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UGC NET JUN 2014 : COMMERCE PAPER III

23 pages, 150 questions, 13 questions with responses, 17 total responses,    0    0
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PAPER-III COMMERCE Signature and Name of Invigilator 1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................... (To be filled by the Candidate) (Name) ____________________________ Roll No. 2. (Signature) __________________________ (In figures as per admission card) (Name) ____________________________ J 08 Roll No.________________________________ (In words) 1 4 Time : 2 1/2 hours] Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Instructions for the Candidates [Maximum Marks : 150 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75 1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of questions. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means such as change of response by scratching or using white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the test question booklet and Original OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry original question booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions, English version will be taken as final. J-08-14 1 1. 2. - 3. , - - , : (i) - - (ii) - / - - (iii) OMR - 4. (A), (B), (C) (D) : (C) 5. OMR OMR , 6. 7. (Rough Work) 8. OMR , , , , , 9. - OMR - OMR 10. / 11. ( ) 12. 13. , P.T.O. COMMERCE Paper III Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory. 1. The Competition Act, 2002, seeks to 6. What is the underlying concept that regulate support the immediate recognition of (A) Anti-competitive agreements an estimated loss ? (B) Mergers and amalgamation (A) Substance over form (C) Unfair trade practices (B) Consistency (D) (A) and (B) above (C) Matching (D) Prudence 2. Indicate the true statement : (A) Large industrial houses are 7. Which is not the limitation of outside the purriew of the budgetary control ? (A) Budgets are based on forecasts Competition Act, 2002 which may not be true (B) There is no provision for (B) Installation and operation of a curbing frivolous complaints system of budgetary control is under the CPA. costly. (C) The Trade Marks Act, 1999 (C) Budget is a tool of management does not apply to services. and not a substitute of (D) All of the above are true. management (D) Budgets do not pinpoint the 3. The time limit for filing a complaints lack of efficiency or the before the District forum under the presence of it. Consumer Protection Act, 1986 is (A) one year 8. Profit volume ratio of an enterprise is (B) two years 40%. To offset 10% decrease in (C) three years selling price, how much sales must (D) There is no such time limit. be increased ? 4. 5. (A) 10% (C) 25% The Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB) revamps the rules and regulations pertaining to (A) Accounting of Foreign Investment (B) Investment by NRIs (C) Foreign investments (D) All of the above 9. 2 If debt is ` 220, cash balance is ` 20 and equity is ` 300, then the gearing ratio is (A) 20% (B) 40% (C) 50% (D) 30% 10. Which of the legislation(s) do (does) not form part of the legal environment of business in India ? (A) The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 (B) The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 (C) The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969 (D) Both (B) and (C) above Paper-III (B) 20% (D) 40% Responsibility accounting aims to (A) ensure that a manager is punished if things go wrong. (B) ensure that costs become the responsibility of a specific manager. (C) allocate costs to all areas of a business. (D) reduce the costs that a department incurs. J-08-14 III : (75) - (2) 1. , 2002 - ? (A) - (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) 2. (A) , 2002 (B) CPA (C) , 1999 (D) 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. - 40% 10% , ? (A) 10% (C) 25% ( . . . .) - ? (A) (B) NRIs (C) (D) 9. 10. 