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ICSE Board Exam 2001 : English Paper 1 (English Language)

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Subhajit Rajak
Sacred Heart School, Adra, Purulia

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English: General Instructions 1. Attempt all four question. 2. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets . 3. You are advised to spend not more than 35 minutes in answering Question 1 and 20 minutes in answering Question 2. Attempt all four questions. Question 1 (Do not spend more than 35 minutes on this question.) Write a composition (350-400 words) on any one of the following: [25] (a) Describe a weekly market scene in your area. State why you like or do not like the scene. (b) Democracy is the best form of government. Give your views either for or against this statement. (c) Imagine that your sister is going to get married. You have to shoulder the responsibilities for the wedding reception. How would you handle the situation? (d) There are three kinds of people in this world-the Wills, the Won ts and the Can ts. The first accomplish everything, the second oppose everything, and the third fail in everything. By giving reasons or referring to some incidents, state in which category you fall. (e) Study the picture given below. Write a story, or a description or an account of what the picture suggests to you. There has to be a clear connection between the picture and the composition. Question 2 (Do not spend more than 20 minutes on this question.) Select one of the following: [10] (a) You have just returned from a holiday at a hill station. Write a letter to a friend mentioning what you found most exciting about the place and give two reasons to explain why you consider it an ideal place for a vacation. (b) Write a letter to the Chief Minister of your State drawing his attention to the urgent need for a government hospital in your district. Question 3 Read the following passage carefully and then answer the questions (a), (b) and (c) that follow. [5] Crewman Fredrick Persson was on deck, helping, to bring the Swedish cargo ship 'Carman' into Bristol docks, when a rope coiled round his right hand suddenly jerked tight, all but severing his four fingers. He was rushed to the special reconstructive-surgery unit at a local hospital, where doctors decided two of his fingers were too badly mangled to be saved. In a delicate eight-hour operation using the most sophisticated microsurgery techniques, plastic surgeon Donald Sammut succeeded in re-attaching the others. "I am happy to have even two fingers left," the young Swede said gratefully as he came out of the surgery. His relief was short-lived. Within 48 hours the fingers started to go black. "A blockage of blood was building up," explains Sammut. Modern surgery could do no more, so Sammut resorted to one of the medicine s oldest aids: the leech. Over the next two days, he fastened a succession of the black slippery creatures to Persson's fingers. They sucked out surplus blood, freeing veins to recomiect naturally so that circulation was restored. A fortnight later, in November 1993, Persson flew home. Leeches come in around 650 species, from 1.5 centimetre long slivers to specimens that reach a jumbo 45 centimetres when fully extended, and are found in many parts of the world. These annelids - not all bloodsucking - breathe through the skin, have two hearts and go for months between meals. Some have suckers at each end of the body. They are making an astonishing comeback in medicine. In recent years Hirudo medicinalis, the leech used for medical purposes, has performed its quiet miracles for thousands of surgical patients and accident victims around the world. When the leech bites into the flesh with its 300 sharp teeth, leaving an inverted Y-shaped mark, it injects a powerful anesthetic; the patient feels no pain. As it starts sucking, the leech secretes a coctail of substances that act as an anticoagulant, to ensure the blood's purity and keeps it flowing. Even though the leech may suck for only 30 minutes, "bleeding" may continue for several hours or so, clearing the most challenging blockage. Ear reconnections are notoriously difficult because the ear's blood vessels are so small, measuring no more than half a millimeter in diameter. When five year old Guy Condelli had his right ear bitten off by a dog, surgeons re-attached it in a 12-hour operation. But three days later it turned blue, then purple. The surgeon leading the medical team, Joseph Upton, who had used leeches to help heal wounds of war victims in Vietnam, decided to try them in Guy s case. Over six days, 12 were attached to Guys ear one by one until they dropped off, swollen and sated. By the last day of his treatment blood was circulating throughout his ear, and the following day its colour was back to normal. Surgeon Peter Mahaffey helped pioneer the modern use of leeches in Britain against opposition from colleagues reluctant to take a 'backward' step - when stitching back a finger in 1979. Now he always keeps a jar of them in his plastic surgery unit. Mahaffey's leeches along with those used for Fredrick Persson's fingers and Guy Condelli's ear, come from