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IIT GATE Exam 2025 : BT - Biotechnology

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MOCK TEST Complete Syllabus of NEET Instructions: (i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15. (ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks. (iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle. (iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle. (v) Dark only one circle for each entry. (vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only. (vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on the Answer sheet. PHYSICS SECTION A Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 1. A 120 dolphin decelerates from 15 / to 7.5 / in 5 to join another dolphin in play. What average force was exerted to slow the first dolphin if it was moving horizontally? (Assume that gravitational force is balanced by the buoyant force of the water) (1) 120 (2) 18 (3) 180 (4) 60 2. An object of mass is connected to a wire of length , radius and Young s modulus as shown in figure. If the object is released from the horizontal position of the wire, then find out the maximum increment in length of the wire. (1) 5 2 (2) 2 2 (3) 3 2 (4) 5 2 3. A cannot engine works as a refrigerator between 250 and 300 . It receives 500 heat from the reservoir at the lower temperature. The amount of work done in each cycle to operate the refrigerator is nearly (1) 420 (2) 2100 (3) 772 (4) 2520 4. At which of the following temperatures does any gas have average molecular kinetic energy double that of at 200 ? (1) 400 (2) 800 (3) 3130 (4) 5860 5. If a diamagnetic substance is brought near the north or the south pole of a bar magnet, it is (1) Attracted by bot the poles (2) Repelled by both the poles (3) Repelled by the north pole and attracted by the south pole (4) Attracted by the north pole and repelled by the south pole 6. A capacitor is of capacity and reactance . If capacitance and frequency become triple then reactance will be (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) (4) 9 4 7. The temperature of the black body as calculated from the graph is (Wien s constant =2.89 10 3 ) (1) 1156 (2) 1200 (3) 1348 (4) 1500 8. Which of the following combination of properties would be desirable for handling a cooking pan? (1) Low thermal conductivity and low specific heat (2) Low thermal conductivity and high specific heat (3) High thermal conductivity and high specific heat (4) High thermal conductivity and low specific heat 9. The correct expression in accordance with Gauss s law for magnetism is B . = 0 (1) . = (2) (3) . = (4) . = 0 10.The superposition of waves can result in (1) Interference (3) Both Interference and polarization 0 (2) Polarisation (4) Neither Interference nor polarization 11.A rectangular coil of wire of 500 turns of area 10 5 2 carries a current of 2 in a magnetic field of induction 2 10 3 . If the plane of the coil is parallel to the field. The torque on the coil is ( ) (1) 0.1 (2) 0.01 (3) 0.001 (4) 1 12.A source of frequency gives 5 beats/s when sounded with a source of frequency 95 . The third harmonic of source ( ) gives 10 beats/s when sound with a source of frequency 290 . The value of is (1) 200 (2) 300 (3) 100 (4) 90 13.A stretched wire vibrates with a frequency of 80 when the tension is 1 and frequency of 150 when the tension is 2 . When the tension is ( 1 + 2 ), its frequency of vibration is (in Hz) (1) 170 (2) 230 (3) 240 (4) 210 14.In a measurement, a choice change of different units (1) Does not change the number of significant figures. (2) Increases the number of significant figures (3) Decreases the number of significant figures (4) May increases or may decreases 15.Match the following. (a) Temperature (p) Light Year (b) Mass (q) Shake (c) Length (r) Fahrenheit (d) Time (s) Atomic mass unit (1) a(s), b(p), c(q), d(r) (2) a(s), b(p), c(r), d(q) (3) a(r), b(s), c(p), d(q) (4) a(p), b(q), c(s), d(r) 16.An AND gate can be prepared by repetitive use of (a) NOT gate (b) OR gate (c) NAND gate (d) NOR gate (1) Only (a) and (b) are correct (2) Only (c) and (d) are correct (3) Only (a), (b) and (c) correct (4) All re correct 17.Statement A: In intrinsic semiconductors, conductivity is mainly due to the breakage of covalent bonds. Statement B: In extrinsic semiconductors, the conductivity is mainly due to the addition of impurities. (1) A is true, B is false (2) A is false, B