3 (B) 20% (D) 40% ` 220 , ` 20 ` 300 , ? (A) 20% (C) 50% ? (A) , 1940 (B) , 1954 (C) , 1969 (D) (B) (C) J-08-14 ? (A) (B) (C) , (D) , - 8. , 1986 - : (A) (B) (C) (D) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (B) 40% (D) 30% : (A) (B) (C) (D) Paper-III 11. 13. (I) (A) (c) (a) (b) (c) Match the following : List I List II (i) Dumping (a) Monopolistic competitive firm (ii) Kinked (b) Oligopoly Revenue firm Curve (c) Perfectively (iii) Horizontal straight line competitive revenue curve firm (iv) Large number (d) Discriminof buyers and atory sellers with monopoly differentiated products Codes : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (A) (a) (d) (c) (b) (B) (b) (d) (a) (c) (C) (d) (b) (c) (a) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d) 15. Penetrating pricing strategy is appropriate when (A) price elasticity of demand in the market is highly inelastic. (B) price elasticity of demand in the market is uncertain. (C) price elasticity of demand in the market is highly elastic. (D) income elasticity of demand in the market is negatively elastic. J-08-14 (II) (III) (a) (b) (B) (b) (C) (a) (D) (a) The equilibrium level of output for a perfect competitive firm is given by the point where : (A) MR = MC (B) MR < MC (C) MR > MC (D) MR = MC, and MC starts rising. 14. Find the correct matching of the items of List I with the items of List II given below : List I List II (a) Normal (I) Excess of Profit total revenue over total explicit cost (b) Economic (II) Total profit revenue equals total economic cost (c) Accounting (III) Excess of profit total revenue over total of explicit and implicit costs and a normal rate of return Codes : (c) (c) (b) 12. Assertion (A) : A monopoly firm s revenue curve is downward sloping from left to right. Reason (R) : The monopoly firm does not simultaneously enjoy the freedom to determine both price and quantity to be sold according to its whims and fancy. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true. (B) Both (A) and (R) are false. (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. Paper-III 4 11. I II : I (a) (b) (c) 13. (A) MR = MC II (B) 14. (II) (III) (b) (B) (b) (a) (c) (C) (a) (b) (c) (D) (a) (c) MC : (a) MR > MC (D) MR = MC, (II) (A) (c) MR < MC (C) (I) (III) (I) (b) : I II (i) (a) (ii) - (b) (iii) (c) - (iv) (d) : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (A) (a) 12. : (A) (A) (R) (B) (A) (R) (C) (A) , (R) (D) (A) J-08-14 , (R) 5 (d) (a) (c) (b) (c) (a) (D) (a) 15. (b) (C) (d) (R) : (c) (B) (b) (A) : (d) (b) (c) (d) (A) (B) (C) (D) Paper-III 16. Assertion (A) : The expected values should be atleast 5 to apply the chi-square test. Reason (R) : The chi-square distribution provides an adequate approximation of the sampling distribution. Indicate the correct answer from the following : Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the right explanation. (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation. (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 17. In a decision problem having four possible alternative decisions and six possible states of nature, the pay-off table will include (A) Four payoffs (B) Six payoffs (C) Twenty four payoff (D) Ten payoff 18. 20. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (A) (c) (d) (c) (d) (b) (a) (c) (d) (D) (c) 19. (a) (C) (b) 21. (b) (B) (a) The mathematical formula for joint probabilities P(AB) = P(A/B) P(B), holds when (A) The events are statistically independent. (B) The events are statistically dependent. (C) The event is either independent or dependent. (D) None of the above Which one of the following statements is the correct interpretation of P-value of less than 0.01 in hypothesis testing ? (A) There is overwhelming evidence to infer that the alternative hypothesis is true. (B) There is strong evidence to infer that the alternative hypothesis is true. (C) There is weak evidence to indicate that the alternative hypothesis is true. (D) There is no evidence to infer that the alternative hypothesis is true. Paper-III Two lists of items are given below : List I List II (i) Charles (a) Mossai Babbage (ii) Herbert A. (b) HTML Simon (iii) Tim (c) Computer Berners Design Lee (iv) Maarc (d) Decision Andreessen model Which one of the following is the correct match ? Codes : (d) (b) (a) Which of the following statements are true about informal organization ? 