Trending ▼   ResFinder  

UGC NET DEC 2013 : MANAGEMENT PAPER III

23 pages, 148 questions, 21 questions with responses, 21 total responses,    0    0
ugc_net
   		+Fave Message
ProfileTimelineUploadsQ & A
 Home > ugc_net >

Formatting page ...

PAPER-III MANAGEMENT Signature and Name of Invigilator 1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................... (To be filled by the Candidate) (Name) ____________________________ Roll No. 2. (Signature) __________________________ (In figures as per admission card) (Name) ____________________________ D 17 Roll No.________________________________ (In words) 1 3 Time : 2 1/2 hours] Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Instructions for the Candidates [Maximum Marks : 150 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75 1. 2. - 3. , - - , : (i) - - (ii) - / - - (iii) OMR - 4. (A), (B), (C) (D) : (C) 5. OMR OMR , 6. 7. (Rough Work) 8. OMR , , , , , 9. - OMR OMR 10. / 11. ( ) 12. 13. , 1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of questions. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means such as change of response by scratching or using white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the test question booklet and Original OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions, English version will be taken as final. D-17-13 1 P.T.O. MANAGEMENT Paper III Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory. 1. Match the items of List I with those of List II and give the correct code from the following : List I List II a. Sales i. John Maximisation Williamson Model b. Managerial ii. R.M. Cyert and Discretion J.G. March Model c. Integrative iii. William J. Model Baumol d. Behavioural iv. Oliver Model Williamson Codes : a b c d (A) ii iii iv i (B) iii iv i ii (C) i ii iii iv (D) iv i ii iii Match the items of the following two lists and give the correct code for the following : List I List II a. Scale of i. Indifference Preferences Curves b. Inadequate ii. Ordinal Explanation of Utility Giffen Goods c. Curves always iii. Demand slope Curves negatively d. Inseparation of iv. Marshallian Income and Utility Substitution Analysis effects Codes : a b c d (A) ii i iii iv (B) i iii iv ii (C) ii iv i iii (D) iii ii iv i Paper-III 3. Cost-plus pricing is not suitable for (A) Monopoly Pricing (B) Product Tailoring (C) Refusal Pricing (D) Monopsony Pricing 4. Indicate the correct code matching the items of List I with those in List II as follows : List I List II a. Resorting i. Cost reduction to New through output Technology expansion b. Excess ii. Constant cost Capacity of despite output the Plant expansion c. Employees iii. Internal Training Economies Centres d. Reserve iv. External Capacity of Economies the Plant Codes : a b c d (A) i iii ii iv (B) iii i iv ii (C) iv ii i iii (D) ii iv iii i 5. In a mixed economy, the central problems are solved through which of following ? (A) Price mechanism (B) Regulated market mechanism (C) Market mechanism and economic planning (D) Economic planning and control D-17-13 2. 2 III : (75) - (2) 3. - 1. I II : (A) I II (B) ( ) a. i. (C) (D) - b. ii. . . . . 4. I II : c. iii. . I II a. i. d. iv. b. ii. : a b c d (A) ii iii iv i c. iii. (B) iii iv i ii (C) i ii iii iv (D) iv i ii iii d. iv. 2. : : a b c d I II (A) i iii ii iv i. a. (B) iii i iv ii b. ii. (C) iv ii i iii (D) ii iv iii i c. iii. d. iv. 5. , ? : (A) - a b c d (B) - (A) ii i iii iv (C) - (B) i iii iv ii (C) ii iv i iii (D) (D) iii ii iv i D-17-13 3 Paper-III 6. Indicate the correct code matching the items in List I with those in List II as follows : List I List II a. Excess of i. Stability of aggregate National investment over Income aggregate savings, at full employment level b. Equality of ii. Recessionaggregate income ary gap and savings c. Comparatively iii. Multiplier greater decrease in effect income following a decrease in investment d. Aggregate iv. Inflationary expenditure being gap less than national income at full employment level Codes : a b c d (A) ii iv i iii (B) iv i iii ii (C) iii ii iv i (D) i iii ii iv 7. 