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UGC NET DEC 2004 :COMMERCE PAPER II

16 pages, 100 questions, 47 questions with responses, 58 total responses,    0    0
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Signature and Name of Invigilator Answer Sheet No. : ...................................................... (To be filled by the Candidate) 1. (Signature) Roll No. (Name) (In figures as per admission card) Roll No. 2. (Signature) (Name) Test Booklet No. D 0 8 0 4 PAPER II COMMERCE Time : 1 hours] Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 2. 3. 4. U 1. U DU U S U S U U Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page and also on the Answer Sheet given inside this booklet. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the question booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) After this verification is over, the Serial No. of the booklet should be entered in the Answer-sheets and the Serial No. of Answer Sheet should be entered on this Booklet. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the oval as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : A B C U U U U 2. - 3. U U U, - S U U U - S U (i) - S U U U U S U U- U S S U U (ii) U DU U U U - S DU U U U U U U S DU / U U U U U S S U U U U U S U U - S U U - S U UQ (iii) - S R U- U U U U U- R - S U U 4. U U (A), (B), (C) (D) U U U U U A B C D (C) U D where (C) is the correct response. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the Answer Sheet given inside the Paper I booklet only . If you mark at any place other than in the ovals in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the test booklet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the test question booklet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is NO negative marking. 5. U U I U U- U 5. D 0804 [Maximum Marks : 100 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50 Instructions for the Candidates 1. (In words) U U U S U U U , U 6. U U 7. (Rough Work) S DU U U 8. U- S U , U U U U 9. U # U U- S U U U U U # U U U 10. / U Z U S U 11. U ( U U) U U 12. 1 U U P.T.O. COMMERCE PAPER II Note : This paper contains fifty (50) multiple-choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all of them. 1. The annual GDP growth rate which was merely 3.6 percent during the first plan period has reached during 2002 - 03 to : (A) 7.5 percent (B) 8.0 percent (C) 6.0 percent (D) 9.5 percent 2. Liberalisation means : (A) Reducing the number of reserved industries from 17 to 8 (B) Liberating the economy, trade and industry from unwanted restrictions (C) Opening up of the economy to the world market by attaining international competitiveness (D) Free determination of interest rates 3. Match the following : (a) The Indian Contract Act (b) The Indian Partnership Act (c) The Sale of Goods Act (d) The Indian Factories Act (a) (b) (A) 1 2 (B) 4 3 (C) 2 1 (D) 3 2 (1) (2) (3) (4) (c) 3 2 3 4 1948 1930 1932 1872 (d) 4 1 4 1 4. In which year has the Government of India introduced Export and Import Policy (EXIM policy) for the first time ? (A) 1977 (B) 1985 (C) 1988 (D) 1990 5. The popular route of privatisation of public enterprises in India has been : (A) Disinvestment (B) Initial public offer (C) Outright sale (D) Sale to strategic partner 6. If goodwill at its full value is raised in the books of a partnership firm at the time of retirement of a partner is to be written off, then the capital accounts of the remaining partners are debited in : (A) Gaining ratio (B) Old profit and loss sharing ratio (C) New profit and loss sharing ratio (D) Capital ratio 7. Capital deficiency of an insolvent partner at the time of dissolutions is to be distributed in : (A) The ratio of capitals after adjusting accumulated profits and losses but before adjusting realisation gains or losses (B) The ratio of capitals after adjusting realisation gains or losses (C) The ratio of fluctuating capitals before making any adjustments (D) The profit sharing ratio unless there is an agreement to the contrary D 0804 2 - II U U (50) - U (2) U 1. U U U U h U U 3.6 U U U 2002-2003 (A) 7.5 (B) 8.0 (C) 6.0 (D) 9.5 2. U U (A) U l 17 U U 8 U (B) S U l Q U (C) S U c U U $ (D) U S U 3. U U (a) U U U (b) S R (c) U U (d) (A) (B) (C) (D) 4. (a) 1 4 2 3 (b) 2 3 1 2 (c) 3 2 3 4 (1) (2) (3) (4) (d) 4 1 4 1 1948 1930 1932 1872 U U U