1. It arises spontaneously. 2. It reflects individual and group goals. 3. It tends to be permanent and stable. 4. It tends to be small and manageable. 5. Its basic purpose is to improve human relations. 6. Its basic purpose is to achieve organisation s goals. Codes : (A) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (B) 1, 2, 4 and 6 (C) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (D) 2, 3, 5 and 6 6 J-08-14 16. 17. (A) : - 5 (R) : - : : (A) (A) (R) , (R) (B) (A) (R) , (R) (C) (A) , (R) (D) (A) , (R) 20. : I (i) II (a) . (b) . . . . (iii) (c) (iv) (d) (ii) : : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (A) (c) (d) (c) (d) (b) (C) (b) (a) (c) (d) (D) (c) 21. (a) (B) (a) : , - ? (A) - (B) : - (C) - (D) - (b) (d) (b) (a) ? (1) 18. 19. (2) J-08-14 (4) (5) (6) 0.01 P- ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (3) : P(AB) = P(A/B) P(B) : (A) (B) (C) (D) : (A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 1, 2, 4 6 (C) 1, 2, 4 5 (D) 2, 3, 5 7 5 6 Paper-III 22. 25. Which of the following is not true about an employee-centered leader as identified by Michigan researchers ? (a) Fayol (C) Focuses on work standards and close supervision. (D) Encourages and involves them in goal setting. 23. Codes : (a) Pattern organisations (c) (d) (4) (1) (2) (B) (2) (4) (1) (3) (C) (1) (3) (2) (4) (D) (4) Integrative organisations (b) (A) (3) (A) Political organisations (C) (3) Principles of Organization (d) Mooney (4) Shop and Reilly Management According to Talcott Parson, organizations can be classified primarily into four categories, based on functions. Which of the following is not an organization in Parson s scheme ? (B) (2) General and Industrial Administration (c) Weber Shows concern for their well being. (1) Economy and Society (b) Taylor (A) Treats subordinates as human beings. (B) Match the following : List I List II (3) (2) (1) maintenance 26. (D) Commercial organisations A primary group influencing the buyer behaviour is a (A) Family An MBO programme usually involves the following steps : (B) Professional association (C) Religious group 1. Establishing unit s objectives (D) Trade Union 2. Establishing organisational goals 3. Negotiating or agreeing 4. Reviewing the performance 5. 24. Creating action plans 27. Indicate the correct sequence of the above steps from the following codes : (A) Idea generation (B) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4 (C) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5 Product testing development and (D) Test marketing (D) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 Paper-III Product positioning (C) (A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (B) After conducting the business analysis for developing a new product, a company must do 8 J-08-14 22. 23. 24. - ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 25. : I II (a) (1) (b) (2) (c) (3) (d) (4) : (a) (c) (d) (4) (1) (2) (B) (2) (4) (1) (3) (C) (1) (3) (2) (4) (D) (4) 26. (b) (A) (3) , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (3) (2) (1) : (A) (C) (D) 27. (B) . . . : (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) : ? (A) (A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (B) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4 (B) (C) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5 (C) (D) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 (D) J-08-14 9 Paper-III 28. 