9. According to Henry Mintberg, managers perform three roles. Indicate the one role which is not among them. (A) Decisional (B) Informational (C) Interpersonal (D) Supervisory Paper-III 4 The term workforce diversity refers to differences in race, age, gender, ethnicity, and _______ among people at work. (A) social status (B) personal wealth (C) able-bodiedness (D) political preference 12. Which of the following deals with what, why, when and how tasks to be performed ? (A) Job Analysis (B) Job Description (C) Job Specification (D) Job Enrichment The Ringlemann effect describes (A) the tendency of groups to make risky decisions (B) social loafing (C) social facilitation (D) the satisfaction of members social needs 11. The study of gestures and body postures for their impact on communication is known as : (A) Kinesics (B) Proximics (C) Semantics (D) Informal channels 8. 10. Match the following and indicate the correct code : List I List II a. A form of learning i. Stimulus through association that involves the manipulation of stimuli to influence behaviour b. The process of ii. Reinforcecontrolling ment behaviour by manipulating its consequences c. Something that iii. Operant incites action conditioning d. The administration iv. Classical of a consequence as conditiona result of ing behaviour Codes : a b c d (A) i ii iii iv (B) iv iii ii i (C) iii iv i ii (D) iv iii i ii D-17-13 6. I II : I II a. i. b. ii. c. iii. d. iv. : (A) (B) (C) (D) a ii iv iii i b iv i ii iii c i iii iv ii 10. 11. - ( - ), , , , ______ (A) (B) (C) (D) 12. : I II a. i. - b. - ii. c. iii. d. iv. : d iii ii i iv 7. - / (A) ( ) (B) ( ) (C) ( ) (D) ( ) 8. , , ? ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 9. , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) D-17-13 ? (A) (B) ( ) (C) (D) a (A) i (B) iv (C) iii (D) iv 5 b ii iii iv iii c iii ii i i d iv i ii ii Paper-III 13. Which of the following techniques permits the complainant to remain anonymous ? (A) The exit interview (B) The gripe-box system (C) The opinion survey (D) None of the above 18. In which of the following methods grievances are ascertained at the time of employees quitting the organisation ? (A) The exit interview method 15. 16. 19. Redressal of employees grievances covers (A) positive attitude towards employees grievances and readiness to help (B) expediting resolving grievances (C) That the authority rests solely with the management with no right to anyone to challenge is the basis of the (A) Pluralist Approach (B) Systems Approach (C) Unitary Approach (D) Social Action Approach machinery for employees equitable salary system for all (D) both (A) and (B) 20. Which of the following are most closely interconnected ? (A) Leadership and organisation structure Which of the following is not a welfare provision under the Factories Act, 1948 ? (A) Canteen (B) Cr ches (C) First Aid (D) Drinking water (B) Leadership and motivation (C) Leadership and planning (D) Leadership and performance appraisal A person who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory under the Factories Act, 1948 is called (A) Occupier (B) Manager (C) Chairman (D) Managing Director Paper-III The open-door policy (D) Opinion surveys Which of the following Acts has a direct relevance for grievance handling practices ? (A) The Industrial Employment (Standing Order) Act, 1946 (B) The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 (C) The Factories Act, 1948 (D) All of the above 21. 17. The gripe-box system (C) 14. (B) _______ is defined as disputes between parties submitted and decided by a neutral third party. (A) Collective Bargaining (B) Affirmation Action (C) Arbitration (D) Negotiation 6 D-17-13 13. ? (A) (B) - ( - ) (C) (D) 14. ? (A) ( ) , 1946 (B) , 1947 (C) , 1948 (D) 16. 17. 19. (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) 20. ( ) , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) , ? (A) (B) - ( - ) (C) - (D) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 21. 15. 