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UGC Net JUN 2013 : COMMERCE PAPER III

23 pages, 150 questions, 3 questions with responses, 3 total responses,    0    0
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PAPER-III COMMERCE Signature and Name of Invigilator 1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................... (To be filled by the Candidate) (Name) ____________________________ 2. (Signature) __________________________ (Name) ____________________________ 08 S 1 3 1 Time : 2 /2 hours] Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Instructions for the Candidates 1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of questions. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal / polythene bag on the booklet. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal / without polythene bag and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the original OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are however, allowed to carry duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. S-08-13 Roll No. (In figures as per admission card) Roll No.________________________________ (In words) [Maximum Marks : 150 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75 1. 2. - 3. , - - , : (i) - / - / (ii) - / - - (iii) OMR - 4. (A), (B), (C) (D) : (C) 5. OMR OMR , 6. 7. (Rough Work) 8. OMR , , , , , 9. OMR OMR 10. / 11. ( ) 12. 1 P.T.O. COMMERCE Paper III Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory. 1. The first macro-environmental force that a business firm generally monitors is 4. Which one of the following is not included in the Consumer Rights as per the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 ? (A) Right to be protected against marketing of hazardous goods and services. (B) Right to be heard. (C) Right to a physical environment that will protect and enhance quality of life. (D) Right to seek redressal of legitimate complaints. 5. A consumer can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, on any of the following grounds except : (A) Sale of defective goods (B) Provision of deficient service (C) Charging very high price (D) Unfair trade practice 6. Financial statements provide a true and fair view if (A) It is free from any material error and bias. (B) It is prepared using the appropriate accounting policy and applicable accounting standards. (C) It is prescribed in the format prescribed by the regulator or, in the absence of a prescribed format, it is prepared in a manner that facilitates analyses of the financial position and the performance of the reporting enterprise. (D) It conforms to all of the above (A), (B) and (C). (A) Economic environment (B) Demographic environment (C) Technological environment (D) International, Political environment 2. Which of the following statements is true ? (A) The highest growth rate in India is in the Manufacturing Sector. (B) Agricultural Sector has the highest share in the GDP in India. (C) The biggest source of Central Government s revenue is Central Excise. (D) None of the above. 3. Which of the following statements is true ? (A) The Competition Commission of India is headed by a person having Judicial background. (B) The definition of the term goods as given in the Competition Act, 2002, is the same as given in the Sale of Goods Act, 1930. (C) Both (A) and (B) are true. (D) None of the above is true. Paper-III 2 S-08-13 III : (75) - (2) 1. - , ? (A) 1986, , : (A) (B) (C) (D) 6. ( ) ? (A) (B) - (C) , (D) , ? (A) (B) GDP (C) (D) 3. 5. (D) 2. (C) , 1986 , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (B) 4. ? (A) (B) 2002 , 1930, (C) (A) (B) (D) S-08-13 3 Paper-III 7. Which of the formula is used to calculate Absolute Liquid Ratio is ? 13. 14. During short-run, the optimum level of output corresponds to that level of output where (A) MC is the minimum (B) AVC is the minimum (C) AC is the minimum (D) AFC stops declining 15. Absolute Liquid Assets Quick Liabilities In which one of the following market situations the practice of price rigidity is found ? (A) Perfectly competitive market (B) Monopolistic competitive market (C) Oligopoly market (D) Discriminating monopoly market The opportunity cost is a term which describes (A) a bargain price for a factor of production. (B) production cost related at the optimum level of production. (C) average variable cost. (D) the loss of the reward in the next best use of that resource. Absolute Liquid Assets Current Liabilities (D) 8. Current Assets, Loans & Advances Current Liabilities & Provisions (C) When the demand curve is relatively highly elastic, the