Britain's only leech-breeding farm founded and run by Dr. Roy Sawyer in South Wales. Sawyer first encountered leeches as a boy in the Swamplands of South Carolina, USA. "Often when swimming, I'd find leeches on me, I considered them as natural, if unwelcome, as mosquitoes." At school, he became fascinated by the leech's role in medicine. "Historically, leeches were employed as a mild form of blood-letting for the early stages of inflammatory diseases," he says. "For centuries bleeding was almost the only surgical treatment, apart from amputations. Question 3 (a) Five words from the passage are given below. Give a word or phrase that can replace them in the passage. i. ii. mangled succession iii. iv. v. secretes notoriously fascinated. (b) Answer the following questions in your own words: i. ii. iii. iv. v. How was Fredrick Persson cured when his fingers turned blue? [2] State why, after a leech-bite, bleeding continues for several hours. [2] How were the leeches used for Guy Condelli's ear? [2] What happens when leeches bite? [2] Quote the sentence which shows what leeches were used for by medical experts. [2] (c) In not more than 60 words of your own state Sawyer's connection with leeches. [10] Question 4 (a) Rewrite the following sentences correctly according to the instructions given after each. Make other changes that may be necessary, but do not change the meaning of each sentence. [5] i. ii. iii. iv. v. Suresh suddenly thought of a splendid idea. (End: ......... to Suresh.) Raunak missed the bus because he was late. (Use: .......... . catch.) Sheena returned one week ago. (Begin: It has .............) "I am sorry for insulting you," said Lakshmi to Madhu. (Begin: Lakshmi apologized ......... ) He could not complete the race as he had injured his foot. (Use: prevented.) (b) Fill in the blanks with suitable words. [5] i. ii. iii. iv. v. The car battery has run _______; it needs recharging. How can you put _______ with his unpleasant manners? We had agreed to meet at the cinema at 7.30, but he never turned _______. You must reach the place _______ sunset. Cholera has broken _______ in our village. (c) Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable form of the word given in brackets: [5] 1. It _______ (rain) heavily all night in Delhi. 2. Children are not _______ (permit) to attend the function. 3. Shanaque said that he _______ (will) give an early reply. 4. Sophia will be _______ (punish) if she does not do her work 5. He is poor at _______ (memory) lengthy poems. (d) Join the following sentences to make one complete sentence without using and or but. [5] i. ii. iii. iv. v. Rahil is a clever boy. The other boys are not so clever. It rained heavily. We could not have the tournament. You must study diligently. You will miss your grade otherwise. The air-hostess was injured. She helped the victims. The supervisor was out of the hall. The students made a lot of noise. : SECTION - A Attempt all questions from this Section. Question 1 Study the extract of the Survey of India Map Sheet No. 45 D/ 7 and answer the following questions: (a) Give the six-figure grid reference of: i. ii. A 225 A lined well near Ganguwada. [2] (b) Name the most important perennial source of irrigation shown on the map extract. [1] (c) (i) What does 6r in the grid square 8495 means? (ii) What do you mean by 20r in the grid square 8994? [2] (d) Give two points in evidence to show that the region in the map extract has seasonal rainfall. [1] (e) (i) What does the blue line in the Varka N indicate? (ii) What is the general direction of the Varka N? [1] (f) (i) What is the meaning of 1 : 50,000 printed below the map extract? (ii) Calculate the distance in km along the cart track between Jegal in the grid square 8590 and Odhava in the grid square 8892. [2] (g) Which part of the map is more developed in agricultural occupation? Give a reason for your answer. [2] (h) Give the four figure grid reference of confluence of Sipu river and Varka N. [1] i. ii. Name two types of vegetation in the given map extract. [2] What is the pattern of drainage in the grid square 8599? [1] (k) (i) How many types of tracks are shown in the map extract? Name them. (ii) What is the common mode of transportation in the southern part of this map? [2] (l) What is the general pattern of settlement? Why? [2] SECTION - B Answer any two question from this Section. Question 2 On the outline map of Asia, provided: (a) Mark with a bold line and name the Urals. [1] (b) Label the river Mekong. [1] (c) Shade and name the Plateau of Mangolia. [1] (d) Shade and name the Sea of Japan. [1] (e) Shade and Name the Deccan Plateau. [1] (f) Mark and name the Equator. [1] (g) Label the river Yenisey. [1] (h) Mark with a bold line and name the Caucasus. [1] (i) Shade and name Bhutan. [1] (j) Mark with a thick line and name the Yablonoi mountains. [1] (k) Mark with an arrow and name Thailand. [1] (1) Shade and name Northern Lowlands. [1] Question 3 On the outline map of the Indian Sub-continent, provided: (a) Mark with a bold line the mountain range 'Satpura.' [1] (b) Label the river Mahanadi. [1] (c) Shade and name the Rann of Kutchh. [1] (d) Mark and name the River Jhelum. [1] (e) Mark with a dot and name the city