31. Match the items in List I with those in List II : List I List II (a) Post purchase behaviour (i) AIDA (b) Personal selling (ii) ACMEE (c) Everitt M. Rogers (iii) Diffusion of Innovation (d) Salesperson training (iv) Cognitive dissonance Indicate the correct matching : Codes : (a) (A) (i) (b) (c) (d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (B) (iv) (ii) (iii) (C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (D) (iv) 29. (i) (iii) (ii) (i) Which type of retail stores generally has the highest operating costs ? (a) (C) 32. (A) India has been a pioneer in social marketing. Advertising Standards Council of India is a statutory body set up by the government of India. (C) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect. (D) Both (A) and (B) are correct. Paper-III (iii) Spontaneous financing (iv) Lockbox system (c) (d) (i) (i) (iii) (D) (i) Indicate the correct statement : (B) (ii) Factoring (C) (ii) (iv) Chain store (D) Co-operative Store 30. List II (i) Maturity Financing (B) (iii) (ii) (iv) Supermarket 10 (b) List I with the (A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (A) Department store (B) Match the items of items of List II : List I (a) Trade credit and other payables that arise in the firm s day today operations (b) Financing and asset needs over time (c) A tool for accelerating the collection from the customers (d) Seeking financial service to finance on its debtors balances Codes : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Indicate the cost of equity capital, based on capital asset pricing model, with the following information : Beta coefficient 1.40 Risk-free rate of interest 9% Expected Rate of Return on equity in the market 16% (A) 9.8% (B) 18% (C) 18.8% (D) 16% J-08-14 28. 31. I II : I (a) II (i) AIDA (b) (c) (ii) ACMEE . (iii) (iv) (d) : : (a) (A) (i) (b) (c) (d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (B) (iv) (ii) (iii) (C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (D) (iv) 29. (i) (iii) (ii) (i) : ? I II : I II (a) (i) - (b) (ii) - ( ) (c) (iii) (d) (iv) : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (A) (B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (B) (C) (ii) (iv) (iii) (C) (D) 30. (D) (i) 32. : (B) (C) (A) (B) (D) (A) (B) (A) J-08-14 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (CAPM) : ( ) = 1.40 9% 16% (A) 9.8% (C) 11 (B) (D) 16% 18.8% 18% Paper-III 33. The degree of super-leverage would be calculated by : 36. Indicate the quantitative methods of job evaluation (A) Ranking methods and Job comparison method (B) Point rating method and Factor comparison method (C) Grading method and Job classification method (D) Factor comparison method and Ranking method 37. Match the items of List I with those List II : List I List II (1) Career (a) The process goals where in an executive serves as a guide (2) Career (b) The future path positions one strives to reach as part of career (3) Career (c) The sequential pattern of jobs counseling that form a career (4) Mentoring (d) Guiding people on their possible career path Codes : (A) Adding DOL (Degree of Operating Leverage) and DFL (Degree of Financial Leverage) (B) Dividing DOL with DFL (C) Multiplying DOL and DFL (D) Subtracting DOL from DFL 34. Interim cash inflows are reinvested at a rate of return equal to the internal rate of return is the built-inmechanism for (A) Net Present Value Method (B) Internal Rate of Return Method (C) Profitability Index Method (D) None of the above 35. Who formulated the following model for estimating the market price of equity share ? D+ P= Ra Rc (E D) Rc Where, P = Market price of equity share D = DPS E = EPS E D = Retained earning per share Ra = Internal rate of return on investment (1) (A) Modigliani-Miller (2) (3) (4) (A) (b) Rc = Cost of capital (c) (d) (a) (B) Myron-Gordon (B) (a) (b) (c) (d) (C) James E. Walter (C) (d) (c) (b) (a) (D) (c) (b) (a) (d) (D) Clarkson and Elliot Paper-III 12 J-08-14 33. - ? (A) (DOL) (DFL) (B) DOL DFL (C) DOL DFL (D) DOL DFL 36. : (B) 37. (C) : ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (D) 34. (A) I II : I II (a) (2) 35. (1) (b) ( ) ? Ra D + R (E D) P= (3) c (d) Rc : P = D = . . . E = . . . E D = Ra = Rc = (4) : (1) (4) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d) (C) (d) (c) (b) (a) (D) (c) 13 (3) (B) (a) (B) (C) . (D) (2) (A) (b) (A) J-08-14 (c) (b) (a) (d) Paper-III 38. 39. 