is true (3) Both A and B are true (4) Both A and B are false 18.Which of the following is true? (1) The Lyman series has a continuous spectrum (2) The Balmer series is a line spectrum in the UV region (3) The Paschan series is a line spectrum in the infrared region (4) Spectral series formula is derived from Rutherford s model of the hydrogen atom 19.The missing particles or nuclides in the reactions? ( , )16 8 and 14 14 7 (? , )6 , respectively, are ( stands for proton and for alpha particle) (1) 199 10 (2) 189 21 (3) 189 01 (4) 147 10 20.The velocity-time graph of a body moving in a straight line is shown in the figure. Find the distance travelled by the body in 6 seconds. (1) 30 m (2) 20 m (3) 10 m (4) Zero 21.A man is sitting in a boat which is floating in a pond. If the man drink some water from the pond, what will happen to the level of water in the pond? (1) Increases (2) Decreases (3) Remains same (4) Depends on weight of boat 22.For a region of constant electric potential, which of the following statements is incorrect? (1) The electric field may be uniform (2) The electric field may be zero (3) There can be no charge inside the region (4) The electric field shall necessarily change if a charge is placed outside the region 23.Choose the correct statement for the circuit shown in figure (1) Potential difference between points and is 10 . (2) Potential difference between points and is 15 (3) The current in the 4 resistor is 0.25 (4) The current in the 8 resistance is 0.25 24.A uniform wire of resistance 20 having resistance 1 / is bent in the form of a circle as shown in figure. If the equivalent resistance between and is 1.8 , then length of the shorter section is (1) 1.8 (2) 2 (3) 3.6 (4) 4 25.In a region of space, the electric field is given by = 6 4 + 7 . Electric flux through a surface of area 200 unit in plane will be (1) 1200 (2) 600 (3) 200 (4) 800 26.In the diagram shown below, the block has charge and is attached at one end of the light spring. The surface is smooth and horizontal and spring is in its natural length. If the electric field is switched on, the maximum elongation in the spring will be (1) (3) 2 (2) (4) 2 3 2 27.Two springs with spring constants 1 = 1200 / and 2 = 500 / are stretched by the same force. The ratio of potential energy in the springs will be (1) (3) 25 144 5 10 (2) (4) 12 5 144 25 28.A man who can swim with a speed of 2 / wants to cross a river 200 wide. If the river is flowing with a speed of 3 / then in what minimum time can the man cross the river? (1) 4 minute (2) 6 minute (3) 12 minute (4) 8 minute 29.Consider the following two statements . (A)The gravitational force on a particle inside a spherical shell is zero. (B) Total mechanical energy of a body on earth s surface may be positive. Which of the following options is correct? (1) Statement A is correct while statement B is incorrect. (2) Statement B is correct while statement A is incorrect. (3) Statements A and B are correct (4) Statements A and B are incorrect 30.Two conducting rods inclined at angle from horizontal are kept parallel at separation to each other. A resistor of resistance joins the two rods at their topmost point. A metal bar of length is free to slide on the rods as shown in figure. on releasing from rest, the maximum speed that can be attained by the bar if a constant magnetic field exists vertically downwards, is (1) sin (2) 2 2 sin 2 2 cos2 (3) 2 2 sin (4) 2 2 31.The radius of circle, the period of revolution , initial position and sense of revolution are indicated in the figure. x-projection of the radius vector of rotating particle is (1) ( ) = 5 sin ( ) (2) ( ) = 5 sin ( ) 5 5 (3) ( ) = 5 5 sin ( ) 5 (4) ( ) = 5 + 5 sin ( ) 5 32.Deviation of light ray by a thin prism of refractive index and refracting angle is (1) (3) (2) ( 1) (4) ( 1) 33.A telescope with objective of focal length 100 and eyepiece of focal length 5 is focused on a far object such that parallel rays emerge from eyepiece. If object subtends an angle of 10 on objective, the angular size of image is (1) 100 (2) 50 (3) 200 (4) 800 34.A car is skidding on an icy road with speed and tyres are rotating with angular speed 3 , where is the radius of tyres. The distance travelled by car in one rotation of tyres is (1) 2 (3) (2) 4 2 3 (4) 6 3 35.The ratio of tensions : in two strings and supporting a log of mass as shown in figure is (1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 