of Lahore in the appropriate place. [1] (f) Print 'TRF' in one area that has Tropical Rain Forests. [1] (g) Mark with a dot and name Dacca. [1] (h) Print 'COTTON over one area, where it is cultivated South of the Tropic of Cancer in India. [1] (i) Print I.O. over one area, where iron ore is mined in India. [1] (j) Mark with a dot and name Allahabad. [1] (k) Shade and write 'DP' over one area of Dense Population in North of the Tropic of Cancer. [1] (l) Mark with a dot and name the biggest city on the West Coast. [1] Question 4 (a) Why are there great variations in the climate of the Indian sub-continent? [2] (b) Name any two local winds which blow in India and write briefly about each. [2] (c) (i) Under what rainfall conditions are the Tropical Rain forests found? (ii) What are the two main characteristics of the trees found in Tropical Evergreen Forests? [2] (d) Which regions of India have Desert Vegetation? How are they adapted to climate? [1] (e) Explain the origin of the black soil. Name two States in India, which have black soil. [2] SECTION - C Attempt any three questions from this Section. Question 5 (a) i. ii. Name one area in India where jute is cultivated widely. [1] Mention, why there is a concentration of this crop in the area mentioned by you? [1] (b) i. ii. Mention a leading beverage crop of India. [1] What are its requirement in terms of soil and rainfall? [1] (c) i. ii. Which State is the largest producer of sugarcane in India? [1] Mention the climatic conditions needed for the cultivation of this crop. [1] (d) Name four important medicinal plants grown in India. [2] (e) What are the two methods of cultivation of rice? Which one is known for its better yields? [2] (f`) Explain briefly what is meant by the following terms: (i) Topping, (ii) Retting. [2] Question 6 (a) With reference to Tata Iron and Steel Company, answer the following: i. ii. When and where was it set-up? [1] From where does it get its supply of Iron-Ore, Coal, Limestone and Manganese? [4] (b) Name the four centres of iron and steel in the public sector which are located in a single geographical region. With whose collaboration was each one of them set-up? [2] (c) Why has Mumbai a large number of cotton textile units? [2] (d) Give two reasons to show why the sugar industry has flourished in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. [2] (e) Give two reasons for the following: The silk Handloom industry is important in Mysore. [1] Question 7 (a) With reference to Jute Industry, answer the following: i. ii. iii. Name two centres of this industry in West Bengal. [1] Name two major jute products. [1] Mention two problems faced by this industry. [2] (b) Name two industrial units engaged in the production of pharmaceuticals. [2] (c) Why is fertilizer industry important for India? [2] (d) i. ii. Give two reasons to explain why cottage industries are important for India's economy. [2] Name the cottage industries associated with Ludhiana and Hyderabad. [2] Question 8 (a) Name two districts of Rajasthan irrigated by the Indira Gandhi Canal. From which river its water is drawn? [2] (b) i. ii. In which part of the country, wells are the most important means of irrigations? [1] What are the disadvantages of well irrigation? [2] (c) Name the four important dams in the Damodar Valley Project. [1] (d) Where is the Rajasthan Nuclear Power Station situated? [1] (e) What are the two main advantages of Bio-Gas? [2] (f) Name two atomic minerals. [2] Question 9 (a) State one advantage and one disadvantage of large dams. [2] (b) State two ways in which canal irrigation systems can be improved in India. [2] (c) Name two important Hydel power projects in India. [2] (d) What is the D.V.C.? Name two of its special objectives. [2] (e) Why have the Western Ghats great potential for hydro-electric power generation? [2] (f) On which river is the Rihand Project located? Name an industry located near it. [2] : General Instructions 1. Attempt all questions from Part I (Compulsory). A total of five questions are to be attempted from Part II, one from Section A, one from Section B, one from Section C, and two other questions from any of the Section A, B, and C. 2. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets . PART I (30 Marks) Attempt all questions from this Part. Civics Question 1 (a) Name the body that framed the Constitution of India. [1] (b) Since the Directive Principles are non-justiciable, why were they incorporated into the constitution of India? [1] (c) Mention two Fundamental Rights to show that India is a Secular State. [1] (d) The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution in 1976, inserted certain Fundamental Duties which must be carried out by every citizen of India. State any two such duties. [2] (e) Name the authority that recognizes and allots symbols to the political parties and individual candidates for election purposes. [1] (f) What is meant by the term 'Local Self-Government'? [2] (g) Mention any two defects in the working of the Gram Panchayat system in India. [2] Modern Indian History Question 2 (a) Name the policy used by Lord Dalhousie for the extension of British territories in India. [1] (b) Why was the War of 1857 hailed as the first war