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UGC NET DEC 2008 : COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS PAPER II

7 pages, 50 questions, 50 questions with responses, 72 total responses,

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Signature and Name of Invigilator OMR Sheet No. : ...................................................... (To be filled by the Candidate) 1. (Signature) Roll No. (Name) (In figures as per admission card) Roll No. 2. (Signature) (In words) (Name) Test Booklet No. PAPER II D 8 7 0 8 COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS Time : 1 hours] Number of Pages in this Booklet : 8 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50 U Instructions for the Candidates 1. 2. 3. 4. 1. U DU U S U U U U Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the question booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the oval as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : A B C 2. - 3. U U U, - S U U U - S U (i) - S U U U U S U U- U S S U U (ii) U DU U U U - S DU U U U U U U S DU / U U U U U S S U U U U U S U U - S U U - S U UQ (iii) - S R OMR U U U U OMR R - S U U 4. U U (A), (B), (C) (D) U U U U U D A B C D (C) U 5. U U I U U- U where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the Answer Sheet given inside the Paper I booklet only . If you mark at any place other than in the ovals in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the test booklet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the test question booklet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is NO negative marking. D 8708 [Maximum Marks : 100 U U U S U U U , U 6. U U 7. (Rough Work) S DU U U 8. U- S U , U U U U 9. U # U U- S U U U U U # U U U / U Z U S U 11. U ( U U) U U 12. U U 10. 1 P.T.O. Computer Science and Applications PAPER II Note : 1. This paper contains fifty (50) objective-type questions, each question carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all of them. The channel capacity of a band-limited Gaussian channel is given by : (A) (B) S B log2 11 N (C) 2. S B log2 21 N S B log10 11 N (D) S B loge 11 N The graph K3, 4 has : (A) 3 edges (B) 4 edges (C) 7 edges (D) 12 edges 3. The total number of spanning trees that can be drawn using five labelled vertices is : (A) 125 (B) 64 (C) 36 (D) 16 4. Extremely low power dissipation and low cost per gate can be achieved in : (A) MOS ICs (B) C MOS ICs (C) TTL ICs (D) ECL ICs 5. An example of a universal building block is : (A) EX-OR gate (B) AND gate (C) OR gate 6. The ATM cell is : (A) 48 bytes long (C) 64 bytes long NOR gate An example of a layer that is absent in broadcast networks is : (A) physical layer (B) presentation layer (C) network layer (D) application layer 7. (D) (B) (D) 53 bytes long 69 bytes long 8. Four jobs J1, J2, J3 and J4 are waiting to be run. Their expected run times are 9, 6, 3 and 5 respectively. In order to minimise average response time, the jobs should be run in the order : (B) J4 J3 J2 J1 (C) J3 J4 J1 J2 (D) J3 J4 J2 J1 (A) J1 J2 J3 J4 9. Suppose it takes 100 ns to access page table and 20 ns to access associative memory. If the average access time is 28 ns, the corresponding hit rate is : (A) 100 percent (B) 90 percent (C) 80 percent (D) 70 percent D 8708 2 10. Transmission of N signals, each band limited to fm Hz by TDM, requires a minimum band-width of : (A) f m (B) 2 fm (C) N fm (D) 2N fm 11. If a code is t error detecting, the minimum humming distance should be equal to : (A) t 2 1 (B) t (C) t 1 1 (D) 2t 1 1 12. A relation R in {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} is given by { (1, 2), (2, 3), (3, 4), (4, 4), (4, 5) }. This relation is : (A) reflexive (B) symmetric (C) transitive (D) not reflexive, not symmetric and not transitive 13. The dual of the switching function x1yz is : (A) 14. x1yz (B) (C) x ( y 1z ) (D) x ( y1z ) (C) x1y z Q5 D (D) Q5 D (D) S5 e G The characteristic equation of D flip-flop is : (A) Q51 (B) Q50 15. If four 4 input multiplexers drive a 4 input multiplexer, we get a : (A) 16 input MUX (B) 8 input MUX (C) 4 input MUX (D) 2 input MUX 16. The throughput of slotted ALOHA is given by : (A) S5G (B) S5GeG (C) 17. Congestion control is done by : (A) Network layer (C) Presentation layer (B) (D) S5Ge2G Physical layer Application layer 18. Assertion (A) : Twisted pairs are widely used as transmission medium. Reasoning (R) : Twisted pairs have adequate performance and low cost. (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation (C) (A) is true but (R) is false (D) (A) is false but (R) is true 19. An example of a non-adaptive routing algorithm is : (A) Shortest path routing (B) Centralised routing (C) Baran s hot potato algorithm (D) Baran s backward learning algorithm D 8708 3 P.T.O. 20. IP address in B class is given by : (A) 125 . 123 . 123 . 2 (C) 192 . 128 . 32 . 56 (B) (D) 191 . 023 . 21 . 54 10 . 14 . 12 . 