marginal revenue is (A) Zero (B) Unity (C) Positive (D) Negative Current Assets, Loans & Advances-Inventories Current Liabilities & Provisions-Bank Overdraft (B) According to H.A. Simon, if a firm fails to achieve its target initially, it results in (A) Search behaviour (B) Sense of helplessness (C) Appropriate revision of aspiration level. (D) Sacking of its managerial team 12. (A) 11. A company sells its product at ` 15 per unit. In a period if it produces and sells 8,000 units, it incurs a loss of ` 5 per unit. If the volume is raised to 20,000 units it earns a profit of ` 4. Variable cost per unit will be (A) ` 9 per unit (B) ` 4.5 per unit (C) ` 5 per unit (D) ` 6 per unit 9. Which of the following is a subvariance of labour efficiency variance ? (A) Idle time variance (B) Labour-mix variance (C) Labour-yield variance (D) All of the above 10. An investment centre is a responsibility centre where the manager has control over (A) Costs (B) Costs and profits (C) Costs, profits quality and product (D) Costs, profits and assets Paper-III 4 S-08-13 7. ? (A) 11. . . , , (A) (B) (C) (D) 12. , (A) (B) (C) (D) 13. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 14. , (A) MC (B) AVC (C) AC (D) AFC 15. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) , , (C) (D) (B) 8. 9. 10. ` 15 8,000 , ` 5 20,000 ` 4 (A) ` 9 (B) ` 4.5 (C) ` 5 (D) ` 6 - ? (A) (B) - (C) - (D) , : (A) (B) (C) , (D) , S-08-13 5 Paper-III 16. 17. Find chi-square following : Event Expected X 60 Y 40 Choose the correct following options : (A) 2.67 (C) 3.33 value for the 20. The steps in data processing are given below : Choose the correct sequence of steps in data processing from the following options : (i) Data Storage (ii) Data Validation (iii) Data Capture (iv) Report Generation (v) Data Manipulation (A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) (B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv), (v) (C) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv), (v) (D) (iii), (ii), (i), (v), (iv) 21. Which of the following steps are essential in the staffing process ? 1. Hiring the right kind of people. 2. Firing the non-performing employees. 3. Developing skills of the employees through training. 4. Collective bargaining. 5. Maintaining the employees by creating favourable conditions of work. Codes : (A) 1, 3 and 5 (B) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 3, 4 and 5 (D) 2, 3 and 4 22. F.W Taylor 1. Viewed man as an adjunct of man. 2. Completely neglected the psychological aspects. 3. Emphasized only a limited number of the psychological variables. 4. Under-estimated the meaning of human motivation. Select the correct answer from the following : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 3, 2 and 4 (C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 4 Observed 52 48 answer from the (B) 2.77 (D) 4.33 A time series is a set of data collected at (A) Random intervals (B) Regular intervals (C) Convenient intervals (D) All of the above 18. Given the following data calculate the regression coefficient of X on Y. Pearson s correlation coefficient = + 0.8. Regression coefficient of Y on X = 0.8 Choose the correct answer from the following : (A) 0.32 (B) 0.64 (C) 0.80 (D) 0.82 19. Which kind of test from the following options is the right test to use when the hypotheses for testing are stated as : H0 : Population mean is equal to the sample mean. H1 : Population mean is not equal to the sample mean. (A) One-tailed test (B) Two-tailed test (C) Either one tailed or two tailed test (D) None of the above Paper-III 6 S-08-13 16. - : X 60 52 Y 40 20. 48 : (A) 2.67 (C) 17. 18. (B) (D) 4.33 3.33 2.77 (B) ? 1. 2. - 3. 4. 5. : (A) 1, 3 5 (B) 1, 2 3 (C) 3, 4 5 (D) 2, 3 4 22. . . 1. 2. 3. 4. : (A) 1, 2 3 (B) 3, 2 4 (C) 1, 2, 3 4 (D) 1 4 (D) 0.82 0.80 0.64 ? 0 : 1 : (A) - (B) - (C) (D) S-08-13 (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv), (v) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv), (v) (iii), (ii), (i), (v), (iv) 21. , Y X = + 0.8. X Y = 0.8 : (C) 19. (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) 0.32 , : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) 7 Paper-III 23. The authoritarian leadership style goes with (A) Theory X (B) Theory Y (C) Theory Z (D) None of these 24. Select the four stages of group development from the following : 1. Forming 2. Storming 3. Discussing 4. Norming 5. Warning 6. Performing Codes : (A) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (B) 2, 3, 4 and 6 (C) 3, 4, 5 and 6 (D) 1, 2, 4 and 6 25. 26. 