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UGC NET JUN 2014 : COMMERCE PAPER II

15 pages, 99 questions, 45 questions with responses, 71 total responses,

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PAPER-II COMMERCE Signature and Name of Invigilator 1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................... (To be filled by the Candidate) (Name) ____________________________ Roll No. 2. (Signature) __________________________ (In figures as per admission card) (Name) ____________________________ J 08 Roll No.________________________________ (In words) 1 4 Time : 1 1/4 hours] Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Instructions for the Candidates [Maximum Marks : 100 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50 1. 2. - 3. , - - , : (i) - - (ii) - / - - (iii) OMR - 4. (A), (B), (C) (D) : (C) 5. I OMR OMR , 6. 7. (Rough Work) 8. OMR , , , , , 9. - OMR - OMR 10. / 11. ( ) 12. 13. , 1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given inside the Paper I Booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means such as change of response by scratching or using white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the test question booklet and Original OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry original question booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions, English version will be taken as final. J-08-14 1 P.T.O. COMMERCE Paper II Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory. 1. There is acute shortage of electricity 4. Match the items/terms given in List-I in some of the states in India. This with those given in and List-II. reflects a problem in which type of List I List II business environment ? (a) BIS (i) Print Media (A) Economic (b) CERC (ii) Minimum (B) Demographic support price for (C) Politico-legal agricultural (D) Socio-cultural products. (c) CACP (iii) Quality of 2. Match the items given in List-I and manufactured List-II. products. List I List II (a) Economic (i) IT-enabled (d) PCI (iv) Comparative liberalisation services product testing. (b) Out sourcing (ii) SFIO Indicate the correct answer : (c) Corporate (iii) Macro Codes : frauds economic (a) (b) (c) (d) stability (A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (d) Second (iv) Increased (B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) generation competition (C) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) reforms (D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) Indicate the correct combination : Codes : 5. Which one among the following is (a) (b) (c) (d) not the salient feature of industrial (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) policy since 1991 ? (B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (A) Enormous expansion of the (C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) private sector. (D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (B) Redefining the role of public sector. 3. Which of the following is true ? (C) Limited exposure of Indian (A) A consumer court setup under industry to foreign competition. the Consumer Protection Act, (D) Pruning of the list of items does not have the power to reserved for SSI units. punish for its contempt. (B) Professional services are 6. A, a partner in a firm, is drawing outside the purview of the ` 500 regularly on the 16th of every CPA. month. He will have to pay interest at (C) A consumer court cannot force the given rate in a year on ` 6000 for a person indulging in the total period of misleading advertising to (A) 5 months (B) 6 months confess his quit. (C) 7 months (D) 12 months (D) None of the above. Paper-II 2 J-08-14 II : (50) - (2) 1. / ? (A) (B) (C) - (D) - 2. I II : I II (a) (i) . . (b) - (ii) SFIO (c) (iii) (d) (iv) : : (A) (B) (C) (D) 3. 4. (a) (c) (d) (A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (B) (i) (b) (ii) (iii) (iv) (C) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) 5. 1991 ? (A) (B) : (C) (D) SSI 6. , A 16 ` 500/ ` 6000/- ? (A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 12 (a) (b) (c) (d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) ? (A) (B) CPA (C) (D) J-08-14 I II : I II (i) (a) BIS (b) CERC (ii) (c) CACP (iii) (d) PCI (iv) : : 3 Paper-II 7. 8. 12. At a point of satiety for a commodity the marginal utility is (A) Negative (B) Positive (C) Zero (D) Highly positive 13. A rectangular hyperbola shaped demand curve on all its points has (A) Equal slopes and equal point elasticities. (B) Unequal slopes and unequal point elasticities. (C) Unequal slopes and equal point elasticities. (D) Equal slopes and unequal point elasticities. 