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UGC NET SEP 2013 : MANAGEMENT PAPER III

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PAPER-III MANAGEMENT Signature and Name of Invigilator 1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................... (To be filled by the Candidate) (Name) ____________________________ 2. (Signature) __________________________ (Name) ____________________________ 17 S 1 3 1 Time : 2 /2 hours] Number of Pages in this Booklet : 32 Instructions for the Candidates 1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of questions. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal / polythene bag on the booklet. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal / without polythene bag and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the original OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are however, allowed to carry duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. S-17-13 Roll No. (In figures as per admission card) Roll No.________________________________ (In words) [Maximum Marks : 150 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75 1. 2. - 3. , - - , : (i) - / - / (ii) - / - - (iii) OMR - 4. (A), (B), (C) (D) : (C) 5. OMR OMR , 6. 7. (Rough Work) 8. OMR , , , , , 9. OMR OMR 10. / 11. ( ) 12. 1 P.T.O. MANAGEMENT Paper III Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory. 1. 2. 3. 4. The elasticity of demand is greater than unity, when (A) Percentage change in demand is equal to the percentage change in price. (B) Percentage change in demand is more than the percentage change in price. (C) Percentage change in demand is less than the percentage change in price. (D) There is change in price. List I List II (a) The (i) Market in producers equilibrium will offer more of a product at a higher price. (b) The quantum (ii) Law of that producers supply want to sell is equal to the quantum that consumers want to buy. (c) The (iii) Co-efficient sensitivity of of price consumers to elasticity of price changes. demand. (d) GDP includes which of the following measures ? (A) The size of a population that must share a given output within one year. (B) The negative externalities of the production process of a nation within one year. (C) The total monetary value of all final goods and services produced within a nation within one year. (D) The total monetary value of goods and services including barter transactions within a nation in one year. Percentage change in quantity demanded to percentage change in price. (iv) Price elasticity of demand Codes : If the equation y = 5 + 0.6x was graphed, the (A) Slope would be 5 (B) Vertical intercept would be + 0.6 (C) Slope would be + 5 (D) Slope would be + 0.6 Paper-III Match the following : (a) (c) (A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (B) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (C) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (D) (ii) 2 (b) (d) (i) (iv) (iii) S-17-13 III : (75) - (2) 1. , : (A) (C) (D) 2. : (B) 4. I (a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (d) (iv) (GDP) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) II (iii) : 3. y = 5 + 0.6x , (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 5 (A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (B) + 0.6 (B) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (C) + 5 (C) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (D) + 0.6 (D) (ii) (i) S-17-13 3 (iv) (iii) Paper-III 5. Statement I : The slope of an indifference curve is the Marginal Rate of Substitution in the consumption (MRSc), which is increasing. Statement II : The slope of the budget line is ratio of the prices of two goods and is the Marginal Rate of Substitution in exchange (MRSe) (A) Statement I and II are correct. (B) Statement I is correct, but II is incorrect. (C) Statements I and II are incorrect. (D) Statement I is not correct, but II is correct. 6. 10. Which of the following best describes the theory X ? (A) People are committed to their responsibilities. (B) Motivation is a result of rational behaviour towards attaining goals. (C) The perceived relationship between a given level of efforts and an expected performance. (D) None of the above. 8. Hawthorne experiments were conduced at (A) Hawthorne Electric Company (B) Western Electric Company (C) General Electric Company (D) Eastern Electric Company Paper-III Match the following : OD Interventions Proposed by Grouping Term a. OD Cube 1. French and Bell b. Consul cube 2. Freneh and Bell c. Intervention 3. Blake and families Mouton d. Four 4. Schmuck and quadrants Miles Codes : a (A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1 Forming a fixed opinion or attitude towards a single person or object is termed as (A) Perceptual defense (B) Stereo typing (C) The Halo effect (D) The perceptual set 7. 