of National Independence? [1] (c) Name the first President of the Indian National Congress. [1] (d) Mention any two achievements of the Moderates. [2] (e) Mention one reason for the rise of Militant Nationalism in India. [1] United Nation and the Regional Organization Question 3 (a) When did the United Nations officially come into existence? [1] (b) Give the expanded form of WHO and UNDP. [2] (c) Mention two ways by which the Security Council maintains International Peace. [2] (d) What did the declaration of Human Rights affirm? [1] (e) What is meant by the term 'Cold War'? [1] (f) Where and in which years was the first summit of NAM held? [1] (g) Name any two founder members of the European Economic Community. [1] (h) Where is the Central Secretariat of the ASEAN located? [1] PART II (50 Marks) A total of five questions are to be attempted from this Part. Section - A Civics Question 4 The Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy are both equally important. In this context, answer the following: (a) State any four differences between the Directive Principles and the Fundamental Rights. [4] (b) Explain the importance of the right against exploitation. [4] (c) Under what circumstances can the right to move courts for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights be suspended? [2] Question 5 Political Parties play a major role in the working of a Democracy. With reference to this, answer the following: (a) Mention three functions of the Election Commission of India. [6] (b) Explain, how political parties are differentiated as National or Regional parties? [4] Question 6 (a) The composition of the Zila Parishad. [5] (b) It's important functions. [5] Section - B Modern Indian History Question 7 The First War of Independence of 1857, was the culmination of people's dissatisfaction with the British rule. In this context, enumerate the following causes: (a) The Economic Causes. [5] (b) The Military Causes. [5] Question 8 With reference to the role of the Moderates in arousing National Awakening in India, answer the following questions: (a) Name the Moderate leaders. Why were they called so? [5] (b) Who was known as "India's unofficial ambassador in England"? What were his views on the cause of poverty in India?Mention his achievements in strengthening Indian Nationalism. [5] Question 9 The partition of Bengal in 1905 was intended to check the rising tide of Indian Nationalism and to break the Hindu-Muslitn unity in Bengal. In this context state the following: (a) Reaction of the Nationalists to the Partition of Bengal. [6] (b) Reaction of the British against the agitators. [4] Question 10 With reference to the Lucknow Pact of 1916, answer the following questions: (a) What were the terms of the Lucknow pact? [5] (b) Why was this pact important? [5] Question 11 Trace the programme and progress of the Civil Disobedience Movement under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi with reference to the following: (a) The Dandi March of 1930. [4] (b) Gandhi-Irwin Pact of 1931. [4] (c) The Second Round Table Conference of 1931. [2] Question 12 'The Cabinet Mission Plan made earnest efforts to resolve the constitutional deadlock'. In this context, answer the following: (a) What were the main proposals under the Cabinet Mission Plan? [6] (b) Why did the Cabinet Mission Plan fail? [4] Section - C The United Nations and the Regional Organizations Question 13 The opening words of the UNESCO constitution states that 'Since war begins in the minds of men, it is in the minds of men, defences of peace must be constructed.' With reference to this, answer the following questions: (a) What were the objectives of the setting-up of UNESCO? [3] (b) State the functions of the UNESCO in the field of Education and Scientific activities. [7] Question 14 With the liberation of nations from colonial rule, the idea of non-alignment gained large scale acceptance. In this context, answer the following: (a) What is the meaning of the non-aligned movement? [2] (b) Mention the founders of NAM. [2] (c) Explain briefly the objectives of NAM. [6] Question 15 With reference to the South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation, state: (a) Six of its major objectives. [6] (b) Four of its Major achievements. [4] : General Instructions 1. Section I is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section II. 2. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brakets. SECTION I (40 Marks) Attempt all questions from this Section Question 1 (a) (i) A machine raises a load of 750 N through a height of 16 m in 5 seconds. Calculate the power at which the machine works. [2] (ii) State the principle of conservation of energy. [2] (b) (i) A cook uses a 'fire tong' of length 28 cm to lift a piece of burning coal of mass 250 g. If he applies his effort at a distance of 7 cm from the fulcrum, what is the effort in S.I. unit? Take g = 10 m/s2. [3] (ii) State the S.I. unit of the momentum of a body. [1] (c) (i) State the law of transmission of pressure in liquids. [2] (ii) Calculate the hydrostatic pressure exerted by water at the bottom of a beaker, side ways. Take the depth of water as 10 cm, the density of water is 1000 kg/m3 and g = 9.8 