 4. Synchro Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1 and 4 J-88-14 In a hybrid TEE (Magic following statements are given : At 1550 nm, attenuation is minimum Which one of the following is correct ? (A) 1 and 4 are true. (B) 1 and 3 are true. (C) 2 and 4 are true. (D) 1, 2 and 3 are true. 3 Paper-II 16. 1. Armstrong A linear two-terminal network can be replaced by an equivalent circuit consisting of a current source in parallel with resistor RN, where RN is 2. Foster-Sealy Discriminator the ratio of 3. Balanced Modulator 1. 4. 14. Reactance Modulator Closed circuit voltage to short circuit current at the terminal pair. 2. Open circuit voltage to open circuit current at the terminal pair. 3. Open circuit voltage to short circuit current at the terminal pair. 4. Closed circuit voltage to open circuit current at the terminal pair. Which of the following techniques are used to generate frequency modulated signal : Which one of the following is true ? (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1 and 4 15. Which of the following statements are true regarding the operation of JK flip-flop ? 1. (A) 1 and 4 When K input is low and J input is high, the Q output of the flip flop is reset. 2. When both the inputs K and J are low, the output Q does not change. 4. When both the inputs K and J are high it is possible to set or reset the flip-flop (ie) the output toggle on next positive clock edge. only 2 (C) When K input is high and J input is low, the output Q of the flip flop is set. 3. (B) 3 only (D) only 3 and 4 17. The following signals microprocessors are intercepts : 1. TRAP 2. INTA 3. IO/ M Which one of the following is true ? 4. RESET IN (A) 1 and 2 (A) 1 and 3 (B) 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 4 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (C) of 2 and 3 (D) All of the above Paper-II (D) 3 and 4 4 J-88-14 18. 1. Low level programming 2. High level programming 3. Assembly level programming 4. Machine level programming (A) 1 and 4 (B) (C) 19. 21. C programming language can be considered as 1. A linear two replaced by consisting of series with a the ratio of 1. ArF Excimer laser 3. XeCl Excimer laser 4. 2 and 3 Ar2 Excimer laser 2. (D) 3 and 4 1 and 2 Consider the following Excimer Lasers used for photolithography and surgery purposes : XeF Excimer laser The correct sequence of the descending order of wavelength of operation is (A) 2, 3, 1, 4 22. open circuit voltage to the short circuit current at the terminal pair. (B) (C) terminal circuit can be an equivalent circuit a voltage source Vt in resistor Rt where Rt is (D) 4, 3, 2, 1 1, 3, 2, 4 1, 2, 3, 4 Arrange the following communication systems in increasing order of their available commercial bandwidth : 1. Satellite Communication System 2. Amplitude Modulated System 2. short circuit current to the short circuit voltage at the terminal. 3. Frequency Modulated System 3. Open circuit voltage to the open circuit current at the terminal pair. 4. Two-line transmission system Correct sequence is 4. (A) 4, 2, 3, 1 (C) the independent sources are turned off. (A) 1 and 4 (B) (C) (D) 2 and 3 3 and 4 2 and 4 23. (B) (D) 1, 3, 2, 4 4, 3, 2, 1 Priority of the interrupts in the order from the highest to least priority 1. RST 7.5 2. RST 5.5 (A) Positive temperature coefficient of resistance 3. RESET IN 4. RST 6.5 (B) 20. 1, 2, 3, 4 Zero temperature coefficient of resistance The correct sequence is Negative temperature coefficient of resistance (B) 3, 1, 4 and 2 (C) 2, 4, 1 and 3 Semi conductors have (C) (A) 1, 4, 2 and 3 (D) Resistance does not change with temperature J-88-14 (D) 3, 2, 4 and 1 5 Paper-II 24. 25. 26. Sequence of operators according to the priority 1. / 2. + 3. * 4. The correct sequence is (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3, 4 and 1 (C) 3, 4, 1 and 2 (D) 3, 1, 2 and 4 27. b. Flip-Flop c. E ii. Paper-II iv. Sequential logic Codes : a b c d (A) i iii iv ii (B) i iv ii iii (C) i ii iv iii (D) i iii ii iv 28. List I List II a. Shot Noise i. Resistance b. Johnson Noise ii. Diode c. Current Noise iii. P-N junction d. Partition Noise D J+ t 0 iv. d. ( B) Codes : a b c d (A) iv i ii iii (B) iii i ii iv (C) iii ii i iv (D) i ii iii iv iii. Memory d. Parallel Adder B t iii. ii. Combinational circuit c. Shift Register Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using codes given below : List I List II i. v a. H b. List II a. Multiplexer i. Selects one of many inputs to a single output What is the correct sequence of the following step in the fabrication of a monolithic, bipolar junction transistor ? 