U U - ? (A) 1977 (B) 1985 (C) 1988 (D) 1990 5. U U U R U U U (A) ( ) (B) U U S (C) ( U ) R (D) U U R 6. U U U S U U U U U U U U U U (A) U # (B) U U (C) U (D) 7. U U U U (A) U U U U U U U U (B) U U U U (C) U (D) U U D 0804 3 P.T.O. 8. Amount spent on advertisement campaign the benefit of which is likely to last for 3 to 4 years is : (A) (B) Revenue expenditure (C) 9. Capital expenditure Deferred revenue expenditure (D) Deferred capital expenditure Cash flows arising from interest paid in the case of a financial enterprise is a cash flow from : (A) (B) Financing activities (C) 10. Operating activities Both (A) and (B) (D) Investing activities Share Premium money can be used for : (A) 11. Payment of Dividend (B) Writing off Goodwill (C) Issue of fully paid bonus shares (D) None of the above Statements : (I) (II) The substitution effect is always positive (A) Both correct (B) Both incorrect (C) 12. The Law of Demand always operates in the case of superior goods. I correct, II wrong (D) I wrong, II correct Which of the following firms witnesses kinked demand curve ? (A) (B) Oligopoly firm (C) 13. Monopoly firm Perfectly competitive firm (D) Duopoly firm Statements : (I) The objective of skimming price policy is to penetrate the market with the lowest possible price (A) Both correct (B) Both wrong (C) 14. Penetration price covers all costs (II) I correct, II wrong (D) I wrong, II correct Cobb - Douglas production - function in its initial form has the following properties : (a) (b) Constant returns to scale (c) Elasticity of substitution as unity (d) Elasticity of substitution as constant and unity (A) 15. Power function a, b, d (B) a, c, d (C) a, b, c, d (D) a, b, c Which one of the following is not a common property of an indifference curve ? (A) (B) Convex to the origin (C) 16. Downward sloping Two indifference curves can intersect each other (D) None of the above If a sample is taken at random from a population, it is likely to possess almost the same characteristics as that of the population. Which one of the following laws states the above theme ? (A) Law of Inertia of Large numbers (C) Law of persistance of Small Numbers (D) D 0804 (B) 4 Law of Statistical Regularity Law of Optimisation 8. U 3-4 , U (A) (B) (C) U U (D) U U 9. S (A) U (B) (C) ( ) ( ) (D) 10. (A) U (C) U 11. (D) U U U Q I II DU S U S (A) (C) 12. (B) I (B) II (D) U U I U U U U U U (A) U (B) U U (C) 13. II (D) m U I II U M U U g U U U (A) (C) 14. U U U I (D) II U U I U II S M - U U U U U (a) U (c) (A) 15. (B) a, b, d (b) U U S U (B) S U (d) S U S UU U U a, c, d (C) a, b, c, d a, b, c U R ? (A) U (B) (C) 16. (D) R U U U (D) U Q U U U ( ) U U U (A) U U (B) (C) U S (D) U D 0804 5 P.T.O. 17. Which one of the following factors causes non - sampling errors ? (A) (B) Inadequate sampling frame (C) 18. Inappropriate statistical units Faulty process of selection (D) All of the above Statements : (I) (II) Sampling errors are present both in a census as well as a sample survey (A) Both correct (B) Both wrong (C) 19. Non - sampling errors can occur in any survey, whether it be a complete enumeration or sampling I correct, II wrong (D) I wrong, II correct Karl Pearson s coefficient of correlation between X and Y variables measures : (A) 20. Covariance between the two (B) Inverse of the products of their standard deviations (C) Product of A and B (D) None of the above E-Business means : (A) (B) Ordering for goods through telephones (C) Buying and selling of goods and services through electronic media (D) 21. Doing business through electronic media None of the above Statements : (I) (II) Theory Y represents the optimistic view about the human nature (A) Both correct (B) Both incorrect (C) 22. Hygeine factors are the intrinsic part of job carried out by an individual I correct, II incorrect (D) I incorrect, II correct The term organisation is usually understood in terms of : (A) (B) Process (C) 23. Structure Structure as well as process (D) Function Match the items in List I with the items in List II. List I List II (a) Unity of command (1) F.W. Taylor (b) Bureaucratic Theory of Management (2) Max Weber (c) Scientific Management (3) Henry Fayol (a) (A) (b) (c) 1 2 3 (B) 2 1 3 (C) 3 2 1 (D) 2 3 1 D 0804 6 17. U U - U U ? (A) (B) # U (C) 18. Q Q R (D) U Q I U U U II U U U U U (A) (C) 19. X Y I (B) (D) II U U I U II U U (A) (B) U