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UGC NET SEP 2013 : COMMERCE PAPER II

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PAPER-II COMMERCE Signature and Name of Invigilator 1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................... (To be filled by the Candidate) (Name) ____________________________ 2. (Signature) __________________________ Roll No. (In figures as per admission card) (Name) ____________________________ 08 S Roll No.________________________________ (In words) 1 3 1 Time : 1 /4 hours] [Maximum Marks : 100 Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Instructions for the Candidates Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50 1. 2. - 3. , - - , : (i) - / - / (ii) - / - - (iii) OMR - 4. (A), (B), (C) (D) : (C) 5. I OMR OMR , 6. 7. (Rough Work) 8. OMR , , , , , 9. OMR OMR 10. / 11. ( ) 12. 1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal / polythene bag on the booklet. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal / without polythene bag and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given inside the Paper I Booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the original OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are however, allowed to carry duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. S-08-13 1 P.T.O. COMMERCE Paper II Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions, each question carrying two (2) marks. All questions are compulsory. 1. Government regulation of business is basically intended to (A) make sure all business units have the opportunity to be successful. (B) warn consumers against unfair business practices (C) make sure business firms are socially responsible. (D) protect the public from the negative consequences of business behaviour. 2. What is not the advantage of SEZ ? (A) Improvement of infrastructure in the hinterland. (B) Diversion of large tracts of farm land. (C) Attracting foreign investment. (D) All of the above. 3. Which type of the complaints are not to be entertained by Consumer Forums under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 ? (A) A defective product purchased 1 years back. (B) Misleading advertisement in a newspaper. (C) Services provided free of cost. (D) Tie in sales. 4. 5. 6. Which of the following is a WTO procedure to promote globalisation ? (A) Promotion of free trade. (B) Reduction of budgetary subsidies. (C) Reduction in shipping costs. (D) Promotion of foreign portfolio investment. Paper-II 2 Match the following regarding disinvestment in India : List I List II (a) Disinvestment I. 1999 Policy by the Chandrashekhar Government (b) Rangarajan II. 1996 Committee on disivestment in public sector enterprises (c) Strategic and III. 1991-92 nonstrategic classification of public enterprises for disinvestment (d) Formation of IV. 1993 Disinvestment Commission Codes : I II III IV (A) (c) (d) (a) (b) (B) (a) (b) (c) (d) (C) (c) (b) (a) (d) (D) (a) (d) (c) (b) When a partnership is dissolved and the following claims need to be met out piece-meal of the cash released, which is the correct sequence in which these claims have to be met ? (a) Any partner s loan (b) Capital and Current account balances (c) Expenses of dissolution (d) Outsider s claim (both payable and accrued) Codes : (A) (c), (d), (a), (b) (B) (b), (c), (a), (d) (C) (a), (b), (d), (c) (D) (a), (b), (c), (d) S-08-13 II : (50) - (2) 1. 2. 3. 4. (A) (B) (C) (D) 5. /SEZ ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D) , 1986 ? (A) 1 ( ) (B) (C) : (D) - 6. WTO ? (A) (B) (C) - (D) S-08-13 : I (a) (b) (c) (d) : II (d) (b) (b) (d) III (a) (c) (a) (c) II I. 1999 II. 1996 III. 1991-92 IV. 1993 IV (b) (d) (d) (b) ? (a) (b) (c) (d) ( ) : (A) (B) (C) (D) 3 I (c) (a) (c) (a) (c), (d), (a), (b) (b), (c), (a), (d) (a), (b), (d), (c) (a), (b), (c), (d) Paper-II 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. In practice, accountants consider revenue from sales if a transaction meets the following condition(s) : (A) The seller has passed the legal or economic ownership of the goods to the buyer. (B) The seller and the buyer have agreed on the price of the goods. (C) The buyer has paid the price of the goods or it is certain that he will pay the price. (D) All of the above. 12. (A) Negatively sloping. (B) Convex to the point of origin. (C) Indifference curves necessarily have to be parallel. (D) Two indifference curves do not intersect each other. 