18. _______ (A) (B) (C) (D) , 1948 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) , 1948 , (A) ( ) (B) (C) (D) - D-17-13 7 Paper-III 22. The appropriate method to derive the growth rate according to DividendGrowth Model for equity valuation is (A) Growth rate of sales over a period of time (B) Plough-back ratio multiplied with return-on-equity (C) Plough-back ratio multiplied with net profit margin (D) Growth rate of fixed assets over a period of time 23. Match the items given in List I and List II and indicate the correct code : List I List II a. The technique i. Hillier used in examining Model the effect of change in one variable at a time b. The process of ii. Sensitivity developing the Analysis frequency distribution of Net Present Value c. The technique iii. Decision used in examining tree the chances of Net Present Value being greater than zero d. The technique iv. Simulation used when investment at a future date is to be decided based on the probable outcome of previous investment Codes : a b c d (A) i ii iv iii (B) ii iv i iii (C) iii iv i ii (D) iv i ii iii Paper-III 24. 25. 8 Match the correct option for each of the following approaches of Capital structure theories : a. The Net i. The market value Income of the firm is not Approach affected by changes in the capital structure b. The Net ii. Declining Operating weighted-average Income cost of capital Approach c. The iii. The firms prefer to Modigliani rely on internal & Miller accruals followed Proposiby debt finance tion I and external finance d. The iv. The value of the Pecking firm depends on Order the earnings and Theory risk of its assets rather than the way the assets have been financed Codes : a b c d (A) i iii ii iv (B) iv ii iii i (C) ii i iv iii (D) iii iv i ii Under the Walter Model, if the rate of return is greater than the cost of capital : (A) Price per share does not vary with the increase or decrease in dividend pay-out ratio. (B) Price per share increases as the dividend pay-out ratio increases. (C) Price per share increases as the dividend pay-out ratio decreases. (D) None of the above. D-17-13 22. , (A) (B) (C) (D) 23. I II : I II a. i. b. ii. c. iii. iv. d. ( ) : a (A) i (B) ii (C) iii (D) iv D-17-13 b ii iv iv i c iv i i ii 24. : a. i. b. ii. c. iii. -I d. iv. ( ) : a (A) i (B) iv (C) ii (D) iii 25. d iii iii ii iii 9 b iii ii i iv c ii iii iv i d iv i iii ii , , (A) ( - ) (B) (C) (D) Paper-III 26. 27. 28. 29. Which one of the following is not the major objectives of International Monetary Fund ? (A) Promoting co-operation among countries on international monetary issues. (B) Giving loans to countries for the purpose of economic development. (C) Promoting stability in the exchange rates. (D) Promoting free mobility of capital across countries. Match the correct combination for Assertion and Reason as argued by Shapiro and Titman : Assertion (A) : Management decisions to insure or hedge asset appear at best neutral mutation. Reason (R) : The price of systematic risk is identical for all the participants in the financial market. (A) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect. (B) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct. (C) Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are incorrect. (D) Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are correct. Conservative policy of working capital refers to i. Situation with high investment in current assets ii. Situation which stimulates sales iii. Situation with frequent production stoppages Codes : (A) iii is correct. (B) ii is correct. (C) i is correct. (D) i and ii are correct. 30. 31. DUPONT analysis refers to (A) Earning Per Share = (Net Profit / Number of Equity Shares) (B) Return on Assets = Net Profit Margin Total Assets Turnover Ratio (C) Total Assets Turnover Ratio = Sales Average Total Assets (D) None of the above Paper-III 10 Match the following and indicate the correct code : a. Mergers resulting i. Conglointo economies merate achieved primarily Merger by eliminating the duplicate facilities b. Mergers resulting ii. Horizontal into expansion of Merger company s business towards ultimate consumer or source of raw material c. Mergers in iii. Vertical unrelated line of Merger business Codes : a b c (A) i ii iii (B) ii iii i (C) iii i ii (D) iii ii i Consider the following statements : 1. Usually people from the same culture, social class and occupation have the same life style. 2. The consumer buying decision will involve the same stages regardless of whether the goods involved are low or high involvement. 3. Salesmen are born, not made. 4. The ultimate goal of a customer-oriented organisation is to maximise its customer s satisfaction. Indicate the correct answer through the codes. Codes : (A) All the statements are true. (B) Statements 1 and 2 are false, others are true. (C) Statement 3 is true, others are false. (D) All are false. D-17-13 26. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 27. , (A) (R) (A) : ( ) (R) : (A) (A) , (R) (B) (A) , (R) (C) (A) (R) (D) (A) (R) 28. 31. (A) = ( / ) (B) = / (C) = / (D) D-17-13 : a. : i. ii. b. c. iii. : a (A) i (B) ii (C) iii (D) iii ? i. ii. iii. : (A) iii (B) ii (C) i (D) i ii 29. 30. 11 b ii iii i ii c iii i ii i : 1. : , 2. , 3. , 4. : : (A) (B) 1 2 , (C) 3 , (D) Paper-III 34. 35. Before performing the business analysis for developing a new product, a company should be engaged in (A) Idea screening (B) Product development (C) Marketing strategy development (D) Product positioning Paper-III A manufacturer of industrial goods would use ______ sales force structure. (A) Territorial (B) Matrix (C) Product (D) Market Which of the following is/are a type(s) of direct marketing ? (A) Direct-Response Advertising (B) Personal Selling (C) Telemarketing (D) All of the above 40. A marketer developing a brand name that is easy to pronounce would conduct : (A) An association test (B) A memory test (C) A preference test (D) A recall test In the social-cultural arena, marketers may not understand (A) People s views (B) Organisation s views (C) Society s views (D) Government s views 39. Consider the following statements : i. Brand equity is a function of brand awareness and brand preference. ii. Product lines tend to shorten over time. iii. The Standards of Weights and Measures (Packaged Commodities) Rules, 1977 provide for the labelling rules relating to packaged commodities. iv. AIDA Model is relevant to advertising as well as physical distribution. Indicate the correct answer. Codes : (A) All the above statements are false. (B) Only iii is true. (C) i, iii and iv are true. (D) Only i is true. Relationship marketing aims at building mutually satisfying longterm relations with (A) Customers (B) Employees (C) Marketing partners (D) All of the above 38. Cognitive dissonance is associated with which stage of the consumer buying decision process ? (A) Need recognition (B) Information search (C) Evaluation of alternative (D) None of the above 33. 36. 37. 32. In inventory control, which one of the following factors does not affect the ROL (Re-Order-Level) ? (A) Average Daily Usage (B) Lead Time (C) Safety Stock (D) Holding Costs The number of allocated cells in the optimal solution of a transportation problem having m rows and n columns is : (A) m + n 1 (B) m + n 1 or less (C) m + n + 1 (D) None of the above In a railway yard, goods trains arrive at a rate of 30 trains per day. Assume that the inter-arrival time follows an exponential distribution and the service distribution is also an exponential with an average of 36 minutes. The probability that the size of the queue exceeds 10 is (A) 0.944 (B) 0.750 (C) 0.250 (D) 0.056 D-17-13 41. 42. 12 32. 33. 34. 35. , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 36. 37. : i. , ii. iii. ( ) 1977, iv. AIDA ( . . . .) - : (A) (B) iii (C) i, iii iv (D) i 38. 39. 40. (A) (B) (C) (D) : 41. (A) m + n 1 (B) m + n 1 (C) m + n + 1 (D) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) ( ) D-17-13 , ________ (A) (B) (C) (D) - (A) (B) (C) (D) _______ (A) (B) (C) (D) ? (A) (B) (C) - ( ) (D) . . . ( - ) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) m n 42. ( ) 30 : 36 10 ? (A) 0.944 (C) 0.250 13 (B) 0.750 (D) 0.056 Paper-III 43. 44. 45. 46. If in the optimal solution of a linear programming problem, a non-basic variable has zero value in the Cj Zj row, the problem (A) has no feasible solution (B) has multiple optimal solutions (C) is unbounded (D) (A) and (B), but not (C) The best model to compute the probability that a machine functioning well in one period will continue to function or will break down in the next period is (A) Delphi Model (B) Decision-tree Model (C) Multiplicative Model (D) Markov-Process Model Statement I : X and R charts use the sample standard deviation to measure process variability. Statement II : The lower control limit on an R chart is always R (1 3d3/d2). Codes : (A) Both Statements I and II are correct. (B) Statement I is correct, but II is wrong. (C) Statement I is wrong, but II is correct. (D) Both Statements I and II are wrong. 47. 