U U U (C) 20. U U U Q ( ) ( ) U (D) U Q - U (A) (B) U U S U (C) U S R R U (D) 21. U U U U Q I II U U Q m U U S h Y S CU (A) (C) 22. I (B) (D) II U U I U U U ( ) (B) R (C) U U R (D) U I U II U U II U I (a) II U U U (A) 23. (b) (c) (A) (B) (C) (D) D 0804 U U U h (a) 1 2 3 2 (b) 2 1 2 3 (1) (2) (3) (c) 3 3 1 1 7 F.W. Taylor ( .U U U. U U U) Max Weber ( U U) Henry Fayol ( U ) P.T.O. 24. Match the items in List I with the items in List II. List I List II (a) Autocratic Leader (1) Makes and announces decisions (b) Participative Leader (2) Seeks ideas before making decisions (c) Democratic Leader (3) Decides with group on one and one basis (a) (c) (A) 1 2 3 (B) 1 3 2 (C) 3 2 1 (D) 25. (b) 2 3 1 In vertical communication, the communication flows : (A) (B) Downward only (C) 26. Upward only Upward as well as downwards (D) None of the above The most important component of promotion mix to be used for industrial goods is : (A) (B) Advertisement (C) 27. Personal selling Sales promotion (D) Publicity The most appropriate concept to be adopted for physical distribution of goods is : (A) (B) Total cost concept (C) 28. Marketing concept Selling concept (D) System concept The process of dividing a potential market into distinct sub sets of consumers and selecting one or more segments as a target to be reached with a distinct marketing mix is : (A) 29. Marketing (B) Positioning (C) Targeting Obey the line (B) Serve the line (C) Inform the line (D) Advise the line According to the marketing concept, the different functional areas of the firm should blend their efforts in order to maximise : (A) 31. None of the above In the line and staff form, the function of the marketing manager is to : (A) 30. (D) Profit (B) Sales (C) Market share (D) Customer satisfaction Statements : (I) The greater is the likely level of EBIT than the financial indifference point, the stronger is the case for issuing levered financial plans to maximize the EPS. (II) The financial break - even point is found at that level of EBIT where the EPS is zero for a particular financial plan. (A) Both correct (B) Both incorrect (C) I correct, II incorrect (D) I incorrect, II correct D 0804 8 24. U I U II U U I (a) U (b) (c) (A) (B) (C) 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. (b) 2 3 2 (D) 25. (a) 1 1 3 2 3 (1) (2) (3) (c) 3 2 1 U II U U U U U U U U U U U U 1 U U (A) U (C) (B) (D) U U Q l S (A) UQ R (B) (C) R (D) U U (publicity) S U U U Q U U (A) U (B) U U U (C) R U (D) U U U CU U U # U CU R (A) (B) S U (C) U U (D) U Q U U U S (A) U U (B) U U (C) U U (D) U U U U U U (A) U (B) R (C) U (D) Q CU I S U EBIT EPS U U U II CU EBIT S U U EPS U S U (A) (C) D 0804 I (B) II U U (D) 9 I U II P.T.O. 32. Which of the following investment appraisal methods is not based on DCF approach ? (A) (B) IRR (C) 33. NPV Pay Back Period (D) None of the above The discount rate which equates the present value of the cash inflows that are incremental to the taking of the financing opportunity with the present value of its incremental cash out flows defines : (A) (B) Explicit cost of capital (C) 34. Implicit cost of capital Incremental cost of capital (D) None of the above The estimated requirement of total funds for working capital should be met from long-run sources is known as : (A) (B) Aggressive approach (C) 35. Matching approach Conservative approach (D) None of the above Who has given the following formula for determining dividend policy : P5 D1 r (E2D) Ke K (A) (B) James E. Walter (C) 36. Modigliani Miller Myron Gordon (D) David Durand Which of the following techniques of performance appraisal is least succeptible to personal bias ? (A) (B) Forced - choice method (C) 37. 360 Degree Appraisal system Ranking method (D) Check - list In Job - evaluation, the key jobs are designated as ones : (A) (B) Which are most important for the servival of the organisation (C) Which are most secure (D) 38. Which are more in number in the organisation Which represent different levels of each compensable factors Statements : (I) Employee development is more future oriented and more concerned with education than employee training. (II) Apprenticeship programme is one of the widely used off - the job training method. (A) Both correct (B) Both incorrect (C) I correct, II incorrect (D) I incorrect, II correct D 0804 10 32. (A) NPV h (C) 33. (DCF) U U h U U (Pay Back Period) U U (B) IRR U U U (D) U Q U U U h U U s U (A) (B) S CU U (C) 34. U h U (D) U Q U U U (A) (B) R U (C) 35. U M U U (D) U Q U U ? P5 D1 r (E2D) Ke K (A) (B) U U U (C) 36. U - U U U U (D) U U U U c U h Q ? (A) (C) 37. 