13. The main difference between marginal costing and absorption costing lies in the treatment of (A) Direct cost (B) Fixed overhead (C) Variable overhead (D) Semi-variable overhead Find the correct matching between items of List-I and the items of List-II. List I List II (a) Increase in (i) Leftward demand movement along the demand curve. Which of the following items is not an appropriation of profit for a limited company ? (A) Corporate tax payable (B) Ordinary dividend payable (C) Debenture interest payable (D) Preference dividend payable (b) Contraction (ii) Rightward of demand shift of the demand curve. (c) Cross demand (iii) Demand of more than one commodity to satisfy one specific want. (d) Joint demand Which of the following is not applicable to responsibility accounting ? (A) Accounting Centre (B) Cost Centre (C) Investment Centre (D) Profit Centre (iv) Demand of one commodity with changes in the prices of another related commodity Codes : Which one of the following is not the basic assumption of Cardinal Utility analysis ? (A) Rationality of Consumer. (B) Utility cardinally measurable. (C) Diminishing marginal utility of money. (D) Hypothesis of independent utilities. Paper-II Which one of the following is not a property of indifference curve ? (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (A) (b) (d) (c) (B) (a) (b) (c) (d) (C) (b) (a) (c) (d) (D) (a) 4 (a) (b) (d) (c) S-08-13 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. , , : (A) (B) (C) (D) 12. (A) ( ) (C) (D) 13. (B) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) - -I -II : I II (a) (ii) (c) ( ) (iii) (d) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (b) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (i) (iv) : (i) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) S-08-13 ? (ii) (iii) (iv) (A) (b) (d) (c) (B) (a) (b) (c) (d) (C) (b) (a) (c) (d) (D) (a) 5 (a) (b) (d) (c) Paper-II 14. 15. 16. According to the Law of Variable Proportions, the second stage of production ends when (A) Marginal productivity of the variable input becomes maximum. (B) Both marginal productivity and average productivity of the variable input are equal. (C) Marginal productivity of the variable input becomes zero and average productivity is positive. (D) Marginal productivity of the variable input is negative but average productivity is positive. 18. ANOVA Table Sources of Sum of Degrees of Variation Squares Freedom Between columns 100 3 Between rows 24 16 Total 124 19 (A) 22.2 19. (B) (C) Total Revenue (TR) function and the Total Cost (TC) function of a perfectly competitive market firm are as follows : TR = 480 Q 8 Q2 TC = 400 + 8 Q2 The profit maximizing output would be : (A) 60 (B) 15 (C) 50 (D) None of the above (D) 36.2 33.3 31.5 For a hypothesis test, alpha ( ) is 0.05 and beta ( ) is 0.10. The power of this test is (A) 0.95 (B) 0.90 (C) 0.80 (D) 0.15 20. From a population with mean of 220 and standard deviation of 30, a sample of 36 was drawn at random. Calculate the standard error of the sampling distribution and choose the correct answer from the following options. (A) 7.3 (B) 6.2 (C) 6.0 (D) 5.0 A committee of six people is to be formed from a group of seven men and four women. What is the probability that the committee will have exactly two women ? (A) 0.456 (B) 0.803 (C) 0.962 (D) None of the above Paper-II From the following Anova table, calculate the F value and select the correct answer from the options given below : Which one(s) of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to Decision Support System (DSS) ? (i) It (DSS) is used by middle level management. (ii) DSS applies to structured problems. mostly (iii) DSS relies on mathematical models for analysis. 17. (iv) DSS is largely heuristics based. Codes : (A) (i) and (ii) are correct. (B) (i) and (iii) are correct. (C) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct. (D) All the four are correct. 6 S-08-13 14. 15. , (A) (B) (C) (D) 18. , F : 100 3 24 16 124 19 (A) 22.2 (C) (TR) (TC) : 19. Q2 TR = 480 Q 8 TC = 400 + 8 Q2 (B) (D) 36.2 33.3 , ( ) 0.05 ( ) 0.10 : (A) 0.95 (A) 60 (B) 15 (C) 50 (D) 16. (B) 0.90 (C) 0.80 (D) 0.15 20. , 220 30 , 36 : (A) 7.3 (C) 6.0 17. 31.5 (B) 6.2 (D) 5.0 : ? (A) 0.456 (B) 0.803 (C) 0.962 (D) S-08-13 7 (DSS) ? (i) (ii) ( . . .) (iii) . . . (iv) . . . : (A) (i) (ii) (B) (i) (iii) (C) (i), (ii) (iii) (D) Paper-II 21. 22. 23. 24. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A), and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer using the code given below : Assertion (A) : Strategies necessarily need to be changed over time to suit environmental changes. Reason (R) : To remain competitive, organisations develop those strategies that create value for customers. Codes : (A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect. (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct. (C) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct. (D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect. 25. 