m/s2. [2] (d) (i) In the diagram given below, a ray of light PQ is incident normally on one face AB of an equilateral glass prism. What are the angles of incidence at the faces AB and AC? [2] (ii) Complete the ray diagram showing its emergence into air after passing through the prism. [2] (e) An erect, diminished and virtual image is formed when an object is placed between the optical centre and principal focus of a lens. i. ii. Name the type of lens, which forms the above image. [1] Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image with the above characteristics. [3] (f) (i)Write the name of a pair of two colours which combine to give white light. What is the name given to such a pair of colours? [2] (ii) State two similarities between a photographic camera and the human eye. [2] (g) (i) An observer stands at a distance of 850 m from a cliff and fires a gun. After what time-gap will he hear the echo, if sound travels at a speed of 350 ms-1 in air? [2] (ii) A cell of emf 1.5 V and internal resistance 10 ohms is connected to a resistor of 5 ohms, with an ammeter in series (see figure). What is the is reading of the ammeter? [2] (h) (i) A geyser has a label 2 kW, 240 V. What is the cost of using it for 30 minutes, if the cost of electricity is Rs. 3 per commercial unit. [2] (ii) State two advantages of an electromagnet over a bar magnet. [2] (i) Draw a sketch of an electric bell with electrical connections and label the main parts. Why is the armature made of soft iron and not of steel? [4] (j) (i) Mention two possible sources of background radiations. [2] (ii) An element X changes to another element Y with the emission of beta particles. Write down the equation showing changes in the nucleus. Take the proton number and mass number of X, as Z and A respectively. [2] SECTION II (40 Marks) Attempt any four questions from this Section Question 2 (a) Define: (i) Work (ii) Power and (iii) Energy. [3] (b) How is work done related to the applied force? [1] (c) By what factor does the kinetic energy of a moving body change when its speed is reduced to half? [1] (d) What do the following units measure? i. ii. Pascal Kilowatt hour. [2] (e) From the ground floor, a man comes up to the fourth floor of a building using the staircase. Another person comes up to the same floor using an elevator. Neglecting friction, compare the work done in the two cases. [3] Question 3 (i) Define specific heat capacity of a substance. State its S.I. unit. [3] (ii) Give one example each where high specific heat capacity of water is used: i. ii. In cooling As heat reservoir. [2] (b) A vessel of negligible heat capacity contains 40 g of ice in it at 00C. 8 g of steam at 1000C is passed into the ice to melt it. Find the final temperature of the contents of the vessel. (Specific latent heat of vaporization of steam, = 2268 J/g; Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 J/g and Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J/g0C) [5] Question 4 (a) State two advantages of using a right angled prism as a reflector, rather than a plane mirror. [2] (b) Name any four regions of electromagnetic spectrum (other than visible light) in increasing order of wavelength. [4] (c) Draw a ray diagram to illustrate the bending of a stick in water. [2] (d) Name any two essential parts of a single lens photographic camera. [2] Question 5 (a) A rubber ball floats in water with one-third of its volume above the water surface. Calculate its average relative density. [4] (b) A vibrating tuning fork is placed over the mouth of a burette filled with water. The tap is opened and the water level gradually falls. It is observed that the sound becomes the loudest for a particular length of air column. i. ii. iii. What is the name of the phenomenon taking place when this happens? [1] Why does the sound become the loudest? [1] What is the name of the phenomenon taking place when sound is produced for another length of air column and is not the loudest? [2] (c)What change, if any, would you expect in the characteristics of a musical sound when we increase: i. ii. Its frequency, Its amplitude. [2] Question 6 (a) Explain briefly the function of the following in the household wiring: (i) a three-pin plug. (ii) main switch. [2] (b) Four cells, each of e.m.f 1.5 V and internal resistance 2.0 ohms are connected in a parallel. The battery of cells is connected to an external resistance of 2.5 ohms. Calculate: i. ii. iii. the total resistance of the circuit, the current flowing in the external circuit, and the drop in potential across the terminals of the cells. [5] (c) Make a table with the names of three electrical appliances used in your home in one column, their power, voltage rating and approximate time for which each one is used in one day in the other columns. [3] Question 7 (a) State briefly two uses of a cathode ray tube. [2] (b) Name the technique used to estimate the age of very old trees, plants, wood and other such specimens. Name the isotope that forms the basis of this technique. [2] (c) Describe briefly, two properties each of alpha particles and gamma radiation. [4] (d) State two dissimilarities between a DC motor and an AC generator. [2]

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