34 21. N processes are waiting for I/O. A process spends a fraction p of its time in I/O wait state. The CPU utilisation is given by : (B) 1 2p N (C) p N (D) p2N (A) 1 2p2N 22. If holes are half as large as processes, the fraction of memory wasted in holes is : (A) 2 3 (B) 1 2 (C) 1 3 (D) 23. An example of a non - pre-emptive scheduling algorithm is : (A) Round Robin (B) Priority Scheduling (C) Shortest job first (D) 2 level scheduling 24. An example of a distributed OS is : (A) Amoeba (C) MS-DOS 1 5 (B) (D) UNIX MULTICS 25. Which one of the following describes correctly a static variable ? (A) It cannot be initialised (B) It is initialised once at the commencement of execution and cannot be changed at run time (C) It retains its value during the life of the program (D) None of the above 26. The output of the program code main ( ) { int x 5 0; while ( x < 5 10 ) for ( ; ; ) if ( 1 1 x % 10 5 5 0 ) break; print f( x5%d , x); } is : (A) x 5 1 (B) (C) x 5 20 (D) D 8708 4 compilation error none of the above 27. A copy constructor is invoked when : (A) a function returns by value (C) a function returns by reference (B) (D) an argument is passed by value none of the above 28. When a language has the capability to produce new data types, it is said to be : (A) extensible (B) encapsulated (C) overloaded (D) none of the above 29. How many constructors can a class have ? (A) zero (B) (C) 2 (D) 1 any number 30. An entity has : (i) a set of properties (ii) a set of properties and values for all the properties (iii) a set of properties and the values for some set of properties may non-uniquely identify an entity (iv) a set of properties and the values for some set of properties may uniquely identify an entity Which of the above are valid ? (A) (i) only (B) (ii) only (C) (iii) only (D) (iv) only 31. Aggregation is : (A) an abstraction through which relationships are treated as lower level entities. (B) an abstraction through which relationships are treated as higher level entities. (C) an abstraction through which relationships are not treated at all as entities. (D) none of the above 32. Suppose R is a relation schema and F is a set of functional dependencies on R. Further, suppose R1 and R2 form a decomposition of R. Then the decomposition is a lossless join decomposition of R provided that : (A) R 1 I R 2 R 1 is in F1 (B) R 1 I R 2 R 2 is in F1 (C) both R 1 I R 2 R 1 and R 1 I R 2 R 2 functional dependencies are in F1 (D) at least one from R 1 I R 2 R 1 and R 1 I R 2 R 2 is in F1 33. In a heap, every element is __________ of all the elements in the subtree. (A) maximum (B) minimum (C) sum (D) product 34. If (rear 55 maxsize 21) rear50; else rear5rear11; is required in : (A) circular queue (B) linear queue (C) stack (D) D 8708 5 deque P.T.O. 35. A high performance switching and multiplexing technology that utilises fixed length packets to carry different types of traffic is : (A) ATM (B) ADSL (C) SONET (D) None of the above 36. A conventional LAN bridge specifies only the functions of OSI : (A) layers 1 and 2 (B) layers 1 through 3 (C) all layers (D) none of the above 37. An assembly program contains : (A) imperative and declarative statements (B) imperative statements and assembler directives (C) imperative and declarative statements as well as assembler directives (D) declarative statements and assembler directives 38. In which addressing mode, the effective address of the operand is generated by adding a constant value to the contents of register ? (A) absolute mode (B) immediate mode (C) indirect mode (D) index mode 39. Which of the following are Assembler Directives ? (iii) START (i) EQU (ii) ORIGIN (A) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (B) (i), (iii) and (iv) (C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (iv) END 40. Which of the following OS treats hardware as a file system ? (A) UNIX (B) DOS (C) Windows NT (D) None of the above 41. In which of the following, ready to execute processes must be present in RAM ? (A) multiprocessing (B) multiprogramming (C) multitasking (D) in all of the above 42. If the executing program size is greater than the existing RAM of a computer, it is still possible to execute the program if the OS supports : (A) multitasking (B) virtual memory (C) paging system (D) none of the above 43. Software Quality Assurance (SQA) encompasses : (A) verification (B) validation (C) both verification and validation (D) none of the above D 8708 6 44. Which level is called as defined in capability maturity model ? (A) 45. level 0 (B) level 3 (C) level 4 (D) level 1 COCOMO model is used for : (A) (B) product complexity estimation (C) 46. product quality estimation product cost estimation (D) all of the above Font sizes are usually expressed in points. One point is : (A) (B) 0.0138 inch (C) 47. 0.0069 inch 0.0207 inch (D) 0.0276 inch Assertion (A) : Cellular telephone systems can handle a multitude of users. Reasoning (R) : Cellular telephone systems permit extensive frequency reuse in a small local area. (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation (C) (A) is true but (R) is false (D) 48. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A) (A) is false but (R) is true E commerce involves : (A) (B) Electronic mail (C) 49. Electronic Data Interchange Electronic Bulletin Boards (D) All of the above An example of a data mining algorithm which uses squared error score function is : (A) (B) back propagation algorithm (C) a priori algorithm (D) vector space algorithm (I) Each object in the active directory of windows 2000 has an access control list. (II) 50. CART algorithm The scheme is a blueprint of all objects in the domain of windows 2000. Which of the following is true ? (A) only (I) (B) only (II) (C) both (I) and (II) (D) none of the above -oOo- D 8708 7 P.T.O.

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Additional Info : Ugc Net December 2008 Question Paper - Computer Science And Applications Paper II
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