1. Emitter diffusion 2. Base diffusion 3. Buried layer formation 4. Epi-layer formation Select the correct sequence using the codes given below : (A) 3, 4, 1, 2 (B) 4, 3, 1, 2 (C) 3, 4, 2, 1 (D) 4, 3, 2, 1 D List I iv. Triode Codes : a b c d i ii iv iii (B) iii iv i ii (C) iv i ii iii (D) ii i iii iv (A) 6 J-88-14 29. List I List II a. 1550 nm i. 100 GHz b. 0.8 nm ii. Visible light c. 400-700 nm iii. Ultra violet d. 200 nm 31. iv. 193 T Hz List I List II a. Flash converter i. Integrating type b. Successive ii. Fastest approximation converter c. Counter Ramp a b c i ii iii (B) iv ii i iii (C) i ii iii iv (D) iv iii i ii iv. Uses a DAC in its feedback path d (A) iv iii. Maximum conversion Time = N bits d. Dual Slope Codes : Codes : a i. Reverse bias a. n-channel JFET is better increases along the channel than p-channel JFET b. Channel is wedge shaped iv i i iii iv ii iv iii i iv iii ii 32. i List I List II (Devices) ii. High electric field near the drain and directed towards source (Characteristics) a. BJT ii. High gain c. Tunnel diode iv. Better frequency performance since n >> p i. Voltage controlled negative resistance b. MOSFET c. Channel is not iii. Low leakage current at the completely closed at gate terminal pinch-off d. Input impedance is high iii (D) Characteristics) d (B) (Reasons) c (A) ii List II b (C) ii List I (Structure/ 30. iii. Voltage regulation current d. Zener diode iv. High input impedance Codes : Codes : a b c (A) iv i ii ii iii (C) iii i ii (D) ii J-88-14 iv iii iv i iii i iv ii iii iii i iv (D) i d (C) ii iv c (B) i b (A) ii iii (B) iv a iii ii iv d 7 i Paper-II 33. List I a. Gauss meter i. b. Logic ii. analyser c. Pirani gauge iii. d. Rotameter Codes : a (A) i (B) ii (C) i (D) iv 34. b iv iii ii iii List I a. AC i. b. SP ii. c. HL iii. d. PC iv. Codes : a (A) ii (B) iii (C) iv (D) ii Paper-II iv. c iii i iii i List II Pressure measurement Flow measurement Trouble shooting of digital electronic circuits Magnetic flux density 35. List I List II a. Super position theorem b. Thevenin s theorem iii. Source represented by its Thevenin s equivalent circuits d. Maximum power transfer theorem List II Contains the data of stored from registers used for storing address of the external memory Contains the address of the instructions which has to be executed after completion of execution of present instruction. Primary register to perform arithmetic and logical operations ii. Applicable to linear systems c. Reciprocity theorem d ii iv iv ii i. Ratio of excitation to response is constant when the positions of excitation and response are interchanged iv. Reduce some portion of circuit to an equivalent source and a single element Codes : c iv ii ii iii d i iv ii iv i iii (C) iv iii i ii (D) ii 8 c (B) ii d i iv iii i b (A) iii b iii i i iv a i iv iii J-88-14 37. Directions : Q. Nos. 36 to 45 : The Assertion (A) : An EDFA is usually following items consists of two statements, pumped at 980 nm wavelength, one labelled the Assertion (A) and the which means that Erbium ions at ground level absorb energy. other labelled the Reason (R) . You are to Reason (R) examine these two statements carefully and : This absorbed energy is transferred to high decide if the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) frequency signals to boost up. are individually true and if so, whether the reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answer to these 38. Assertion (A) : D-flip-flops are used as buffer register. items using the codes given below and mark your answer accordingly. Reason (R) : Flip-flops are free from race-around condition. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is 39. the correct explanation of (A). (B) Hurwitz criterion gives both absolute as Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is well as relative stability using not correct explanation of (A). (C) Assertion (A) : Routh characteristic equation. (A) is true, but (R) is false. Reason (R) (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. : For a system to be stable all roots of characteristic equation must lie in left half of s-plane. 36. Assertion (A) : Brewster angle is the angle of incidence at which 40. there is no reflection. Reason (R) : For Assertion (A) : Considering two p-n-p and n-p-n transistors of parallel identical construction as far as polarisation, Brewster angle is shape, size and doping are given by following expression : concerned, the n-p-n transistor will have a better frequency Er Ei = J-88-14 cos i + cos i r2 sin2 i r1 r2 + sin2 i r1 response. Reason (R) : The electron mobility is higher than that of the hole mobility. 9 Paper-II 41. 