27. Paper-III Manufacturers of convenience goods typically seek ______ distribution. (A) Exclusive (B) Intensive (C) Restrictive (D) Selective 29. Which promotional tool is most cost effective when a product is in the decline stage of its product life cycle ? (A) Advertising (B) Personal selling (C) Public relations (D) Sales promotion 30. 8 The third stage in the consumerbuying decision process is (A) Evaluation of alternatives (B) Information search (C) Purchase decision (D) None of the above 28. Match the following : List I List II (a) To check the 1. Speed boss quality of work. (b) To see that 2. Inspection work is completed in time. (c) To check 3. Instruction absenteeism clerk of workers. (d) To issue 4. Shop instruction discipline regarding method of work Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 3 2 1 4 (B) 2 1 4 3 (C) 2 1 3 4 (D) 4 3 1 2 A company plans to create the largest possible total sales volume. It should use (A) Concentrated marketing (B) Differentiated marketing (C) Homogeneous marketing (D) Undifferentiated marketing Match the items of List-I with those of List-II. List I List II (a) Product (i) Information support Technology service Act 2000 (b) Interviewers (ii) Information bias Search (c) On-line (iii) Marketing advertising Research (d) Personal (iv) User s sources Manual Indicate the correct matching. (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (B) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) S-08-13 23. ? (A) X (B) Y (C) Z (D) 24. : 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. : (A) 1, 2, 3 5 (B) 2, 3, 4 6 (C) 3, 4, 5 6 (D) 1, 2, 4 6 25. 26. 27. (b) 2 1 1 3 (c) 1 4 3 1 - (A) (B) (C) (D) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 29. , - ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 28. : I II (a) 1. (b) 2. 3. (c) (d) 4. : (a) (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 4 S-08-13 , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 30. (d) 4 3 4 2 -I -II : I II (a) (i) 2000 (b) (ii) (c) - (iii) (d) (iv) : (A) (B) (C) (D) 9 (a) (iv) (iv) (i) (ii) (b) (c) (d) (iii) (ii) (i) (iii) (i) (ii) (ii) (iii) (iv) (iii) (iv) (i) Paper-III 31. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II. List I List II (a) A theory of I. Capital capital structure Asset in which the Pricing weighted average Model cost of capital and the total value of the firm remains constant as financial leverage is changed. (b) The value of the II. Traditional geared company Approach will always be greater than an ungeared company with similar business risk but only by the amount of debt associated tax savings of the geared company. (c) Capital structure III. Net that minimizes Operating the firm s cost of Income capital and Approach thereby maximizes the value of the firm. (d) Share price is IV. Modiglianiindependent of Miller the degree of Theory and financial Corporate leverage. Taxation Codes : I II III IV (A) (c) (d) (b) (a) (B) (d) (c) (a) (b) (C) (a) (b) (c) (d) (D) (b) (a) (d) (c) Paper-III 32. Which one of the following expression represents a correct matching ? (A) A decrease in the proportional claim on earnings and assets of a share of common stock due to the issuance of additional shares : Dilution. (B) Anticipated annual dividend divided by the total book value of the firm : Dividend Yield. (C) When a shareholder receives lesser number of new shares in exchange for a given number of old shares : Stock split. (D) The costs associated with issuing securities, such as underwriting, legal, listing and printing fees : Transaction Costs. 33. When the internal rate of return of a project is more than the hurdle rate, the Net Present Value would be : (A) Zero (B) Positive (C) Negative (D) Uncertain Statement I : The presence of fixed operating costs in the operating cost structure of a firm regardless of the volume denotes the presence of financial leverage. Statement II : Super leverage is the result of the multiplicative combination of the degree of operating leverage and financial leverage. Codes : (A) Both statements are true. (B) Both statements are false. (C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false. (D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true. S-08-13 34. 10 31. -I -II : I II (a) I ( ) (b) II , , (c) III (d) , IV : I II III (d) (b) (B) (d) (c) (a) (b) (C) (a) (b) (c) (d) (D) (b) (a) (d) (c) S-08-13 11 : (A) (B) (C) (D) 34. (a) / ? (A) : (B) : (C) : (D) , , , : 33. IV (A) (c) 32. I : , , II : , : (A) (B) (C) I II (D) I II Paper-III 35. 