48. Assuming X as the quantity of rainfall and Y as the agricultural yield , which of the following will express the regression equation of Y on X ? __ __ X (A) (X X) = r (Y Y ) Y __ (B) (X X) = r 49. __ Y (Y Y ) X __ (C) __ Y (Y Y) = r (X X ) X __ (D) (Y Y) = r Paper-III __ X (X X ) Y 14 Read the following statements and indicate the correct code from given below : Statement I : A subjective probability may be nothing more than an educated guess. Statement II : One reason that decision-makers at high levels often use subjective probabilities is that they are concerned with unique situations. Codes : (A) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is wrong. (B) Statement I is wrong, but Statement II is correct. (C) Both Statements I and II are correct. (D) Both Statements I and II are wrong. Which of the following is a step in performing analysis of variance ? i. Determine an estimate of population variance from within samples. ii. Determine an estimate of population variance from among the sample means. iii. Determine the difference between expected and observed frequency for each class. Codes : (A) i and ii only. (B) i and iii only. (C) ii and iii only. (D) i, ii and iii From the following, identify the decision-support systems : i. Status inquiry system ii. Data analysis system iii. Accounting system iv. Information system Codes : (A) i, ii and iii (B) ii, iii and iv (C) only iii (D) i, ii, iii and iv D-17-13 43. , - Cj Zj , (A) (B) ( ) (C) (D) (A) (B), (C) 47. 48. ? i. ii. iii. : (A) i ii (B) i iii (C) ii iii (D) i, ii iii 49. (A) (B) - (C) (D) - 45. -I : __ X R -II : R : -I : - - -II : : (A) I , II (B) I , II (C) I II (D) I II : i. ii. iii. iv. : (A) i, ii iii (B) ii, iii iv (C) iii (D) i, ii, iii iv 44. __ : R (1 3d3/d2) : (A) I II (B) I , II (C) I , II (D) I II 46. X Y , X Y ? __ (A) (X X) = r __ (B) (X X) = r __ X (Y Y ) Y __ Y (Y Y ) X __ (C) __ Y (Y Y) = r (X X ) X __ (D) (Y Y) = r D-17-13 __ X (X X ) Y 15 Paper-III 50. Which of the following are the components of data warehouses ? i. Metadata ii. Integration Programs iii. Summarised data iv. Archives 53. 54. 51. Arrange the following involved in DBMS in sequence : i. Creating ii. Defining iii. Data structuring iv. Updating v. Interrogating 56. A marketing effectiveness review is part of _______ control. (A) Annual Plan (B) Profitability (C) Proficiency (D) Strategic 57. For years Converse had a major share in the athletic shoe market. Then, in the 1980 s, Nike and Reebok re-invented the athletic shoe industry, and Converse changed nothing. Now Converse is a minor brand in a growth industry. According to the BCG matrix, Converse is an example of (A) Cash Cow (B) Dog (C) Question mark (D) Star Paper-III The word Tactic is the most likely to be associated with (A) Corporate strategy (B) Business strategy (C) Operational strategy (D) Behavioural strategy When a cigarette manufacturing company drastically cuts price of a popular brand of its cigarettes, to increase its share in the competitive market, it is implementing a ______ strategy. (A) Integrative growth (B) Market development (C) Market penetration (D) Product development stages proper Codes : (A) i, iii, ii, iv and v (B) ii, i, iii, v and iv (C) iii, ii, v, iv and i (D) ii, iii, i, iv and v 52. Low cost, product differentiation, and focused market are the examples of (A) Corporate strategy (B) Business strategy (C) Functional strategy (D) Behavioural strategy 55. Codes : (A) i, ii and iii only (B) i, iii and iv only (C) ii, iii and iv only (D) i, ii, iii and iv The managerial process of developing and maintaining a viable fit between an organisation s objectives, skills, and resources, and its market opportunities is called (A) Establishing strategic business units (B) Market-oriented strategic planning (C) Market research (D) Portfolio analysis 16 D-17-13 50. 51. 52. ? i. ii. iii. iv. : (A) i, ii iii (B) i, iii iv (C) ii, iii iv (D) i, ii, iii iv 53. 54. D-17-13 ________ (A) (B) (C) (D) 57. 