42. The process of receiving and welcoming an employee when he first joins a company and giving him the basic information he needs to settle down quickly and happily and starts working, is referred to as (A) Placement (B) Orientation (C) Job Rotation (D) Counseling Which is not relevant of succession planning ? (A) Analysis of the demand for managers (B) Review of existing executives (C) Planning individuals career paths (D) Recruitment to meet immediate needs 40. 41. (A) (B) (C) (D) Where does recognition of an Employee fall in Maslow s hierarchy of needs theory ? (A) Self-actualisation (B) Security needs (C) Social needs (D) Esteem needs (a) (3) (2) (4) (3) (b) (4) (3) (2) (4) (c) (2) (4) (3) (1) (d) (1) (1) (1) (2) 43. 14 Which of the following financial institutions is not with in the supervisory Purview of Reserve Bank of India ? (A) Foreign Commercial Banks Operating in India (B) Regional Rural Banks (C) Mutual Funds (D) State Co-operative Banks 44. The profitability of public-sector banks is low due to (i) Over-cautions approach to lending (ii) Reserve Bank Policies (iii) High Overhead Costs (iv) Social-sector lending Identify the correct code : Codes : (A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iv) (C) (i), (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii) Paper-III Match the items of List I with those List II and select correct answer : List I List II (1) Narasimham (a) Lending under Committee consortium arrangement (2) Shetty (b) Frauds and Committee Malpractices in banks (3) Ghosh (c) Securities Committee operations of banks and financial institutions (4) Janakiraman (d) Financial system Committee in India Codes : The Repo and Reserve Repo rates are resorted to by the RBI as a tool of (A) Credit Control (B) Settlement Systems (C) Currency Management (D) Liquidity Control J-08-14 38. , - , ? (A) (B) (C) - (D) / 39. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 40. 41. 42. (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (3) (4) (2) (1) (B) (2) (3) (4) (1) (C) (4) (2) (3) (1) (D) (3) ? (A) - (B) (C) (D) (4) (1) (2) 43. 15 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 44. ? (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) - : : (A) (i) (ii) (B) (i) (iv) (C) (i), (iii) (iv) (D) (ii) (iii) J-08-14 I II : I II (1) (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (d) (4) : ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Paper-III 45. Which one of the following 48. institutions is promoted by the IFCI : Match the items given in List I with the most appropriate items in List II : List I (a) UNCTAD (A) Credit Analysis and Research Ltd (CARE) (B) (b) WTO Rashtriya Gramin Vikas Nidhi (RGVN) (C) (c) TRIMS (d) ITC Clearing Corporation of India Ltd (CCIL) Codes : (a) (A) (ii) (B) (iii) (C) (iv) (D) (iii) (D) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) 46. Indicate the right sequence of the stages of internationalization : (i) Multinational Company (ii) Global Company 50. Which of the following can be included in the current account of the balance of payments ? (i) Purchase of goods from abroad (ii) Sale of services abroad (iii) Workers remittances from aboard (iv) Sale of copyright to foreigners (v) Direct investment in equity capital Codes : (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (D) (iv) 47. (d) (iii) (ii) (iii) (iv) Duty levied on the value of goods imported is referred to as (A) Ad valorem Duty (B) Compound Duty (C) Specific Duty (D) Import Duty (iv) International Company (B) (iv) (b) (c) (iv) (i) (iv) (i) (ii) (i) (ii) (i) 49. (iii) Transnational Company (A) (i) List II (i) Foreign investment (ii) Developing Countries (iii) UNDP (iv) General Council (i) (iii) (ii) (ii) (iii) Which of the following is not one of the components of International Reserve ? Codes : (A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (i), (ii) and (iv) (C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (A) Special Drawing Rights (B) Reserve Position in IMF (C) Monetary Gold (D) Money Market Instruments Paper-III 16 J-08-14 45. 