14. Which one is not a feature of budgetary control ? (A) A tool for management control. (B) An instrument of delegation and authority. (C) An instrument for evaluating the overall performance. (D) A statement of budget and forecasts. Which one of the following does not explain the basic nature of Business economics ? (A) Behaviour of firms in theory and practice. (B) Distribution theories like rent, wages and interest along with the theory of profit. (C) Use of the tools of economic analysis in clarifying problems in organising and evaluating information and in comparing alternative courses of action. (D) Integration of economic theory with business practices for the purpose of facilitating decisionmaking. Assertion (A) : A perfectly competitive firm is not a pricemaker but is a price-taker. Reason (R) : The firm is interested in deciding the level of output only. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true. (B) Both (A) and (R) are false. (C) (A) is false, while (R) is true. (D) (A) is true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A). Marginal-costing technique is useful for (A) Make or Buy decisions (B) Profit planning (C) Shut-down decisions (D) All of the above 9. 11. Subsequent expenditures that extend the useful life, improve the quality of output, or reduce operating costs of an existing asset beyond their originally estimated levels are (A) Capital expenditures (B) Revenue expenditures (C) Deferred Revenue expenditures (D) None of the above 10. The Debt-Equity Ratio of a company is 2 : 1. In this relation, match the following : List I List II (a) Issue of equity 1. No change shares on the ratio (b) Cash received 2. Reduce the from debtors ratio (c) Redemption of 3. No change debentures on the ratio (d) Purchased 4. Reduce the goods on credit ratio Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 3 4 1 (C) 1 3 4 2 (D) 2 4 1 3 Paper-II 4 J-08-14 7. 8. 11. 9. 10. - 2 : 1 : I II (a) 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. : (d) 4. : (A) (B) (C) (D) J-08-14 (a) 1 2 1 2 (b) 2 3 3 4 (c) 3 4 4 1 (d) 4 1 2 3 5 : (A) (B) (C) (D) 14. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D) 13. - ? (A) (B) - (C) - (D) ? (A) (B) - , (C) (D) 12. , , , , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) : - (R) : : (A) (A) (R) (B) (A) (R) (C) (A) , (R) (D) (A) , (R), (A) Paper-II 15. 16. 17. 18. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II. List I List II (a) A market I. Skimming having high pricing price elasticity. (b) A market having II. Differential high price pricing inelasticity (c) A market having III. Penetrating several segments pricing differing prominently with regard to price elasticities of their demand. Codes : I II III (A) (b), (c), (a) (B) (a), (b), (c) (C) (b), (a), (c) (D) (a), (c), (b) (A) 0 to ( ) 1 (B) 0 to ( ) 0 (C) 0 to ( ) 0.05 (D) 0 to 1 19. Assertion (A) : When there is an evidence of a linear relationship between two variables, it may not always mean an independentdependent relationship between the two variables. Reason (R) : The causal relationship between the two variables may not imply a reasonable theoretical relationship between the two. Choose the right answer from the following statements : Which one of the following options deals with the process of making estimates, predictions and decisions ? (A) Descriptive statistics (B) Inferential statistics (C) Probability theory (D) None of the above Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation. (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation. (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. A hypothesis test is being performed for a process in which a Type-I error will be very costly, but a Type-II error will be relatively inexpensive and unimportant. Which of the following would be the best choice for alpha ( ) in this test ? (A) 0.10 (B) 0.05 (C) 0.01 (D) 0.50 Paper-II If the dependent variable increases as the independent variable increases in an estimating equation, the coefficient of correlation will be in the range 20. Assertion (A) : User interface is most critical task in DSS design Reason (R) : DSS is used by outside Customers frequently. (A) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong. (B) Both (A) and (R) are wrong. (C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct. (D) Both (A) and (R) are correct. 6 J-08-14 15. I II : I II (a) I. (b) II. (c) III. , : (A) (B) (C) (D) 16. 17. I (b), (a), (b), (a), 18. (C) 19. II III (c), (a) (b), (c) (a), (c) (c), (b) (A) : , (R) : (R) , (R) (B) (A) (R) , (R) (C) (A) , (R) (D) (A) 20. , (R) (A) : . . . ( ) (R) : . . . : : (A) (A) (A) 0.10 , (R) (C) (A) , (R) (B) 0.05 0.01 (A) (R) (D) (A) (R) (D) 0.50 J-08-14 (D) 0 1 (A) (A) -I , -II ( ) ? (C) 0 ( ) 0.05 : : , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (B) , , : (A) 0 ( ) 1 (B) 0 ( ) 0 7 Paper-II 21. 22. 25. 23. 24. Paper-II 8 A concept in retailing that helps explain the emergence of new retailers is called the ______ hypothesis. (A) Product life cycle (B) Service assortment (C) Retail life cycle (D) Wheel-of-retailing 29. Who has modified Maslow s Hierarchical levels of needs and developed ERG model ? (A) Frederick Herzberg (B) David C. McClelland (C) Douglas McGregor (D) Clayton Alderfer The people to adopt a new product first are called (A) Early adopters (B) First users (C) Initial adopters (D) Innovators 28. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A), and the other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Classical organisations believed in the use of authority to achieve coordination. Reason (R) : Classical thinkers consider organisation is an open system. Codes : (A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect. (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct. (C) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct. (D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect. Which one of the following stages of the marketing research process is most expensive ? (A) Data analysis (B) Data collection (C) Developing the research plan (D) Report writing 27. Consider the following leadership styles : 1. Telling 2. Autocratic 3. Selling 4. Motivating 5. Participating 6. Delegating 7. Charismatic Select the four styles of leadership explained by Hersey and Blauchard. (A) 1, 2, 6 and 7 (B) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (C) 1, 3, 5 and 6 (D) 4, 5, 6 and 7 Taylor s differential piece work plan provides that (A) All labourers should be assigned different amount of work. (B) All labourers should be put in different time-period. (C) Those who produce above standard should receive higher wages than those producing below standard. (D) Payment should be the same on a fixed standard. 26. Which of the following is not true about Matrix Organisation ? (A) It is relatively permanent. (B) Its project managers authority is distributed reasonably. (C) There is slow information processing. (D) Its project heads have to share resources with functional heads. Manufacturers of cars and motor cycles typically seek_______ distribution. (A) selective (B) intensive (C) exclusive (D) restrictive J-08-14 21. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 22. : (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (A) 1, 2, 6 7 (B) 2, 3, 4 5 (C) 1, 3, 5 6 (D) 4, 5, 6 7 23. 25. 26. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 27. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) - 28. , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) ( ) 29. , (R) (A) : (R) : : (A) (A) , (R) (B) (A) (R) (C) (A) , (R) (D) (A) (R) (A) (B) (C) , , (D) / ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) 24. . . . ? (A) (B) . (C) (D) J-08-14 9 Paper-II 30. Which method of setting advertising budget is most scientific and logical ? 33. (A) All-you-can afford method (B) Competitive parity method (C) Objective-and-task method Reason (R) : The contradictory results in the ranking are due to differing dimensions relating to the scale of investments, cash flow patterns and project lives. (D) Percentage-of-sales method 31. Assertion (A) : Weighted average cost of capital should be used as a hurdle rate for accepting or rejecting a capital budgeting proposal. Indicate the correct answer : Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true. (B) Both (A) and (R) are false. (D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains the reason sufficiently. Codes : 34. (A) Both (A) and (R) are false. Both (A) and (R) are true. (C) (A) is true, but (R) is a necessary condition, but not a sufficient condition. (C) Reason (R) : It is because by financing in the proportions specified and accepting the project, yielding more than the weighted average required return, the firm is able to increase the market price of its stock. (B) Assertion (A) : When two or more investment proposals are mutually exclusive, ranking the proposals on the basis of IRR, NPV and PI methods may give contradictory results. (A) is true, while (R) is false. Which one of the following assumptions is not covered in the Walter s Model of the dividend policy ? (A) All financing is done through retained earnings. (D) (A) is false, while (R) is true. 32. (B) A firm wants to know the Degree of Operating Leverage (DOL) with the following information : Firm s business risk does not change due to additional investments. (C) The firm has an infinite life. Current level of sales (D) The key variables like EPS and DPS keep on changing. : 6000 units Break-even point sales : 4000 units 35. What would be the DOL ? (A) 1.50 (B) (A) Gross working capital 0.67 (C) 3.00 (B) Quick working capital (C) (D) None of the above Paper-II Which one of the following emphasizes the qualitative aspects of working capital management ? Net working capital (D) None of the above 10 J-08-14 30. (A) 34. 35. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) - - (D) ? (A) (B) , (C) (D) EPS DPS (C) (A) : , IRR, NPV PI , (R) : , , : (A) (A) (R) (B) (A) , (R) (C) (A) (R) (D) (A) (R) (R) - - (B) 31. 