44. Assertion (A) : If a semiconductor is placed in a transverse magnetic field B and an electric field E is applied across its other two faces, then it would produce an electric current I in the direction perpendicular to both B and E. It means the contents of memory address 08 H are moved to be contents of A. Reason (R) 43. 45. Assertion (A) : A monostable multivibrator can be used to alter the pulse width of a repetitive pulse train. Reason (R) : Monostable multivibrator has a stable state. : The Assertion (A) : To avoid repetition of code and bulky programs functionally related statements are isolated into a function. Reason (R) : Function definition defines the body of the function. Read the passage and answer the questions 46 to 50 that follows based on your understanding of passage : single An antenna is generally a metallic object, often a wire or collection of wires, used to convert high frequency current into electromagnetic waves and vice-versa. Antenna serve either or both of the following two functions, generation or the collection of electromagnetic energy. In a transmitting system, a radio-frequency signal is developed, amplified, modulated and applied to the antenna. The R-F currents flowing through the antenna produce electromagnetic waves which radiate into the atmosphere. In a receiving system, electromagnetic waves cutting through the antenna induce alternating currents for use by the receiver. Assertion (A) : In a two port network, with 4 terminals four types of parameters like impedance, admittance, hybrid and transmission are considered and they are related to each other. Reason (R) : MV 1 A, 82 H It means that the contents of memory address 82 H are moved to be contents of A immediately. Reason (R) : Hall coefficient is proportional to the mobility of the charge carriers in the semi conductor. 42. Assertion (A) : MOV A, 08 H assumption made for the above statement is that there are no independent sources and non-zero initial conditions within the linear port network. Paper-II 10 J-88-14 46. Which of the following antennas is best exerted from a waveguide ? (A) Biconical (B) Folded dipole (C) Horn (D) Discone 49. A horn is an ideal antenna for terminating a waveguide and may be conical, rectangular or sectorial. Wide band antennas either when the transmissions are wide band or when working of narrow channels over a wide frequency range is the major application. Helical antenna, which consists of a loosely wound helix backed up by a metal ground plane. Loop antennas are often used for direction finding. Loops have many shapes and generally consists of a single turn of wire. Discone is a ground plane antenna evolved from the vertical dipole and having a very similar radiation pattern. J-88-14 The discone antenna is (A) a useful direction finding antenna (B) used as a radar receiving antenna (C) circularly polarized like other circular antennas (D) useful as a UHF receiving antenna 48. The Yagi-Uda antenna consists of a drivers element and two or more parasitic elements. Yagi-Uda has two parasitic elements, a reflector and a director. This Yagi-Uda antenna provides about 7 dB of power gain with respect to a halfwavelength dipole reference. More complex antennas may be circularly polarized both vertically and horizontally polarized waves are radiated with equal power in both. If the powers are unequal the antenna is said to be elliptically polarized. A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of its (A) circular polarization (B) elliptical polarization (C) broad band width (D) good front-to-back ratio 47. Efficient operation also requires that the receiving antenna be of the same polarization as the transmitting antenna. Polarization is the direction of the electric field and is therefore, the same as the antennas physical configuration. Thus vertical antenna will transmit vertical polarized light, any antenna having a physical length that is one-half wavelength of the applied frequency is called a Hertz antenna. Hertz antenna are predominantly used with frequencies above 2 MHz. Usually, at frequencies below 2 MHz, a Marconi type of antenna is used. The Marconi antenna is usually a quarter-wave grounded antenna or any odd multiple of a quarter wavelength. Which is a non-resonant antenna ? (A) Marconi (B) Rhombic (C) Yagi-Uda (D) Discone 50. An antenna is polarized in the plane of the field perpendicular to (A) Electric field (B) Magnetic field (C) Both Electric and Magnetic field (D) Field parallel to both electric and magnetic field 11 Paper-II Space For Rough Work Paper-II 12 J-88-14

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