360 R h (B) U h (D) U U U US U U U (A) (B) U S U (C) U (D) 38. U U S U U U I U c U U U II U R U (off (A) (C) D 0804 I - the job) (B) II U U (D) h 11 I U II P.T.O. 39. Match the items in List I with the items in List II. List I List II (a) Brain storming (1) A free wheeling group discussion (b) Business game (2) A development activity in which one s action is guided by others (c) Role playing (3) A technique in which one assumes different identities (a) (c) (A) 1 2 3 (B) 2 1 3 (C) 1 3 2 (D) 40. (b) 2 3 1 Statements : (I) (II) Under piece-rate plan, employees are paid at a stipulated rate per hour of work done by the employee (A) Both correct (B) Both wrong (C) 41. Fringe benefits, now-a-days are a significant component of compensation. I correct, II wrong (D) I wrong, II correct Which one of the following is the apex institution in financial sector of India ? (A) 42. IDBI (B) NABARD NHB (D) RBI Chalapathi Rao Committee was meant for restructuring of : (A) State financial corporations in India (B) Commercial banks in India (C) Co-operative banks in India (D) 43. (C) Regional Rural Banks in India Match the items in List I with the items in List II. List I (a) List II Khusro Committee (1) To look into customer services in banks in India (b) Goporia Committee (2) To review the agriculture credit situation in India (c) Ghosh Committee (3) To examine the adequacy of institutional credit to SSI and other related aspects (d) Nayak Committee (4) To enquire into the various aspects of frauds and malpractices in the banks (a) (A) (b) (c) (d) 2 4 1 3 (B) 3 1 4 2 (C) 2 1 4 3 (D) 4 2 1 3 D 0804 12 39. U I II (1) (b) S c U U (c) U (3) (a) 40. (2) (a) 1 2 1 2 (A) (B) (C) (D) U - U U U Q U (b) 2 1 3 3 (c) 3 3 2 1 I II U U U U m U U U U U (A) (C) 41. I (B) I U II U U U S S ? (A) . U . . . (C) 42. (D) II U U (IDBI) (B) . . . (NHB) U (NABARD) (D) U U. . . (RBI) U U U U U U (A) (B) U U (C) 43. U U U U (D) U U U I (c) U U (d) II (a) (b) (A) (B) (C) (D) D 0804 (a) 2 3 2 4 U U S U U U l S # g U U U U U (1) (2) (3) (4) (b) 4 1 1 2 (c) 1 4 4 1 (d) 3 2 3 3 13 P.T.O. 44. State Bank of India is a : (A) (B) Private Sector Bank (C) 45. Public Sector Bank Joint Sector Bank (D) Non - Nationalised Bank On which of the following banks, the Reserve Bank of India depends largely for the success of its monetary policy : (A) (B) Regional Rural Banks (C) 46. Co-operative Banks Commercial Banks (D) Development Banks Interest payments on loans borrowed abroad are recorded in : (A) (B) Current Account (C) 47. Capital Account Errors and omission section (D) Official Reserve Account The main objective of International Monetary Fund (IMF) was to : (A) (B) Help economically backward countries (C) 48. Promote international trade Maintain stable exchange rates (D) Promote international liquidity Which one of the following theories says that to export was good and to be encouraged but to import was bad and to be discouraged . (A) (B) The Theory of Absolute Advantage (C) 49. Comparative Cost Theory Factor Edowment Theory (D) Mercantilist Theory NAFTA is an example of : (A) (B) Customs Union (C) 50. Common Market Economic Community (D) Free Trade Area Statements : (I) No gain from trade is shared between countries in accordance with their relative strength of demand. (II) The terms of trade are against the primary producer unless it has a monopoly or the product has an inelastic demand abroad. (A) Both correct (B) Both incorrect (C) I correct, II incorrect (D) I incorrect, II correct -oOo- D 0804 14 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. S U U U U U U (A) (C) Q (D) U c U U U U U U U U (A) U (B) (C) U (D) # U U (A) (B) U U (C) U (D) U U c U (IMF) g (A) U c U U (C) S U U U (B) (D) M U U U U U c U U U U h U U U , U U U U U (A) U U h (B) U U h (C) h (D) h U U NAFTA (A) (C) 50. (B) (B) (D) U S U I II U # U Q U U U Z L h U S (A) (C) I (B) II U U (D) I U II -oOo- D 0804 15 P.T.O. Space For Rough Work D 0804 16

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Additional Info : Ugc Net December 2004 Question Paper - Commerce Paper II
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