48. IFCI ? (A) (CARE) I II : I II (a) UNCTAD (i) (b) WTO (ii) (B) (RGVN) (c) TRIMS (d) ITC (C) (iii) UNDP (iv) : (CCIL) 46. : (i) (C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (D) (iv) 47. (ii) (i) (i) (iii) (iv) , ? (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) : (A) (i), (ii) (iii) (B) (i), (ii) (iv) (C) (i), (ii), (iii) (v) (D) (i), (ii), (iii) (iv) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (i) 50. : (B) (iv) (iii) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) - (iv) (A) (i) (i) 49. (ii) (iii) (d) (B) (iii) (iv) (SIDBI) (c) (A) (ii) (iv) (b) (C) (iv) (ii) (D) (iii) (ii) (D) (a) (i) (iii) (ii) (ii) (iii) ? (A) (B) . . . - (C) (D) J-08-14 17 Paper-III 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. Which of the following items would be specifically included in the statement of cash flows constructed in compliance with AS-3 ? (A) Conversion of debt to equity (B) Acquiring an asset through lease (C) Operating and non-operating cash flow information (D) Purchasing a building by giving a mortgage to the seller Fixing the value of an employee depending upon his productivity, promotability, transferability and retainability is the core of the (A) Certainty equivalent model (B) Stochastic Reward Valuation model (C) Human asset multiplier model (D) Present value of future earnings model Which of the following refers to a situation in which the merger of companies results in over 25% of the market in the hands of the merged companies ? (A) Gateway condition (B) Restrictive practice (C) Share of supply test (D) Asset test Which of the following is true ? (A) Systematic risk is diversifiable but unsystematic risk is nondiversifiable. (B) Systematic risk is nondiversifiable but unsystematic risk is diversifiable. (C) Both systematic and unsystematic risks are diversifiable. (D) Both systematic and unsystematic risks are nondiversifiable. Paper-III 18 Match the following : List I (Explanation) (a) It involves using the version of master file and the update transactions used to create the current file to recreate the current master file if it becomes damaged. (b) It involves copying the whole or a portion of the database to some back up medium, typically magnetics tape. (c) It stores current and historical data extracted from various operations systems and consolidates for management reporting and analysis. (d) It maintains the chronology of events that occur either to the database definition or the database itself. Codes : (a) (b) (c) (A) (3) (2) (4) (B) (3) (1) (2) (C) (1) (3) (2) (D) (4) (3) (2) List II (Term) (1) Audit Trail Controls (2) Dumping (3) Grandfather, Father, Son (4) Data warehouse for Accounting (d) (1) (4) (4) (1) J-08-14 51. 52. 53. 54. , AS-3 ? (A) (B) (C) - (D) 55. (a) , , ? (A) (B) / (C) (D) II ( ) (1) , , : (2) (3) , (c) (b) 25% ? (A) ( ) (B) (C) - (D) (4) : (d) ? (A) - (B) - (C) (D) - J-08-14 : I ( ) (a) (c) (d) (A) (3) (2) (4) (1) (B) (3) (1) (2) (4) (C) (1) (3) (2) (4) (D) (4) 19 (b) (3) (2) (1) Paper-III 56. Which one is not a major component of holistic marketing ? (A) Relationship marketing (B) Integrated marketing (C) Internal marketing (D) Socially responsible marketing 62. Which one of the following is not an example of Herzberg s hygiene factors ? (A) Advancement (B) Interpersonal relations (C) Job security (D) Work conditions 57. The final step in target marketing is (A) Market Analysis (B) Market Positioning (C) Market Segmentation (D) Market Targeting 63. 58. The most recent consideration in product packaging is (A) Cost effectiveness (B) Product protection (C) Product promotion (D) Economy Which of the following two forms of collective bargaining were identified by Chamberlain and Kuhn ? (A) Integrative Bargaining and Distributive Bargaining (B) Conjunctive Bargaining and Cooperative Bargaining (C) Integrative Bargaining and Cooperative Bargaining (D) Distributive Bargaining and Conjunctive Bargaining 64. Who observed that a worker s behaviour and sentiments are closely related ? (A) Peter Drucker (B) Elton Mayo (C) F.W. Taylor (D) Dale Yoder 65. What is not an operative function of HRM ? (A) Procurement (B) Development (C) Organising (D) Integration 66. The total number of Special Economic Zones notified by the Government of India till March 2011 under the SEZ Act, 2005 is (A) 154 (B) 184 (C) 286 (D) 386 67. The different forms of IMF assistance are given below. Identify the one which is mainly meant for Less Developed Countries (LDCs) (A) Credit Tranche Drawing (B) Extended Fund Facility (C) Compensatory Financing Facility (D) Structural Adjustment Facility 59. 