36. Which one of the following expressions has incorrect matching ? (A) A method of financing where each asset would be offset with a financing instrument of the same approximate maturity : Hedging Approach. (B) A method of financing where all long term funds are used to finance the current assets : Aggressive Approach. (C) The amount of current assets required to meet a firm s longterm minimum needs : Permanent working capital. (D) Trade credit and other payables that arise in the firm s day to day operations : Spontaneous Financing. 40. 41. 37. 43. The staffing function does not include : (A) Performance appraisal (B) Placement (C) Selection (D) Span of control Capital adequacy norm is expressed as a percentage of (A) Standard Assets (B) Risk adjusted Assets (C) Sub-standard Assets (D) Investments The managerial function of staffing is most closely related to (A) Controlling (B) Leading (C) Marketing (D) Organising 39. Which one of the following is not a correct method of calculating profitability ratio in banking sector ? (A) Burden = Man power ratio expenses ratio + other establishment expenditure ratio non interest income ratio. (B) Profit= Spread ratio ability burden ratio ratio (C) Spread = Interest earned ratio ratio + Interest paid ratio (D) Interest = Interest earned earned/volume ratio of business In comparing Maslow s and Hertzberg s Theories of Motivation, which motivators of Hertzberg are similar to the need specified by Maslow ? (A) Affiliation needs (B) Physiological needs (C) Security needs (D) Self-actualisation needs 38. Generally the following are the important items appearing on the assets side of the Balance Sheet of a Commercial Bank. (a) Cash in hand (b) Bills discounted (c) Money at call and short notice (d) Loans and advances (e) Investments Which of the following sequence is correct in the order of liquidity ? (A) (a), (b), (d), (c) and (e) (B) (a), (c), (b), (e) and (d) (C) (b), (d), (c), (a) and (e) (D) (c), (d), (b), (e) and (a) 42. The Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 is primarily applicable to workers working on (A) Monthly wage basis (B) Annual wage basis (C) Daily wage basis (D) Contractual wage basis On-the-job training does not include (A) job rotation (B) planned progression (C) sensitivity training (D) temporary promotion Paper-III 12 S-08-13 35. 36. ? (A) : (B) : (C) : (D) - : 40. - - 41. : (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) , 1976 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) ? (A) = + (B) = (C) = + (D) = 43. ? (A) (B) (C) - (D) , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) - 38. ( ) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) S-08-13 (a), (b), (d), (c), (e) (a), (c), (b), (e), (d) (b), (d), (c), (a), (e) (c), (d), (b), (e), (a) 42. 37. 39. ? (A) (B) (C) ( ) (D) 13 Paper-III 44. 45. 46. The major sources of funds for IFCI Ltd. (during the year 2011-12) are given below : (i) Reserves and Surpluses (ii) Borrowings in Rupees (iii) Share Capital (iv) Borrowings in Foreign Currency Which of the following sequence is correct ? (A) (i), (iii), (iv) and (ii) (B) (iii), (i), (ii) and (iv) (C) (ii), (i), (iii) and (iv) (D) (iv), (ii), (i) and (iii) 47. international business entry process. Arrange them in correct sequence. (i) Direct experience (ii) In-depth scrutiny (iii) Country identification (iv) Preliminary screening (v) Final selection Codes : The Bonds and Debentures issued by State Financial Corporations are guaranteed by (A) Reserve Bank of India (B) IDBI (C) Central Government (D) State Government (A) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii), (v) (B) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii), (v) (C) (iii), (iv), (ii), (v), (i) (D) (iii), (iv), (v), (ii), (i) Items given are related to international trade theories. Match the items in List-A with most suitable options in List-B. List A List B (a) Zero-sum (i) Factor game proportion theory (b) Labour(ii) Mercantalism Capital theory relationship (c) Relative (iii) Theory of efficiencies of Absolute the producing advantage countries (d) Positive(iv) Theory of sum game Comparative advantage Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) Paper-III The following are the stages in 48. Which of the following intellectual properties were Uruguay covered Round under Agreement on TRIPS ? (i) Copy rights (ii) Trade marks (iii) Industrial designs (iv) Undisclosed information, including trade secrets Codes : (A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) (C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) 14 S-08-13 44. ( 2011-12 ) : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) : IFCI LTD (A) (B) (C) (D) 45. 