17 56. , 1980 , : . . . , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) ( ) , (A) (B) (C) (D) 55. . . . . : i. ii. iii. iv. v. : (A) i, iii, ii, iv v (B) ii, i, iii, v iv (C) iii, ii, v, iv i (D) ii, iii, i, iv v , (A) (B) - (C) (D) , , _______ (A) (B) (C) (D) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Paper-III 58. An entrepreneur who is neither willing to introduce new changes nor to adopt new methods is known as : (A) Adoptive Entrepreneur (B) Fabian Entrepreneur (C) 61. Innovative Entrepreneur (D) Drone Entrepreneur 59. UNIDO preparatory meeting on the Role of Women in Industrialisation in Developing Countries held in February 1978. Identified constraints, which hinder women from participating in industrial activities. The meeting was held at 62. (A) Vienna (B) New Delhi (C) Geneva (D) Mexico City 60. Which of the following statements is false ? (A) Venture capital is outside equity that comes from professionally managed pools of investor money. (B) Term Loan from bank is needed to pay dividends to shareholders on time. (C) Permanent working capital is the amount a firm needs to produce goods and services at the lowest point of demand. 63. (D) Temporary working capital is the amount which a firm may need to meet seasonal demand. Paper-III 18 Small Industries Development Organisation (SIDO) has been set up to (A) promote, aid and foster the growth of small-scale industries in the country. (B) formulate, coordinate and monitor the policies and programmes for promotion and development of small scale industries. (C) provide consultancy and training to small entrepreneurs both existing and prospective. (D) provide integrated administrative framework at the district level for promotion of small-scale industries in rural areas. Match the items in the two lists : List I List II (Part of Social (Features) Responsibility) a. Responsibility i. Stock towards owners b. Responsibility ii. Quality product towards employees c. Responsibility iii. Safety of their towards depositors investment d. Responsibility iv. Job security towards customers v. Interest Codes : a b c d (A) i iii ii v (B) iii iv v ii (C) i iii v ii (D) iii iv ii i First industrial estate in India was established by SSIB in 1955 at (A) Okhla in Delhi (B) Ghaziabad in Uttar Pradesh (C) Rajkot in Gujarat (D) Sannat Nagar in Jammu & Kashmir D-17-13 58. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 59. 1978 , , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 60. 61. 62. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) D-17-13 ( . . . .) (A) , (B) , (C) - (D) - : I ( ) a. b. c. d. II ( ) iii. iv. v. i. ii. : a (A) i (B) iii (C) i (D) iii 63. 19 b iii iv iii iv c ii v v ii d v ii ii i . . . . 1955 (A) , (B) , (C) , (D) , Paper-III 64. The Companies Bill, 2012 has been passed by Parliament in August, 2013. What is not true about this Bill ? 1. It does not provide for corporate social responsibility. 2. It provides for measures to curb corporate frauds. 3. It does not include the concept of corporate fraud. 4. It emphasises on self reputation and stringent penalties on professionals. Codes : (A) All of the above are true. (B) While items 1 and 2 are true, the rest are not. (C) While items 2 and 4 are true, the rest are not. (D) All of the above are false. 67. According to which committee should an organization submit regular social reports ? (A) Sachchar Committee (B) Kumarmangalam Birla Report (C) Both of above (D) None of above 68. The method of collecting money for Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) by raising prices or following many other unethical ways is often described as : (A) Reverse effect (B) Reverse Robinhood effect (C) Boomerang (D) Roosevelt effect 65. A high ranking organizational official (e.g. general counsellor or vice president) who is expected to provide strategies for ensuring ethical conduct throughout the organization is known as (A) Ethics Manager (B) Ethics Officer (C) Ethics Controller (D) Ethics Counsellor 69. When the values and priorities of the parent organization guides the strategic decision making of all its international operations, it is known as (A) Polycentric Orientation (B) Regiocentric Orientation (C) Ethnocentric Orientation (D) Geocentric Orientation 66. Indicate the correct code for the following statements about Assertion (A) and Reason (R) : Assertion (A) : All ethical theories are not equally applicable every time in all types of ethical dilemma resolution. Reason (R) : The ethical resolution should be based as far as possible on a cognitive ethical principle with justification. Codes : (A) (A) is correct, (R) is incorrect. (B) (R) is correct, (A) is incorrect. (C) Both the statements (A) and (R) are correct. (D) Both the statements (A) and (R) are incorrect. 