9. 4 b 3 4 1 2 c 2 2 3 4 d 1 1 4 3 Match the following : a. Stability 1. Number of subordinates that report to one supervisor. b. Strategy 2. The whole is greater than the sum of its parts. c. Synergy 3. Plans for the allocation of firm s scarce resources to reach identified goals in time. d. Span of 4. Employees control should not be moved frequently from one job to another Codes : a b c d (A) 4 3 2 1 (B) 3 4 1 2 (C) 2 3 4 1 (D) 1 2 3 4 S-17-13 5. 6. I : (MRSc), , II : (MRSe) (A) I II (B) I , II (C) (D) I , II 9. (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) - (B) (C) (D) - 7. 10. X ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 8. (A) (B) ( ) (C) (D) S-17-13 : 1. a. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4. : b 3 4 1 2 c 2 2 3 4 d 1 1 4 3 : a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4. : (A) (B) (C) (D) 5 a 4 3 2 1 a 4 3 2 1 b 3 4 3 2 c 2 1 4 3 d 1 2 1 4 Paper-III 11. 12. 13. 14. Role of Human Resource Manager is (A) Advisory (B) Mediator Role (C) Representative Role (D) All of the above 15. (A) Acquired labour more than the required. (B) Purchased raw material more than the immediate required. (C) Which statement is true ? (A) Job analysis is a group of positions, that are similar as to kind and level of work. (B) A promotion is the advancement of an employee to a better job better in terms of greater responsibilities, more prestige or status, greater skill and especially, increase rate of pay or salary. (C) A promotion is the vertical transfer of an employee. (D) All of the above Breakdown of machinery. (D) All of the above. 16. Match the following : List I List II (Items of HRM) (Features) a. Human Resource Planning 1. Forecast man power needs based strategies of the trend. b. Selection Job is defined as (A) Set of activities performed in the organization. (B) Set of activities similar as to kind of work. (C) Set of position similar as to nature and kind of work. (D) None of these. 2. Use the criteria and measures developed to match individual skills in the job requirements. c. Advancement 3. Promotion. d. Industrial relations The benefit of paraphrasing in Employee Appraisal is that it (A) Suggests interest and active listening. (B) Clarify and convey to the rater that you are listening actively. (C) Shows that you are trying to understand the emotional aspect of the work place. (D) All of the above. Paper-III An employee can be laid off when the organization has 4. Amicable and harmonious working in the organization. Codes : a c d (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 1 4 3 2 (C) 3 1 4 2 (D) 6 b 4 1 3 2 S-17-13 11. (A) (B) (C) (D) 12. ? (A) (B) , , , (C) (D) 13. (A) (B) (C) (D) S-17-13 (A) (B) (C) (D) 16. (A) (B) (C) (D) 14. 15. : I II ( ( ) ) a 1 - b 2 c 3 d 4 : a c d (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 1 4 3 2 (C) 3 1 4 2 (D) 7 b 4 1 3 2 Paper-III 17. Which one of the following is a disadvantage of having expatriate employees to staff international subsidiaries ? (A) Brings cultural similarities with parent company. (B) Gives employees a multinational orientation. (C) Attempts to establish a foreign culture to the company. (D) Provides broader global perspective. 18. Whistle Blowing is the situation wherein an employee (A) Causes indiscipline in the organization. (B) Discloses other employees illegal immoral or illegitimate activities. (C) Discloses the employer s illegal immoral or illegitimate activities. (D) All of the above. 19. Distributive bargaining may be explained as (A) Bargaining wherein both parties are willing to negotiate over wages, hours and conditions of employment. (B) Bargaining that focuses on convincing the other party that the cost of disagreeing with the proposed terms would be very high. (C) Bargaining that focuses on convincing the other party that the benefits of agreeing with the proposed terms would be very high. (D) None of the above. Paper-III 20. 21. 8 Match the following : a. Balancing 1. The perceived Equity fairness of the pay structure within a firm. b. Internal 2. The perceived Equity fairness in pay relative to what other employers are paying for the same type of labour. c. Individual 3. The perceived Equity fairness in establishment of internal and external pay equity. d. External 4. The perceived Equity fairness of individual pay decisions. Codes : a b c d (A) 3 4 2 1 (B) 1 2 3 4 (C) 2 4 1 3 (D) 4 1 3 2 Which of the below features is not wealth maximization objective of Financial Management ? (A) Considers both quantity and quality dimensions of benefits. (B) Based on the concept of cash flows generated by the decision rather than accounting profit. (C) Decision should be oriented to the maximization of profits. (D) Focus is on the value to the owners or suppliers of equity capital. S-17-13 17. ? (A) (C) (D) 18. (B) 20. (A) (B) , - (C) , - : a. 1. 