47. (i) (v) : (A) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii), (v) (B) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii), (v) (C) IDBI (iii), (iv), (ii), (v), (i) (D) (iii), (iv), (v), (ii), (i) -A -B A B (a) - (i) - (ii) (b) - (c) (iii) (d) - (iv) : 48. (TRIPS) ? (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) , : (A) (i) (ii) (B) (i), (ii) (iii) (C) (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) S-08-13 (iv) (D) 46. (iii) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii) (ii) ? (A) (B) (C) : (ii), (iii) (iv) (D) (i), (ii), (iii) (iv) 15 Paper-III 49. Which of the following statements is true ? (A) If the absolute Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) holds good, then the relative PPP also holds good. (B) If the relative PPP holds good, then the absolute PPP also holds good. (C) If the absolute PPP does not hold good, then the relative PPP also will not hold good. (D) If the absolute PPP holds good, then the relative PPP may or may not hold good. 53. Match the following : List I List II (Name of the credit (Ownership) rating agency) (a) CRISIL 1. IFCI (b) ICRA 2. ICICI (c) CARE 3. Duff & Phelps Corpn. (d) Duff and Phelps 4. IDBI Credit Rating of India Ltd. 50. A company is planning to enter a foreign market. Which of the following entry strategies will give it the maximum control ? (A) Direct export (B) Direct investment (C) Financing (D) Licensing Codes : 52. 2 3 4 1 4 3 (C) 1 2 4 3 4 1 3 Which of the following is responsible for investigating cases referred to it and deciding whether a proposed merger is in the public interest ? (A) Director The GDRs and ADRs can be listed on (A) Luxemburg Stock Exchange (LSE) (B) New York Stock Exchange (NYSE) (C) Over the Counter Exchange of India (OTCEI) (D) Any of the Overseas Stock Exchanges Paper-III (d) (B) 2 54. (c) (A) 1 The opportunity cost approach in Human Resources Accounting was introduced by (A) Hckimian and Jones (B) Rensis Likert (C) Eric. G. Flamholtz (D) William C. Pyle (b) (D) 2 51. (a) General of Fair Trading (DGFT). (B) Secretary of State for Trade and Industry. (C) Competition Commission of India (CCI). (D) Prime Minister Office. 16 S-08-13 49. 50. 53. : I II ( ? (A) (PPP) PPP (B) PPP , PPP (C) PPP , PPP (D) PPP , PPP ( ) ) (a) 1. IFCI (b) ICRA 2. ICICI (c) CARE 3. (d) ? (A) (B) ( ) (C) (D) CRISIL 4. IDBI : 52. (a) (d) 2 3 4 (B) 2 1 4 3 (C) 1 54. (c) (A) 1 ? (A) (B) (C) . (D) . (b) 2 4 3 (D) 2 51. 4 1 3 ? (A) . . . . ? (A) (LSE) (B) (NYSE) (C) S-08-13 (DGFT). (B) (C) (CCI) (D) (OTCEI) (D) 17 Paper-III 55. Match the following : 56. List I (a) (b) (c) (d) List II A popular 1. Sage windows Accountaccounting ing package Software providing general ledger, accounts receivables, invoicing, accounts payable, inventory and sales analysis capabilities. (A) accessibility (B) adaptability (C) measurability (D) substantiality 57. Mass media has the maximum impact at which stage of consumer adoption process. (A) Adoption 58. Simplest, yet 3. Best most powerful Books software to handle financial accounting, inventory, sales and purchase orders, invoicing and more. (B) (C) A good, entry 2. M.Y.O.B. level accounting package. (D) Trial Pricing decisions are most complex at which stage of the product life cycle ? (B) Introductory stage (C) Growth stage (D) Maturity stage 59. Industrial buyers are likely to be most responsive to ______ appeal. (A) emotional 60. (B) (C) (D) cognitive rational moral Indicate the true statement : (A) Advertisement s sales effect is easier to measure than its communication effect. (B) (b) (c) 3 2 1 (B) 1 2 4 3 (C) 2 4 1 3 (D) 2 3 4 1 A successful salesperson is one who can sell refrigerator to an Eskimo. (d) (A) 4 As a tool of promotion, public relations can be more costeffective than advertising. (C) Codes : Paper-III Evaluation Awareness (A) Decline stage A complete range 4. Tally of accounting software providing an integrated solution at the heart of one s business. (a) In order to be useful, market segments must have each of the following characteristics except : (D) All the above are true. 18 S-08-13 55. : 56. , : (A) (B) (C) (D) 57. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 2. M.Y.O.B. 58. , 3. , , , - ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 59. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 60. (A) (B) , (C) (D) I (a) (b) (c) (d) II , , , , 1. 4. , : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 4 3 2 1 (B) 1 2 4 3 (C) 2 4 1 3 (D) 2 3 4 1 S-08-13 19 Paper-III 61. Who observed in 54 of the cases studied that high morale related to high productivity in 11 of the cases high morale was associated with low productivity and in 35% of the cases there was no relationship between morale and productivity ? (A) Michael J. Jucious (B) Richard E Walton (C) Frederick Herzberg (D) None of the above 62. 