26. Paper-II 8 The price-setting method which most closely corresponds to the concept of product positioning is (A) cost-plus pricing (B) going-rate pricing (C) perceived value pricing (D) psychological pricing 29. Which of the following is an ethical behaviour of a manager ? (A) Trading stocks on the basis of inside information. (B) Padding expense accounts. (C) Not divulging trade secrets to competitors. (D) Being severely critical of competitors. Which of the stages of new product development process can be skipped ? (A) Business analysis (B) Idea screening (C) Product testing (D) Test marketing 28. Which of the following is not a characteristic of non-programmed decisions ? (A) Problems are unique and novel. (B) There are no pre-established policies or procedures to rely on. (C) The conditions for nonprogrammed decisions are highly certain. (D) These are the responsibility of top-management. Which segmentation approach is the most compatible with the spirit of the marketing concept ? (A) Benefit sought (B) Income (C) Social class (D) Family size 27. Which of the following is not true about proactive planning ? (A) Way of thinking about managing the future risks. (B) Anticipating future contingencies. (C) Reacting to external events. (D) Getting ready with alternative routes for unforseen situations. Which of the following is suggested by Blake and Mouton as the best leadership behaviour ? (A) Low concern for people but high concern for production. (B) Low concern for both people and production. (C) High concern for both people and production. (D) High concern for people and low concern for production. The most important retail marketing decision a retailer has to make is to (A) select the product assortment. (B) identify its target market. (C) choose the desired service level. (D) develop an effective store atmosphere. S-08-13 , (A) (R) : (A) : (R) : : (A) (A) , (R) (B) (A) (R) (C) (A) , (R) (D) (A) (R) 22. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 23. ? (A) (B) - (C) (D) 24. ? (A) (B) ( ) (C) (D) 25. S-08-13 , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 27. - ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 28. - , ? (A) - (B) (C) (D) 29. 9 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 26. 21. , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Paper-II 30. Which element of the promotion mix do wholesalers primarily use ? 33. (A) Advertising (B) Personal selling (C) Public relations (D) Trade show 31. Out of the following alternative methods of project evaluation and selection used in capital budgeting, which one of the combinations in the code corresponds to discounted cash flow methods ? (i) Internal Rate of Return (ii) 34. Pay Back Period (iii) Profitability Index (iv) Net Present Value Codes : (A) (i), (ii), (iii) (B) (i), (iii), (iv) (C) (ii), (iii), (iv) (D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) 32. When the expected level of EBIT exceeds the indifferent point for two alternative financial plans, (Equityfinancing and Debt-financing), then (A) The use of debt financing would be advantageous to increase EPS. (B) the use of equity financing would be advantageous to maximize EPS. (C) the use of debt-financing would reduce EPS. (D) the use of equity financing would keep the EPS constant. Paper-II 10 Which one of the following is not the assumption of the Modigliani-Miller Irrelevance Theory of Dividend Policy ? (A) No personal or corporate income taxes. (B) Dividend policy has its effect on firm s cost of equity. (C) Capital investment policy is independent of its dividend policy. (D) Stock floatation or transaction cost does not exist. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II. List I List II (i) Financial (a) Rate of Breakdiscount at even-point which NPV is zero. (ii) Cost(b) Cost of capital Volumeremains the Profit same for Analysis different degrees of financial leverage. (iii) Internal (c) Analysis to Rate of study Return relationship among fixed costs, variable costs, sales volume and profits. (iv) Net (d) The minimum Operating level of EBIT Income needed to Approach satisfy all fixed financial charges. Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) S-08-13 30. 31. 33. , ? (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) : (A) (i), (ii), (iii) (B) (i), (iii), (iv) (C) (ii), (iii), (iv) (D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) 32. . . . . ( - ) , (A) . . . (B) . . . (C) - . . . (D) . . . S-08-13 - ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 34. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) -I -II : I II (i) (a) (ii) (b) - (iii) (c) , , (iv) (d) . . . . : (A) (B) (C) (D) 11 (a) (iii) (i) (iv) (i) (b) (iv) (ii) (iii) (ii) (c) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (d) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) Paper-II 35. 36. Assertion (A) : The focus of working capital management revolves around managing the operating cycle of the working capital. Reason (R) : It is because the concept is useful to ascertain the requirements of cash to meet the operating expenses of a going concern. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the explanation of working capital management. (B) Both(A) and (R) are false. (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 38. In which method of performance appraisal, the evaluator keeps a written record of significant events and how difficult employees behaved during such events ? (A) Field Review Method (B) BARS Method (C) Critical Incidents Method (D) Assessment Centre Method 39. In connection with HRD, what is incorrect ? (A) It is a reactive function. (B) It develops total organisation. (C) It focuses on autonomous work groups. (D) It is an integrated system. Which of the following terms, includes the task, duties and responsibilities of a particular job ? (A) Job Evaluation (B) Job Enrichment (C) Job Analysis (D) Job Enlargement 40. In which method of training, job conditions are duplicated with equipments and machines which are identical with those used at the work place ? (A) On the job training (B) Apprenticeship training (C) Vestibule training (D) Internship training 41. Which one of the following techniques is used by the Commercial Banks in India to measure the risk arising from trading activity ? (A) Network Analysis (B) Sensitivity Analysis (C) Value at risk methodology (D) E.V.A. 42. Which of the following schemes introduced by NABARD is intended to provide credit to farmers ? (A) Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (B) Kisan Credit Card (C) Micro-Finance (D) Co-Operative Development Fund 37. Match the following lists and indicate the correct pairing : List I List II 1. Simple a Evaluation by Ranking Superiors, Peers and Subordinates. 2. Paired b Order of rating Comparison from best to worst. 3. 360-Degree c Standardised Appraisal quantitative rating. 4. Graphic d Comparing Rating ratings to one another. The correct pairing is 1 2 3 4 (A) b d a c (B) a b c d (C) c d a b (D) d a b c Paper-II 12 S-08-13 35. 36. 37. (A) : (R) : (going concern) : (A) (A) (R) (R), (B) (A) (R) (C) (A) , (R) (D) (A) , (R) 38. 39. (A) (B) (C) (D) S-08-13 1 b a c d 2 d b d a 3 a c a b , ? (A) - - (B) (C) (D) 41. -I -II : I II 1. a , 2. b 3. 360- c 4. d : . . . ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 40. ( ) , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) , ? (A) (B) ( . . . .) (C) (D) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) E.V.A. 42. 4 c d b c 13 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Paper-II 43. Which one of the following is a recent E-Banking initiative in Commercial Banks in India ? (A) RTGS (B) NEFT (C) NECS (D) NET Banking 44. Which of the following fee-based services are provided by IDBI ? (i) Credit syndication (ii) Corporate trustee services (iii) Custodial services (iv) Foreign services Identify the correct code : Codes : (A) (i), (ii) and (iv) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (D) (iii) and (iv) 46. 48. BOP problems in India cannot be attributed only to (A) Large trade deficit (B) Increase in invisible surplus (C) Sensitive behaviour of foreign creditors, including NRI foreign-currency depositors. (D) The declining role of concessional external finance. Paper-II 14 A situation where any advantage given by one member of the WTO to another member is extended to all WTO members is referred to as (A) Trade Diversion (B) Inter Regional Principle (C) Most Favoured Nation (D) Least Traded Nation 49. SIDBI provides financial assistance in the following forms : (i) Bills financing (ii) Project financing (iii) Re-finance assistance (iv) Resource support to institutions Which of the following sequence is correct ? (A) (i), (iii), (iv) and (ii) (B) (ii), (iv), (i) and (iii) (C) (iii), (i), (iv) and (ii) (D) (iv), (i), (iii) and (ii) Arrange the stages in anti-dumping investigation process in right sequence. (i) Initiation (ii) Preliminary screening (iii) Rejection of unsubstantiated information (iv) Provisional findings (v) Final findings and measures (vi) Permitting the exporting country to modify the practices Codes : (A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (vi), (v) (B) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii), (vi), (v) (C) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i), (vi), (v) (D) (ii), (iii), (i), (vi), (iv), (v) The collapse of which of the following systems is related to the Triffin Paradox ? (A) Gold Standard (B) Exchange rate mechanism (in 1992) (C) Bretton Woods (D) None of the above 50. 45. 47. Which of the following is/are the assumptions of the Law of One Price ? (i) Restriction on the movement of goods between countries. (ii) No transportation costs. (iii) No tariffs (A) Both (i) and (ii) (B) Only (i) (C) Both (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii) S-08-13 43. - ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 44. 45. RTGS NEFT NECS NET IDBI ? (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) : : (A) (i), (ii) (iv) (B) (i) (ii) (C) (ii), (iii) (iv) (D) (iii) (iv) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (vi), (v) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii), (vi), (v) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i), (vi), (v) (ii), (iii), (i), (vi), (iv), (v) 48. . . . . . . , ? (A) (B) - (C) (D) 49. , ? (A) (B) (1992 ) (C) (D) 50. (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii) ? (A) (B) (C) . . . ( ) (D) S-08-13 - : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) : (A) (B) (C) (D) : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 46. 47. 15 ? (i) (ii) (iii) (A) (i) (ii) (B) (i) (C) (ii) (iii) (D) (i), (ii) (iii) Paper-II Space For Rough Work Paper-II 16 S-08-13

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