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UGC NET DEC 2009 : POLITICAL SCIENCE PAPER II

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Signature and Name of Invigilator OMR Sheet No. : ......................................... (To be filled by the Candidate) 1. (Signature) __________________________ Roll No. (Name) ____________________________ 2. (Signature) __________________________ (In figures as per admission card) Roll N o.____________________________ (In words) (Name) ____________________________ D-0209 Test Booklet No. PAPER-II Time : 1 1/4 hours] [Maximum Marks : 100 POLITICAL SCIENCE Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Instructions for the Candidates 1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the oval as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : B C A D where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the Answer Sheet given inside the Paper I Booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the ovals in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the test booklet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR Answer sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. Negative Marking :- For each incorrect answer, 0.5 marks shall be deducted. D-0109 D-0209 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50 1. 2. - 3. , - - : (i) - - (ii) - / - - (iii) - OMR OMR - 4. (A), (B), (C) (D) B C A D : (C) 5. I - , 6. 7. (Rough Work) 8. - , 9. - OMR - 10. / 11. ( ) 12. : 0.5 P.T.O. 1 P.T.O. POLITICAL SCIENCE Paper II Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions, each question carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all the questions. 1. Gandhi wrote Hind Swaraj in the year (A) 1907 (B) 1908 (C) 1919 (D) 1920 2. They (Moderates) lick the dust of the feet that kick Who said this ? (A) M. N. Roy (B) B.G. Tilak (C) Aurobindo Ghosh (D) Veer Savarkar 3. The core idea of ancient Greek political philosophy is (A) Social equality (B) Liberty of the individual (C) Good life (D) State sovereignty 4. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (A) Sovereignty of Truth M.K. Gandhi (B) New Humanism Aurobindo Ghosh (C) Dictatorship of the proletariat V.I. Lenin (D) New Democracy Mao Zedong 5. Who, among the following philosophers, is famous for adopting the golden mean ? (A) Plato (B) Aristotle (C) St. Thomas Aquinas (D) Machiavelli 6. The study of the Political System of a country at one time, in all its contexts, is known as the (A) Configurative approach (B) Comparative approach (C) Structural approach (D) Behavioural approach 7. Limited Government has a close affinity to (A) Separation of powers (B) (C) Two-party system (D) Judicial supremacy Rule of Law 8. The Residuary Powers rest with the States/Units in the political systems of (A) U.S.A. and India (B) U.S.A. and Switzerland (C) Switzerland and India (D) India and U.K. 9. Who, among the following, is not a dependency theorist ? (A) Gunder Frank (B) S.E. Finer (C) Wallerstein (D) Cardoso 10. Which of the following is not a feature of the Parliamentary System ? (A) Collective responsibility (B) Close relationship between the legislature and the executive (C) Leadership of the Prime Minister (D) Fixed Tenure of the Government 11. Who, of the following, was not an extremist ? (A) Lala Lajpat Rai (B) (C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (D) Paper-II 2 Bipin Chandra Pal Gopal Krishna Gokhale D-0209 II : (50) - (2) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. ? (A) 1907 (B) 1908 (C) 1919 (D) 1920 ( ) ? (A) . . (B) . . (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D) ? (A) . . (B) (C) . . (D) - ? (A) (B) (C) (D) , , (A) (B) (C) (D) ? (A) (B) (C) - (D) / (A) . . . (B) . . . (C) (D) . . ? (A) (B) . . (C) (D) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) D-0209 3 Paper-II 12. Which one of the following is not a part of Fundamental Duties under Indian Constitution ? (A) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India. (B) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence. (C) To provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years. (D) To help in organising village panchayats. 13. Which one of the following writs is issued by the Courts for the release of a person unlawfully detained ? (A) Quo Warranto (B) Prohibition (C) Habeas Corpus (D) Certiorari 14. Which of the following was NOT associated with electoral reforms in India ? (A) Dinesh Goswami Committee (B) Inderjit Gupta Committee (C) G.V.K. Rao Committee (D) Tarkunde Committee 15. Who described India as a Soft State ? (A) Gunnar Myrdal (B) Myron Weiner (C) Rajni Kothari (D) K.C. Wheare 16. Who, among the following, scrutinises the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India ? (A) Cabinet Secretariat (B) Public Accounts Committee (C) Union Finance Minister (D) Department of Expenditure, Union Ministry of Finance 17. To Ronald Reagan, the Evil Empire was (A) People s Republic of China (B) (C) Iran (D) Soviet Union Libya 18. The Fundamental Principle of the League of Nations was (A) Collective defence (B) International peace (C) Collective security (D) International brotherhood 19. A State which dominates and subordinates neighbouring States without taking them over is (A) Colonial power (B) Garrison State (C) Dominion State (D) Suzerain State 20. Prisoner s dilemma is a phenomenon that fuels (A) Arms race (B) (C) Disarmament (D) Arms control Peace 21. The tragedy of commons explained by Garett Hardison is related to (A) War (B) Peace (C) Human Rights (D) Environment 22. When did Minnowbrook-I Conference take place ? (A) 1966 (B) 1967 (C) 1968 Paper-II 4 (D) 1969 D-0209 12. ? , : , (D) (A) (B) (C) 13. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 14. ? (A) (B) (C) . . . (D) ? (B) 15. (A) (C) (D) . . 16. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) , 17. (A) (C) (B) (D) (B) (C) 18. (A) (D) 19. (A) (B) (C) (D) 20. ? (A) (B) (C) : (D) 21. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) -I ? 1966 (B) 1967 (D) 1969 22. (A) D-0209 (C) 5 1968 Paper-II 23. Who, among the following, has been considered as the St. Paul of the concept of bureaucracy and capitalist nationality ? (A) Woodrow Wilson (B) F.W. Taylor (C) Max Weber (D) H. Simon 24. Who, among the following, is considered as the high priest of development administration ? (A) Woodrow Wilson (B) Chester Barnard (C) Paul Appleby (D) Fred Riggs 25. Right to Information Act (2005) primarily helps the cause of (A) Legal reforms (B) Political reforms (C) Social integrity (D) Transparent administration 26. Which one of the following recommended the establishment of Ombudsman for Local Governments in India ? (A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (B) Administrative Reforms Commission I (C) Administrative Reforms Commission II (D) Santhanam Committee 27. Match List-I with given below : List-I (a) Plato (b) Rawls (c) Bentham (d) Marx Codes : a b (A) (iv) (iii) (B) (iii) (iv) (C) (i) (ii) (D) (ii) (i) 28. List-II and select the correct answer with the help of the codes (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) c (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) List-II Utilitarianism Surplus value Philosopher-king Justice as fairness d (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : List-I List-II (a) Critical Community Studies (i) Barry Buzon (b) Security Community (ii) Robert Jervis (c) Security Regime (iii) Karl Deutsch (d) Security Complex (iv) Kenneth Booth Codes : a b c d (A) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) (B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) Paper-II 6 D-0209 23. ? (A) (B) . . (C) (D) . 24. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 25. (2005) : ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 26. ? (A) (B) -I (C) -II (D) 27. -I -II : -I -II (a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) - (d) (iv) : (A) (B) (C) (D) a (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) b c d (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (i) (ii) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (iii) (iv) -I -II : -I -II (a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv) : 28. (A) (B) (C) (D) D-0209 a (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) b c d (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (iii) (ii) (i) (ii) (i) (iv) 7 Paper-II 29. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : List-I List-II (a) Classical Realism (i) Krasner (b) Structural Realism (ii) Kenneth Waltz (c) Neo-classical Realism (iii) Morgenthau (d) Rational choice (iv) Schwaller Codes : a b c d (A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (B) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 30. Which one of the following pairs is not properly matched ? (a) David Easton (i) Post-modernism (b) C. Wright Mills (ii) Guild Socialism (c) G.D.H. Cole (iii) Power Elite (d) Derrida (iv) Political system Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes : a b c d (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (C) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) (D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) 31. Identify the correct chronological order of following Prime Ministers of India : (i) V.P. Singh (ii) Chandrashekhar (iii) Morarji Desai (iv) Rajiv Gandhi Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes : (A) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (B) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) (C) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 32. Identify the correct chronological order in which the following events occurred. (i) Death of Fakharuddin Ali Ahmed. (ii) First split in the Congress after Independence. (iii) Arrest of Shaikh Md. Abdullah as the Prime Minister of Jammu and Kashmir. (iv) Signing of Indo-Soviet Treaty. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes : (A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (C) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) 33. According to Organski, the stages of political development are (1) Unification (2) Industrialization (3) Abundance (4) National Welfare Identify the correct chronological sequence of the above from the codes given below : (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2, 4 and 3 (C) 1, 3, 4 and 2 (D) 2, 1, 3 and 4 Paper-II 8 D-0209 -I -II : -I -II (a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) - (iii) (d) (iv) : 29. (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D) a (i) (iv) (i) (ii) b (ii) (iii) (iii) (i) c d (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (iv) (ii) (iv) (iii) (iii) (iii) (iv) (i) (i) (iv) (ii) (ii) (B) (D) (i) (iv) (iv) (iii) (iv) (iii) (ii) (ii) (i) : (i) (ii) (iii) . (iv) - : : (A) (C) 33. c d (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (iii) (i) (iii) (iv) : (i) . . (ii) (iii) : : (A) (C) 32. b (ii) (i) (ii) (ii) ? (a) (i) - (b) . (ii) (c) . . . (iii) (d) (iv) : : 30. 31. a (iii) (iv) (iv) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (B) (D) (iii) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (iv) (ii) (i) (1) (2) (3) : (A) 1, 2, 3 4 (B) 1, 2, 4 3 (C) 1, 3, 4 2 D-0209 9 (4) (D) 2, 1, 3 4 Paper-II 34. Arrange the chronological order of the following treaties in the evolution of European Union : (i) Amsterdam Treaty (ii) Maastricht Treaty (iii) Nice Treaty (iv) Constitutional Treaty Select the correct answer with the help of the codes given below : Codes : (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (C) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 35. Give the chronological order of the following events in the evolution of the modern State system. (i) Vienna Congress (ii) Paris Peace Treaties (iii) Treaty of Westphalia (iv) The Treaty of Utrect Codes : (A) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (D) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) Directions (Q. 36 to 45) : Each of the following items consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the (A) and the (R) are individually true and if so, whether (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Select your answers to these items using the codes given below : (A) Both (A) and (R) true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false but (R) is true. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. Assertion (A) : To J.S. Mill, the scope of liberty includes that of conscience, thought and feeling, so long as it is voluntary, informal and without harmful intent. Reason (R) : A liberal social order can be justified on utilitarian grounds, without appeal to doctrines of natural rights. Assertion (A) : Gandhi s Satyagraha is the vindication of truth through self-inflicted suffering. Reason (R) : The purpose Satyagraha is to show moral superiority of the Satyagrahi. Assertion (A) : The President of India can return back a recommendation of the Cabinet for reconsideration. Reason (R) : He has been given this power because he is not expected to be a mere figure head. Assertion (A) : Fundamental Rights are considered fundamental in the governance of the polity and hence they have been made justiciable under Article 32. Reason (R) : Civil Rights, even when important, cannot be considered as Fundamental Rights because they are not justiciable under Article 32. Assertion (A) : The method of systems analysis adopted by Almond is more representative than that of David Easton. Reason (R) : Almond is the first major political scientist who has developed the systems analysis approach for the study of politics. Paper-II 10 D-0209 : (ii) (iv) : : 34. (i) (iii) (A) (C) 35. 37. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (iii) (iv) (B) (D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) : (A) (C) 36. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (B) (D) (i) (iv) (ii) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (iii) : (36 45) , (A) (R) (A) (R) , (R), (A) : (A) (A) (R) (R), (A) (B) (A) (R) , (R), (A) (C) (A) , (R) (D) (A) , (R) (A) : . . , , , , (R) : , , (A) : : (R) : 38. (A) : : (R) : 39. (A) : -32 (R) : -32 40. (A) : (R) : D-0209 11 Paper-II 41. Assertion (A) : Bureaucracy has contributed to the growth of democracy but it has also stood in the way of democratisation. Reason (R) : Democracy does not need bureaucracy. 42. Assertion (A) : Whitley type councils have been set up in India. Reason (R) : The councils have the powers to take up the grievances of individual employees on priority basis. Assertion (A) : Lokayuktas have been appointed in all the States. Reason (R) : The National Commission to review the working of the Constitution has recommended the establishment of Lokayuktas. Assertion (A) : Balance of power results in Status quo in world politics. Reason (R) : States are primary actors in international relations. 43. 44. 