66. Which of the following most appropriately describes the meaning of the term option forward ? (A) Forward contract entered into along with buying a call option. (B) Forward contract entered into for buying or selling at a future date. (C) Forward contract entered into for buying or selling over a period of time. (D) Forward contract entered into with writing a put option. 67. Dual adaptation strategy , in the context of international product decisions, means : (A) Modification of product and packaging it to meet local requirements. (B) Changing product and price to meet local requirements. (C) Modification of product and the marketing communication to suit the foreign markets. (D) None of the above. 68. Which of the following concepts, involves setting objectives and comparing performance against those objectives ? (A) Performance Appraisal (B) Merit Rating (C) Management by Objectives (D) Formulation of objectives and policies It is a mental condition or attitudes of individuals and groups which determine their willingness to cooperate. (A) Job satisfaction (B) Motivation (C) Job Advancement (D) Morale The main promoter of international trade liberalisation (A) GATT - WTO (B) NAFTA (C) CEPTA (D) CISA Who developed the goal-setting theory of motivation ? (A) Frederick Herzberg (B) Edwin Locke (C) Richard Hackman (D) None of the above 63. 65. 64. The career development cycle includes : (A) Introductory stage Growth stage Saturation stage Decline stage. (B) Primary stage Secondary stage Stage of selfactualisation. (C) Pioneering stage Growth stage Maturity stage Decline stage. (D) Exploratory stage Establishment stage Maintenance stage Stage of Decline. Paper-III 20 S-08-13 61. 65. 62. 67. : (A) (B) (C) (D) 68. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) ( ) ? (A) - (B) (C) (D) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 63. (A) (B) (C) (D) 66. 54 , 11 35% ? (A) . (B) . (C) (D) 64. : (A) (B) - (C) (D) S-08-13 (A) GATT WTO (B) NAFTA ( ) (C) CEPTA (D) CISA ( ) 21 Paper-III 69. The most common trade barrier faced by a multinational company is the (A) Embargo (C) 70. (B) 73. The book profit of a firm of Chartered Accountants, which satisfies all the conditions of Section 184 and Section 40(b), for the year (D) Tariff Sales tax Quota ended 31-3-2012, is ` 72,190. Exchange Rate System where the Central Bank intervenes to smoothen out the exchange rate fluctuations is termed as The actual remuneration paid to the partners for the year is ` 1,56,000. The amount of remuneration permissible under Sec: 40(b) is : (A) Free float (B) Clean float (C) Managed float (A) ` 1,56,000 (C) (D) Fixed rate system 71. Mr. X, after about 20 years stay in India, returns to America on January 29, 2009. He came to India in June 2011. His residential status for the Assessment year 2012-13 will be 74. ` 64,971 (B) ` 72,190 (D) ` 1,50,000 Winman , software can be used for (A) Preparation of Balance Sheet (B) Computation of Income Tax (C) (A) Ordinarily Resident Filing of e-Returns (D) All of the above (B) Not Ordinarily Resident (C) Non-Resident 75. (D) Resident or Non-Resident 72. Consider the following : Mr. X retired from a Pvt. Ltd. Company on 31-3-2011. The company paid ` 80,000 in lieu of commutation of 25 percent of pension on 31-01-2012, but does not pay any gratuity to its employees. The amount taxable as commuted pension for the Assessment Year 2012-13 is : (A) ` 80,000 (C) Paper-III ` 1,60,000 (B) Which of the following deductions under Chapter VI A of Income Tax Act, 1961, cannot be claimed by a partnership firm ? (i) Sec. 80-G (iii) Sec. 80-D (ii) Sec. 80-C (iv) Sec. 80-IB Codes : (A) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (B) (C) ` 3,20,000 (i) and (iii) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) (ii) and (iii) (D) Nil 22 S-08-13 69. - , (A) (B) ( ) (C) (D) 70. , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 71. 72. 73. (A) ` 1,56,000 (C) 74. X 20 , 29, 2009 2011 2012-13 (A) (B) (C) (D) S-08-13 ` 64,971 (B) ? (B) (C) - (D) 75. ` 72,190 (D) ` 1,50,000 (A) X 31-3-2011 - 25 ` 80,000 31-01-2012 2012-13 : (A) ` 80,000 (C) ` 1,60,000 : 184 40(b) , 31-3-2012 ` 72,190 ` 1,56,000 : 40(b) : , 1961 VI A ? (i) 80-G (ii) 80-C (iii) 80-D (iv) 80-IB : (A) (ii), (iii) (iv) (B) (C) (B) ` 3,20,000 (D) (i) (iii) (i), (ii) (iii) (D) (ii) (iii) 23 Paper-III Space For Rough Work Paper-III 24 S-08-13

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