33. ? - - (A) : , (R) : , : (A) (A) (R) (B) (A) (R) (C) (A) (R) (D) (A) 32. (R) ( ) DOL : 6000 4000 DOL ? (A) 1.50 (B) 0.67 (C) 3.00 (D) J-08-14 11 Paper-II 36. Which of the following training methods exposes the newly recruited employee to the various business functions, divisions and departments ? (A) Orientation (B) Vestibule Training (C) Transition Analysis (D) Role playing 38. Who was closely associated with industrial relations in India ? (A) B. Kurien (B) Gadgil (C) V.V. Giri (D) Vinoba Bhave 39. Under the Trade Union Act 1926, how many minimum number of members are required for a trade union to be registered ? (A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 9 (D) 11 Paper-II 12 Which of the following committees is intended to review the working of the monetory system in India ? (A) Narasimham Committee (B) Tandon Committee (C) Sukhamoy Chakravarty Committee (D) Deheja Committee 42. Match the names of the Authors given below with the motivational theories they are associated with List-I List-II 1. Herzberg a. ERG Theory 2. McGregor b. Three-need theory 3. Alderfer c. Theory X and Theory Y 4. David d. Two-factor theory McClelland Codes : 1 2 3 4 (A) a b c d (B) d c b a (C) b a d c (D) d c a b The idea that a manager tends to be promoted to a level of his incompetence is referred to as (A) the advancement principle (B) the Paul principle (C) the Peter principle (D) the job design principle 41. 37. 40. Match the items of List-I with those in List-II and select the correct answer. List-I List-II (a) Bank Rate 1. Involving the Policy shortening of the currency of bills eligible for rediscount. (b) Credit 2. Involving the Rationing Purchase and sale of securities in the open market. (c) Variable 3. Involving the Reserve alteration of System discount rate. 4. Involving the (d) Open variation of the Market minimum Operations reserves Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 4 2 3 (B) 2 1 3 4 (C) 4 2 1 3 (D) 3 1 4 2 J-08-14 , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 37. 40. (1) (2) (3) (4) (A) (a) (b) (c) (d) (B) (d) (c) (b) (a) (C) (b) (a) (d) (c) (D) (d) (c) (a) (b) 38. ? (A) . (B) (C) . . (D) 39. , 1926 , ? ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 42. I II : I II (1) (a) . . . (2) (b) - (3) (c) -X -Y (4) (d) - : ? (A) (B) (C) (D) ( ) 41. 36. I II : I II (a) (1) : (b) (2) (c) (3) (d) (4) : (a) (A) 5 (B) (C) J-08-14 (4) (2) (3) (1) (3) (4) (C) (4) (2) (1) (3) (D) (3) 13 (d) (B) (2) (D) 11 9 (c) (A) (1) 7 (b) (1) (4) (2) Paper-II 43. 44. 45. 46. Paper-II Which of the following is not a form of economic integration in the context of intra-regional trade ? (A) Customs Union (B) European Union (C) Economic Union (D) African Union 48. Crawling Peg System means (A) Fixed Exchange Rate System. (B) Floating Exchange Rate System. (C) Hybrid of Fixed and Floating Exchange System. (D) None of the above. 49. From the following modes of international business, identify the mode which involves strategic alliance (A) Franchising (B) Leasing (C) Turnkey Project (D) Joint venture 50. 14 International trade theory which provides that capital intensive country should export labourintensive goods and import capital goods is referred to as (A) Leontief Paradox (B) Heckscher-Ohlin Theory (C) Mercantilism Theory (D) Theory of Comparative Advantage 47. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List-I List-II (a) Rural (i) Meant for Industries various target Programme groups like Rural youth, Ex-serviceman, women and Scheduled Castes/Tribes (b) Mahila Vikas (ii) Aim at ensuring Nidhi flow of credit to Scheme the disadvantaged sections of the society. (c) Entre(iii) Commercial preneurship exploitation of Development local resources. Programme (d) Micro Credit (iv) Provides Scheme assistance to voluntary organizations for the benefit of women. Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) According to the FDI Policy of the Government of India (2012), the FDI in banks is limited to (A) 20% in Nationalised Banks and 74% in Private Sector Banks. (B) 20% in Nationalised Banks and 49% in Private Sector Banks. (C) 16% in Nationalised Banks and 74% in Private Sector Banks. (D) 49% in Nationalised Banks and 51% in Private Sector Banks. According to the recent guidelines (2013) of the Reserve Bank of India the Private Sector Banks are required to have a minimum paid up equity capital of (A) ` 300 crores (B) ` 200 crores (C) ` 400 crores (D) ` 500 crores Which of the following expressions amount to the import restriction measures ? (i) Currency control (ii) Establishment of EPZs (iii) Tariff cuts (iv) Imposition of tariffs (v) Imposition of non-tariff barriers Codes : (A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (i), (iv) and (v) (C) (iii), (iv) and (v) (D) (ii), (iii) and (v) J-08-14 43. I II : I II (i) (a) , , / (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv) : (A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii), (b) (iii), (iv), (ii), (iv), (c) (ii) (i) (iii) (i) 46. , - - , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) - 47. : ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 48. - : (A) (B) (C) (D) (d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) 49. 50. FDI (2012) , FDI ? (A) 20% 74% (B) 20% 49% (C) 16% 74% (D) 49% 51% 45. - (2013) , ? (A) ` 300 (B) ` 200 (C) ` 400 (D) ` 500 ? (A) ( ) (B) (C) (D) - ? (i) (ii) . . (iii) (iv) (v) - : (A) (i), (ii) (iii) (B) (i), (iv) (v) (C) (iii), (iv) (v) (D) (ii), (iii) (v) 44. J-08-14 15 Paper-II Space For Rough Work Paper-II 16 J-08-14

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