2. b. c. 3. d. 4. : 19. (A) (B) (C) (D) S-17-13 21. 9 3 4 2 1 1 2 3 4 2 4 1 3 (D) , d (B) c (A) b (C) (D) a 4 1 3 2 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Paper-III 22. 23. 24. Financial Break even Level of EBIT is one at which (A) EPS is one (B) EPS is infinite (C) EPS is zero (D) EPS is negative 27. Which of the following is not considered by Miller-Orr Model ? (A) Variability in cash requirement (B) Cost of transaction (C) Holding cash (D) Total annual requirement of cash Given the sales volume, which of the following would lead to an increase in contribution margin ? (A) Variable cost remains same. (B) Variable cost per unit decreases. (C) Variable cost per unit increases. (D) Fixed cost increase. Paper-III of of of 10 A high debtors turnover ratio indicates (A) low amount tied upon debtors (B) increase in sales turnover (C) efficient conversion of debtors into cash (D) (A) & (C) 29. According to Lintner Model, factors affecting dividend of current year are (A) DPS of previous year, EPS, target pay-out ratio and adjustment rate. (B) EBIT, interest rate and retention ratio. (C) P/E ratio, retention ratio and pay-out ratio. (D) E/P ratio, pay-out ratio and rate of interest on it. 26. of 28. If the minimum stock level and average stock level of material A are 4000 and 9000 units respectively, what is the Reorder quantity ? (A) 8000 units (B) 10,000 units (C) 11,000 units (D) 9,000 units 25. Vertical merger represents merger firms (A) engaged in the same line business. (B) at different stages production in an industry. (C) engaged in unrelated line activities. (D) All of the above. Match the following : List I List II (Statement) (Term) I. Independent 1. Fiat floating exchange money rate. II. Exchange rate 2. Clean depending entirely float on market forces. III. Floating exchange 3. Managed rate regime where float the monetary authorities interfere in the foreign exchange market for stabilizing exchange rate. IV. Non convertible 4. Free paper currency. float Codes : I II III IV (A) 2 4 3 1 (B) 4 3 1 2 (C) 1 3 4 2 (D) 2 1 3 4 S-17-13 22. 23. 25. : (A) DPS, EPS, (B) . . . . (EBIT), (C) / (P/E) , - (D) / (E/P) , - 26. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) S-17-13 : (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (C) 29. A : 4000 9000 , : ? (A) 8000 (B) 10,000 (C) 11,000 (D) 9,000 : (A) (B) (C) (D) 28. - ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 24. 27. EBIT (A) EPS (B) EPS (C) EPS (D) EPS : I II ( ) ( ) I. 1. II. 2. III. 3. IV. 4. : (A) (B) (C) (D) 11 I 2 4 1 2 II 4 3 3 1 III 3 1 4 3 IV 1 2 2 4 Paper-III 30. Projected cash flows change with changes in projected demand, price, cost of production, cost of capital, etc. All these changes are accommodated in a random manner by 33. Delphi method of estimating future demand for a product or service is associated with (A) Past sales analysis (B) Expert opinion method (A) Sensitivity Analysis (C) Market test method (B) Simulation Technique (D) Composite opinion (C) Decision - Tree 34. (D) None of the above 31. When a firm has diversified in unrelated products, it is called of sales A method for deriving the utility values that consumers attach to varying levels of a product attribute is called (A) product analysis (B) Related diversification (C) conjoint analysis Product mix (D) market price analysis 35. (D) Product line simplification 32. conjunctive analysis (C) (A) Scramble diversification (B) force Statement I : Opinion leaders who provide product related information to the buyer and assist him or her in buying is called market mover. Which of the following condition is true about determinants and strengths of positioning strategy ? Statement II : Opinion leaders who understand the buyer s personal needs and use situations and aid the buyer is called purchase pal. (A) There should be competition warranting positioning. (B) (C) The market segment to be served should be sizeable and profitable. Choose the correct option about the statements from the options given below : The market segment should be able to effectively receive communication messages transmitted by the company. (A) Statement I alone is correct. (B) Statement II alone is correct. (C) (D) All of these. Paper-III Two statements are given below : Both statements are wrong. (D) Both statements are correct. 12 S-17-13 30. , , : 33. : (A) (B) (A) (C) (B) (D) (C) - (D) 31. 