45. Assertion (A) : India seeks permanent membership of Security Council. Reason (R) : India wants to legitimise its nuclear weapon state status through India-US Civilian Nuclear Agreement. Read the passage given below and answer the questions on the basis of your understanding of the passage : In every country some regions are richer than others, and some [not necessarily the richest] are developing more rapidly than others. To make a plan which gives equal emphasis to every square mile, or spent an equal sum on every inhabitant, would be quite uneconomic. In the first place different areas have different growth potential ; some have minerals, or water, or good natural harbours, while others are poorly favoured. And secondly, even if all areas started with equal resources, it would pay to concentrate development in relatively few places, because of the economies of geographical concentration. Hence, as soon as one area got ahead for any reason, however accidental (e.g. the birth there of some entrepreneurial genius, which explains the growth of motor manufacture near Singur), it would grow much faster than the rest. It could offer many services and commodities more cheaply, because produced on a large scale ; it would possess an interlocking network of markets, banks, transport facilities, engineering repair services and the like; its schools, hospitals and research institutes would offer more specialized services, and so on. That some parts of the country will develop faster than the rest is a natural economic phenomenon ; and so is its corollary, that some areas will contract, relatively, or even absolutely. If the country is fully integrated, it is in the general interest that resources be invested where they are likely to prove most productive. Full integration means a right to participate equally in economic activities in any part of one s country. If the savings of citizens of country B are to be used to develop county C, on the ground that will be most productive there, the citizens of B must be allowed to enjoy the new opportunities which their savings will be creating in C : to seek work there, to trade without customs barriers and to enjoy any facilities (schools, hospitals etc ;) which are going to be financed out of taxes collected as a result of such development. Resistance to the proposition that resources be invested where they are most productive derives from the expectation that those who live where the resources are invested are going to benefit most. Such resistance cannot be eliminated altogether, since it is true that residents have an advantage, but it can be minimized by furthering the country s integration : by building transport facilities, and by using some of the wealth produced in the richer areas to finance improved public facilities in the poorer areas, thus buying their consent to concentration of development policies in the areas with the best prospects. Paper-II 12 D-0209 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. D-0209 (A) : (R) : (A) : (R) : (A) : (R) : (A) : (R) : / (A) : (R) : - : , , ( ) , , - - ; , , , , , :, ( , , ), , ; , , , , ; , , , ; , , -B , -C , -B , -C : , , ( , , ) , , : , ; : , , , , , , 13 Paper-II 46. The author is primarily concerned with (A) (B) Allocation of development funds. (C) Promoting regional balance. (D) 47. Differing potentials of the State. Wealth generation According to the author some states develop faster than other as they are (I) (II) Due to faulty economic policy. (III) Accidental growth due to various factors. (IV) Concentrated development. (A) I and II only (B) III only (C) 48. Rich in natural resources. II and III only (D) II, III, IV only Development funds should be allocated (A) (B) Judiciously to States rich in natural resources. (C) Unevenly based on the potentiality of the States. (D) 49. Haphazardly to States based on geographical location. Evenly to all States. According to the author the country is fully integrated when (A) (B) Equal participation in economic activities in all parts of the country. (C) More concession and opportunities for productive states. (D) 50. Resources are invested in the States where productivity is more. Advantage to enjoy the benefits of the investments by the residents. The material in the passage can best be used in an argument for (I) Investing in uneven development funds. (II) Protecting the rights of poorer States. (III) To understand the uneven development of States. (IV) To minimize the regional imbalance. (A) I and II only (C) I and III only Paper-II (B) (D) _____________ 14 II only II and IV only D-0209 46. : ? (A) - (B) (C) (D) 47. (I) (II) (III) (IV) (A) I II (B) III (C) II III (D) II, III IV 48. : (A) (B) (C) (D) 49. : (A) (B) (C) (D) 50. ? I. II. III. IV. (A) I II (B) II (C) I III (D) II IV D-0209 15 Paper-II Space for Rough Work Paper-II 16 D-0209

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Additional Info : Ugc Net December 2009 Question Paper - Political Science Paper II
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