70. Indicate the correct code for the following two statements of Assertion and Reason : Assertion (A) : GDP increases a currency s value. Reason (R) : Since there is likely to be greater demand for country s currency. Codes : (A) (A) and (R) both are correct, but (R) is not the appropriate explanation of (A). (B) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A). (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct. (D) Both (A) and (R) are not correct. Paper-III 20 D-17-13 64. , 2012 2013 ? 1. 2. 3. 4. - : (A) (B) 1 2 , (C) 2 4 , (D) 65. D-17-13 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 70. 21 ( . . .) , , : ? (A) (B) (C) ( ) (D) 69. (A) (R) : (A) : (R) : : (A) (A) , (R) (B) (R) , (A) (C) (A) (R) (D) (A) (R) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 68. ( - / ) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 66. 67. : (A) : . . . (R) : - : (A) (A) (R) , (R), (A) (B) (A) (R) (R), (A) (C) (A) , (R) (D) (A) (R) Paper-III 71. The salient features of India s Foreign Trade Policy are : i. Reducing the interest burden and extension of the interest subvention scheme. ii. Rationalizing defence-related imports. iii. Focus on labour-intensive sectors. iv. Extension of zero-duty EPCG scheme. Codes : (A) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only (D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only 72. Arrange the following steps of Dispute Settlement Mechanism under the WTO in the systematic order : i. Panel Proceedings ii. Appellate Body iii. Consultations iv. Compliance Panel v. Arbitration Panel Codes : (A) iii i ii iv v (B) v iv iii ii i (C) iv ii iii v i (D) i ii iii iv v 73. 74. 75. Which of the following schemes is not a part of India s Foreign Trade Policy 2009-14 ? (A) DFIA (Duty-Free Import Authorization) (B) TFITES (Tax-Free IT Export Scheme) (C) VKGUY (Vishesh Krishi and Gram Udyog Yojana) (D) FMS (Focus-Market Scheme) Paper-III 22 Indicate correct code for the following statements of Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R) : Assertion (A) : The Global Managers must develop systems and policies that address floor price, ceiling price and optimum price. Reasoning (R) : The Global Managers must be in line with global opportunities and constraints. Codes : (A) (A) is correct, but (R) is not the right explanation of (A). (B) (A) and (R) both are correct, but (R) is not the right explanation of (A). (C) (A) and (R) both are correct, and (R) is the right explanation of (A). (D) (A) and (R) both are incorrect. Match the following in the context of International Market Entry and indicate the correct code : List I List II a. Assembly i. Exports b. Acquisition ii. Indirect Exports c. Export iii. Contractual House Entry d. Commission iv. Direct Agent Investment Codes : a b c d (A) iii iv i ii (B) iv iii ii i (C) i ii iii iv (D) iv ii iii i D-17-13 71. i. ii. - iii. - iv. - . . . . : (A) i, ii, iii, iv (B) i, ii iii (C) i, iii iv (D) ii, iii iv 72. : i. ii. iii. iv. v. : (A) (B) (C) (D) 73. iii v iv i i iv ii ii ii iii iii iii iv ii v iv 74. 75. v i i v , 2009-14 ? (A) . . . . ( - ) (B) . . . . . . ( - . . ) (C) . . . . . ( ) (D) . . . ( - ) D-17-13 (A) (R) : (A) : , (R) : : (A) (A) , (R), (A) (B) (A) (R) , (R), (A) (C) (A) (R) (R), (A) (D) (A) (R) : I II a. i. b. ii. c. iii. d. iv. : a b c d (A) iii iv i ii (B) iv iii ii i (C) i ii iii iv ii iii i (D) iv 23 Paper-III Space For Rough Work Paper-III 24 D-17-13

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Top Contributors
to this ResPaper
(answers/comments)


Govind
(20)

Kitty Rathi
(1)

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

Formatting page ...

 

  Print intermediate debugging step

Show debugging info


 


Tags : cbse ugc net question papers, UGC NET Solved Sample Question Paper, UGC NET Exam Papers, ugc net past question papers, ugc net syllabus, ugc net specimen, ugc net study material, UGC NET Study Materials FREE, UGC NET Exam Pattern, Free Ugc Net Online Practice Tests, ugc net previous question papers, central board of secondary education,  


© 2010 - 2025 ResPaper. Terms of ServiceContact Us Advertise with us

 

ugc_net chat