34. : (A) (B) : (A) (C) (B) (D) (C) (D) 32. 35. : I : , , ? (A) II : , , (B) , : (A) I (C) (B) II (C) (D) (D) S-17-13 13 Paper-III 36. Two statements are given below relating to the consumer brand selection model. 38. Match the following : List I (Statements) Statement I : As per disjunctive decision rule consumers set a minimum acceptable cut off level for each attribute and choose the first alternative that meets the minimum standard for all selected attributes. List II (Terms) a. Attacking the 1. Flank attack weak spots of the competitor Statement II : As per lexicographic decision rule consumers choose the best brand on the basis of its perceived most important attribute. b. Avoiding the 2. Frontal main attack competitor and Choose the correct option about the statements from the options given below : attacking easier ones. (A) Statement I alone is correct. (B) (C) c. Attacking Statement II alone is correct. Both statements are correct. leader on several (D) Both statements are wrong. 37. Problem recognition 4. Order route specification 6. Proposal solicitation 8. Supplier selection its attack Product specification 7. on Performance review 5. leader the 4. By Pass Supplier search 3. d. Attacking General need description 2. attack areas. Arrange the following stages in the industrial buying process in the sequential order : 1. the 3. Encirclement strong area. Codes : a b c d (A) 1 4 3 2 (B) 1 3 2 4 (C) 2 3 1 4 (D) 3 1 2 4 (A) 3-1-2-6-7-8-5-4 (B) 3-2-1-7-6-5-8-4 (C) 3-1-6-2-7-5-8-4 (D) 3-1-6-2-7-8-5-4 Paper-III 14 S-17-13 36. : 38. I : - : I ( ) b 2 c 3 d : 4 II (C) 1 (D) 37. I (B) ( ) a II : (A) II : 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. : a b c d (A) 1 4 3 2 (B) 1 3 2 4 (C) 2 3 1 4 (D) 3 1 2 4 (A) 3-1-2-6-7-8-5-4 (B) 3-2-1-7-6-5-8-4 (C) 3-1-6-2-7-5-8-4 (D) 3-1-6-2-7-8-5-4 S-17-13 15 Paper-III 39. Match the following : 40. List I 41. Statement I : One of the key factors impacting on Production Managers is that the country s borders no longer provide protection from foreign imports due to globalization. Statement II : To succeed in global competition, Production Management of Companies must make a commitment to innovate products and services with high quality at low prices. (A) Both the statements are incorrect. (B) Statement I is correct, but II is incorrect. (C) Statement I is incorrect, but II is correct. (D) Both statements are correct. 42. Positioning the production system means (A) Selecting the type of product design. (B) Selecting the type of production processing system. (C) Selecting the type of finished good inventory policy for each product group. (D) All of the above. List II (Statements) Which one of the three basic approaches used customarily explaining the Marketing System ? (A) Commodity, institutions and functional approach. (B) Commodity, functional risks, management approach. (C) Product, service mix, functional and institutional approach. (D) None of the above. (Terms) a. A market 1. Pure situation in monopoly which many competitors offering undifferentiated products or services. b. A market 2. Oligopoly situation in which many competitors offering differentiated products or services. c. A market 3. Monosituation in polistic which a small competition number of large firms offering differentiated and standardized products or services. d. A market 4. Pure situation in competition which only one firm provides a certain products or services. Codes : a b c d (A) 4 3 1 2 (B) 4 2 3 1 (C) 4 3 2 1 (D) 3 4 2 1 Paper-III 16 S-17-13 39. : 40. I ( ) a b c d II ( ) ? / 2 (B) , , , - , (D) 1 , (C) / (A) 41. 3 / II : (A) b c d (A) 4 3 1 2 (B) 4 2 3 4 3 2 1 (D) 3 4 2 1 : 1 (C) I , II (D) 42. I , II (C) : (B) 4 / a I : S-17-13 (A) (B) (C) (D) 17 Paper-III 43. 44. 45. Which one is not a part of control charts for variables ? (A) X-chart (B) R-chart (C) -chart (D) C-chart Match the following : List I List II a. Decision(i) When the making under outcomes are conditions of known but the certainty. probabilities of outcomes are not known. b. Decision(ii) When elements making under of decision conditions of problem are risk. clear and also the outcomes of different alternatives are known. c. Decision(iii) When making under outcomes conditions of probabilities uncertainty. are known. Codes : a b c (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (B) (ii) (iii) (i) (C) (iii) (ii) (i) (D) (i) (iii) (ii) 46. which has a strong contingent effect on the independentdependent variable relationship is referred to as (A) Extraneous variable (B) Intervening variable (C) Moderating variable (D) None of the above 47. Coefficient of determination (R2) indicates (A) percentage of variation in the dependent variable that can be