60. 61. Distribution logistics (also termed as market logistics ) does not include (A) Distribution channel (B) Inventory (C) Transportation (D) Warehouses Most of the money spent in measuring the effectiveness of advertising is spent on (A) Communication-response research (B) Pre-testing the advertisements (C) Post-testing the advertisements (D) Sales-response research Which of the following is not included in the model of the systems approach to human resource management ? (A) Departmentation (B) Recruitment (C) Performance Appraisal (D) Promotion Paper-III 20 J-08-14 62. - ? (A) (B) (C) ( ) (D) 63. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 64. ? (A) (B) (C) . . (D) 65. . . . ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 56. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 57. : (A) (B) (C) (D) 58. 59. ( ) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 66. , 2005 : 2011 60. 61. ? (A) - (B) - (C) - (D) - (A) 154 (C) 67. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) J-08-14 21 (B) (D) 386 286 184 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Paper-III 72. 73. (B) Customise products to meet the national market Which of the following are true in tax planning ? (i) It is futuristic in its approach. (ii) It has limited scope compared to tax management. (iii) The benefits arising from it are limited particularly in the short run. (iv) Its main objective is to reduce the tax liability. Codes : (A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (i) and (iv) (D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) The benefits of debt financing over equity financing are likely to be highest in which of the following situations ? (A) High marginal tax rates and low non-interest tax benefits (B) Low marginal tax rates and low non-interest tax benefits (C) High marginal tax rates and high non-interest tax benefits (D) Low marginal tax rates and high non-interest tax benefits. Customise products to regional markets (C) From the following, identify by the web-based financial software : (A) Private Equity Software (B) Share Accounting Software (C) Wealth Management Software (D) WINGS 2013 74. In the context of globalization, Levitt Thesis means (A) Standardisation strategy to respond to the worldwide homogenised market and expand the market through aggressive low pricing Consider the following problem relating to a let-out house property : Municipal value ` 60,000 Fair rent ` 68,000 Standard rent under the Rent Control Act ` 62,000 Annual Rent received ` 65,000 The Gross Annual Value of the property will be (A) ` 68,000 (B) ` 62,000 (C) ` 65,000 (D) ` 60,000 75. 68. (D) None of the above 69. Which one of the following is an internal hedging technique ? (A) Leading (B) Netting (C) Both (A) and (B) above (D) Swap 70. Business conglomerates have different names in different countries. Which country s conglomerates are called Chaebols ? (A) Japan (B) South Korea (C) Germany (D) China 71. Mr. X, a non-resident, earned ` 36,000 as interest on German Development Bonds. Of this, he received one-sixth in India. The amount to be included as interest for the computation of his Gross Total Income is (A) ` 36,000 (C) Paper-III ` 6,000 (B) ` 30,000 (D) Nil 22 J-08-14 68. 69. (A) (B) (C) (D) 72. (A) ` 68,000 (C) ` 65,000 74. ? (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) : (A) (i), (ii) (iii) (B) (i) (ii) (C) (i) (iv) (D) (ii), (iii) (iv) 75. - , X ` 36,000 ? : (A) (B) (C) (D) WINGS 2013 ( 2013) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 71. (A) ` 36,000 (C) J-08-14 ` 6,000 (B) ` 30,000 (D) (B) ` 62,000 (D) ` 60,000 73. ? (A) ( ) (B) (C) (A) (B) (D) 70. - : ` 60,000 ` 68,000 = ` 62,000 - ` 65,000 23 Paper-III Space For Rough Work Paper-III 24 J-08-14

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