explained by independent variable. (B) Percentage of variation in the dependent variable that cannot be explained by independent variable. (C) percentage variation in the independent variable that can be explained by dependent variable. Edwards Deming, one of the Quality Gurus, introduced a concept of cycle for continuous improvement of quality. The cycle consists of (i) Act (ii) Plan (iii) Do (iv) Check The correct order of this cycle of activities is (A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) (B) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i) (C) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) Paper-III Variable (D) Percentage variation in the independent variable that cannot be explained by the dependent variable. 48. If = 0.05 and = 0.10, the power of that hypothesis test is (A) 0.15 (C) 18 (B) (D) 0.95 S-17-13 0.85 0.90 43. ? (A) X- (C) 44. (B) - R- (D) C- (A) (i) b - (A) : (C) (D) 47. (B) : I II (a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) : a (R2) : (A) (B) (C) (D) c (ii) (iii) (B) (ii) (iii) (i) (C) (iii) (ii) (i) (D) 45. 46. (iii) (ii) (i) : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) : 48. (A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) (B) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i) (C) = 0.05 = 0.10 , : (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) S-17-13 (A) 0.15 (C) 19 (B) (D) 0.95 0.85 0.90 Paper-III 49. Match the following : List A 50. List B (a) Connects a very (i) Topolarge number of logy devices and spans across a dispersed geographical location covering many cities. From the statements given below, choose the correct answer. Statement I : One of the important aspects of IT enabled services is value addition. Statement II : ERP and CRM are examples for IT enabled services. Codes : (b) Encrypted (ii) Ethernet communication tunnels with access control and user authentication (A) Statements I and II are correct. (B) (C) (c) Physical or (iii) Wide geometric Area arrangement of Network the network influenced by the physical connections of links and nodes. Statement I is correct, but II is incorrect. Statements incorrect. and II are (D) Statement I is incorrect, but II is correct. 51. (d) Local area (iv) Virtual network Private technology that Network sends communication through radio frequency signals. Statement 1 : The IE Matrix is similar to the BCG Matrix in that both tools involve plotting organisation divisions in a schematic diagram. Statement 2 : The BCG Matrix requires more information about the divisions than the IE matrix. (A) Statements 1 and 2 both are correct. (B) (a) (b) (c) (i) (iv) (ii) (B) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (C) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (D) (iii) (iv) (ii) Statement 1 is correct, but statement 2 is incorrect. (d) (A) (iii) Statements 1 and 2 both are incorrect. (C) Codes : Paper-III I (i) (D) Statement 1 is incorrect, but statement 2 is correct. 20 S-17-13 49. : A (a) (b) (c) (d) 50. B I : - (i) , (ii) II : : (A) (a) (b) (c) (i) (iv) (ii) (B) (iv) (iii) (i) (C) (iii) (D) (iii) I II 1 : IE BCG 2 : BCG , IE (d) (A) (iii) I II (D) 51. I II (C) (iv) I II (B) (iii) - : S-17-13 : (A) 1 2 (ii) (B) 1 2 (iv) (ii) (i) (C) 1 2 (iv) (ii) (D) 1 2 (i) 21 Paper-III 52. Match the following : a. Individual within (Psychological) 53. 1. Interpretations that third parties make regarding contractual terms. b. Group 2. Broad beliefs within and obligations (Normative) associated with society s culture. c. Individual outside (implied) d. Group outside (Social) Statement 2 : Setting the objectives should be done after the SWOT analysis has been performed. (A) Both the statements are correct. (B) 54. 1 2 3 3 4 1 2 (C) 2 3 4 1 (D) 4 3 2 1 Paper-III of WTO International trade in goods, international transaction in services and protection of interest of MNCs. (C) 4 (B) The three disciplines agreements are are (B) d (A) statements (A) International trade in goods, international transactions in services and protection of intellectual property rights. Codes : c Statement 1 is incorrect, but statement 2 is correct. (D) Both the incorrect. 4. The shared psychological contract that emerges when members of a social group/organization/work unit hold. b Statement 1 is correct, but statement 2 is incorrect. (C) 3. Beliefs that individuals hold, regarding promises made, accepted and relied on between and another themselves. a Statement 1 : SWOT involves specifying the objectives of the business venture or project and identifying the internal and external factors that are favourable and unfavourable to achieve that objective. International trade in goods, international transaction in services and protection of interest of P.S. units. (D) International trade in goods, international transaction in services and protection of interest of Domestic Government. 22 S-17-13 : 52. a. 1. ( ) b. 53. 2. ( ) c. d. ( ) ( ) II : (A) I II (D) 54. I II (C) / / 4. (B) 3. I : , , (A) , (B) , . . . (C) , . . (D) , : a b c d (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 3 4 1 2 (C) 2 3 4 1 (D) 4 3 2 1 S-17-13 23 Paper-III 55. Substitute question marks with appropriate terms : New Products Existing Products Products Markets Existing 1 ? 2 ? Market New Market 3 ? 4 ? Options : (A) 1- Market development 2- Market penetration 3- Product development 4- Diversification (B) (C) 57. venture (B) 1-Market penetration 2-Product development 3-Market development 4-Diversification Provide funds at all stages of marketing of new product, process or service. (C) Provide funds at all stages of production of a new product, process or a service. (D) Provide funds at all stages of Research of a new product, process or a service. 1-Market development 2-Diversification 3-Market penetration 4-Product development 58. An industrial unit, according to RBI, is sick if (A) incurred cash loss in previous accounting year. the (B) likely to incur loss in the following year. (C) Arrange the Entrepreneurial motivation factors on the basis of proper sequences. (A) Need for achievement, Locus of control, vision, desire for independence, passion and drive. (B) Locus of control, vision, desire for independence, passion, drive and need for achievement. (C) Vision, desire for independence, passion, drive, locus of control and need for achievement. (D) Desire for independence, need for achievement, locus of control, vision, passion and drive. Paper-III of (A) Provide funds to the steps necessary to establish the commercial viability of a new product, process or service. (D) 1-Market penetration 2-Product development 3-Diversification 4-Market development 56. The main function capitalist is to current ratio is less than 1 : 1 with weak debt: equity ratio. (D) All of the above. 59. SIDBI has been entrusted with the responsibility of (A) Providing financial assistance to all sectors. (B) Developing medium and large scale industry. (C) Providing incentives medium scale industry. (D) Developing and small business. 24 to supporting S-17-13 55. 1 ? 2 ? 3 ? 4 ? : (A) 1- 2- 3- 4- (B) (C) 57. (A) 58. , . . . (A) (C) : 1:1 (D) 59. (B) : (A) , , , , (B) , , , , (C) , , , , (D) , , , , S-17-13 , (D) 1- 2- 3- 4- , (C) 1- 2- 3- 4- , (B) (D) 1- 2- 3- 4- 56. : : (A) (B) (C) (D) 25 Paper-III 60. 61. Match the following : List I List II (Innovation) (Refers to) (a) Paradigm (i) Changes in the innovation things which are organization offers. (b) Position (ii) Changes in the innovation ways in which they are created and delivered. (c) Product (iii) Changes in the innovation context in which the products/ services are introduced. (d) Process (iv) Changes in the innovation underlying mental models which frame what the organization does. Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (C) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) 62. (A) Why people make different decisions in similar ethical situations ? (B) How people make decisions based on the stage of cognitive moral development ? (C) Both of the above. (D) None of the above. 63. The Board of Directors can appoint (i) Additional Director (ii) Causal Director (iii) Alternative Director (iv) Nominee Director (A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (C) (iii), (iv) and (i) (D) (iv), (i) and (ii) 64. Assertion (A) : The poor compliance to environmental regulations is attributed to tax enforcement despite regulatory framework. Reasoning (R) : The Government is not capable of enforcing full compliance. A Business Organization deals with product/service and has relationship with stackholder which is being considered a part of management discipline is known as (A) Maximisation of Wealth (B) Business Ethics (C) Relationship Management (D) Optimisation of Profits Paper-III Lawrence Kohlberg, in his six stage model of cognitive development, explains : (A) (A) is correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A). (B) (A) and (R) both are correct, but (R) is not the right explanation of (A). (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct. (D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect. 26 S-17-13 60. : I : : (A) ? (B) ? (C) (D) 63. : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (A) (i), (ii) (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) (iv) (C) (iii), (iv) (i) (D) (iv), (i) (ii) 64. (A) : (R) : (A) (A) (A) (R) (B) (A) (R) , (R) (A) (C) (A) , (R) (D) (A) (R) II 62. (a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) / (iv) (d) ? : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (C) (iii) (D) (ii) 61. (iv) (ii) (i) (i) (iv) (iii) / : (A) (B) (C) (D) S-17-13 27 Paper-III 65. Match the following : List I List II (a) Work (i) includes taking ethics care of issues like air and water pollution, toxic waste disposal etc. (b) Values (ii) is an organisation s obligation to benefit society in ways that transcend the prime business objectives of maximizing profit. (c) Environ- (iii) is a mental characteristic responsattitude of a bility of a group towards business what constitutes the morality of work. (d) Corporate (iv) determine the Social overall Responsipersonality of bility an individual and the organization that he is working for. Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) Paper-III 66. The degree to which the value of future cash transactions can be affected by exchange rate fluctuations is referred to as (A) Economic exposure (B) Transaction exposure (C) Translation exposure (D) None of the above 67. Forward Premium or Discount can be computed by which of the following formulae ? (A) Spot rate Forward rate Spot rate 360 Future point in time (B) Spot rate Forward rate Forward rate 360 Future point in time (C) Forward rate Spot rate Forward rate 360 Future point in time (D) Forward rate Spot rate Spot rate 360 Future point in time 68. Which of the following is not a product technology transfer ? (A) Collaboration in R and D. (B) Transfer of product designs and technical specifications. (C) Feed back performance. on product (D) Provision of machinery and equipment to suppliers. 28 S-17-13 65. : I (a) (b) (c) (d) 66. 67. (i) , , (ii) - - 360 (B) 360 (C) (iii) 360 (D) (iv) , 360 68. (a) (b) (c) (d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) S-17-13 ? (A) II : (A) - , (A) (B) - (C) (D) 29 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Paper-III 69. Stops involved in settling disputes under WTO is given below. Arrange them in correct order . (i) The main function(s) of WTO is/are : (A) To handle trade disputes constructively. (B) To help promote peace among business community. (C) To provide rules that make life easier for all people involved in Foreign trade. (D) All of the above. 72. Which of the following transactions reflect economic exposure but not transaction exposure ? (A) A firm s imports/exports denominated in local currency. (B) A firm s imports/exports denominated in foreign currency. (C) Interest received from foreign investments. (D) Interest owed on foreign funds borrowed. 73. Which of the following is the rate at which a banker is willing to buy foreign currency ? (A) Ask rate (B) Offer rate (C) Bid rate (D) Spread rate 74. Euro dollars are (A) Currency (C) Bonds Panel set up and appointment of panelists. (ii) 71. Final Report to WTO members. (iii) Final Report to partners. (iv) Consultations, mediations, etc. (v) Adoption of Report by Dispute Settlement Body. Codes : (A) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii), (v) (B) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii), (v) (C) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii), (v) (D) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (iv) 70. From the statements given below, choose the correct answer : Statement I : To become a global corporation, a firm passes through different stages, viz, capturing markets abroad, establishing joint venture/subsidiaries abroad, developing into MNCs and moving towards global mode of operation. Statement II : Government support is not a pre-requisite for the successful globalization of the business. 75. (A) Statement I is correct and II is wrong. (B) Statements I and II are correct. (C) Statements I and II are wrong. (D) Statement I is wrong, but II is correct. Paper-III 30 (B) Deposits (D) Equity When an Indian exporter avails postshipment credit in foreign currency, what is taken as the bench mark for the interest rate ? (A) Bench mark lending rate (B) MIBOR (C) LIBOR (D) Indian Bank rate S-17-13 69. (i) 73. 74. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (C) , (v) , - ? (A) / (B) / (C) (D) (iv) 72. (iii) / (A) (B) (C) (D) (ii) 71. : (A) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii), (v) (B) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii), (v) (C) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii), (v) (D) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (iv) 70. : I : , / , II : - (A) I II (B) I II (C) I II (D) 75. I II S-17-13 31 (D) (B) , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Paper-III Space For Rough Work Paper-III 32 S-17-13

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