SECTION B 36.A prism has refracting angle of 300 and it is made of glass of refractive index 2. At what angle should a light ray be incident on a face of prism such that it passes normally through the other face? (1) 300 (2) 600 (3) 450 (4) 900 37.From a sprinkler of length 1 , water is throw out with 0.5 / tangentially at the rate of 0.6 / . If diameter of sprinkler is 8 and moment of inertia is 500 2 , the rate at which angular speed of sprinkler will increases is (assume there in no resistance to motion) (1) 10 / 2 (2) 100 / 2 (3) 1000 / 2 (4) 10000 / 2 38.A block of mass 2 is moving with speed towards a spring block system as shown in the figure. if collision of the two blocks is perfectly inelastic then maximum compression in the spring will be (1) (3) 3 2 3 (2) (4) 2 9 4 3 39.Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely as the power of distance. Then, time period of a planet in circular orbit of radius R around the sum will be proportional to (1) (3) +1 2 (2) 1 2 (4) /2 40.A uniform wire of resistance is stretched uniformly to times. It is then cut to form five wires of equal length. These wires are arranged as shown in figure. the effective resistance between and is (1) (3) 2 3 5 (2) (4) 2 5 3 41.A 1 capacitor is charged by 100 supply. It is then disconnected from the supply and is connected to another uncharged 1 capacitor. The percentage of energy lost in form of heat and electromagnetic radiation is (1) 25% (2) 30% (3) 60% (4) 50% 42.An electron of mass with an initial velocity = 0 is in electric field = 0 . If 0 = 0 , its de Broglie wavelength at time is given by (Check the symbols for vectors) 0 (1) 0 (2) 1 + 0 (3) 1+ 2 02 0 (4) 2 2 2 0 2 2 0 2 02 2 1 2 2 2 0 2 2 0 43.A cube of mass and density is suspended from the point by a spring of stiffness as shown in figure. The system is kept inside a beaker filled with a liquid of density , where > . What is the elongation in the spring? (1) (3) (2) (1 ) (4) (1 ) 44.In which of the following numerical values, all zeroes are significant? (1) 0.04040 (2) 40.4 1030 (3) 40.40 (4) 0.0404 45.In a transistor if = and = . If varies between 20 21 and lies between (1) 1 10 (2) 0.95 0.99 (3) 200 300 (4) 20 100 100 101 , then the value of 46.Two long straight conductors carry currents 3 and 1 into the plane of paper. A . circular path is imagined to enclose these currents. The value of is (1) 6 0 (2) 4 0 (3) 0 (4) 3 0 47.For the setup shown in figure, the distance between slits much smaller as compared to the distance of slits from the screen. The total number of minimas on the screen are (where = 4 ) (1) 8 (2) 5 (3) 10 (4) 6 48.For a given system find out 1 and 2 (forces exerted by the pulley on the support) respectively. (1) 4 2, 6 2 (2) 72 2, 60 2 (3) 80 2, 36 3 (4) 40 2, 3 2 49.An ideal gas undergoes the process 1 2 as shown in the figure, the heat supplied and work done in the process is and respectively. The ratio : is (1) : ( 1) (2) (3) ( 1) (4) ( 1): 50.In a series circuit shown in figure, the applied voltage is 10 and the voltage across the capacitor is found to be 8 . The voltage across and the phase difference between current and the applied voltage will be respectively. 4 (2) 3 , tan 1 ( ) 4 3 (4) 6 , sin 1 ( ) 3 (1) 6 , tan 1 ( ) 3 (3) 6 , tan 1 ( ) 4 3 4 CHEMISTRY SECTION A 51.Correct order of melting point is (1) > > > (2) > > > (3) > > > (4) > > > 52.Statement I : Sulphuric acid is used to manufacture nitric acid from sodium nitrate. Statement II: Sulphuric acid is less volatile than nitric acid. In the light of the above statements, identify the correct option. (1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct . (2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect. (3) Both statement I and II are correct (4) Both statement I and II are incorrect. 53.Consider the following reaction The major product formed is 54.In which of the following alcohols, dehydration takes place most readily in acidic medium? 55.Nitroethane when heated above 573 yields (1) Ethane (2) Ethene (3) Ethyne (4) Ethylamine 56.Identify the incorrect statement. (1) Acrylonitrile is used in making acrilan. (2) Zeigler Natta catalyst is triethylaluminium and titanium tetrachloride. (3) Nylon 6, 6 is a fibre (4) High density polythene is chemically reactive. 57.Consider the following statements (I) Histamine is a potent vasodilator (II) Brompheniramine is an antihistamine (III) Tranquilizers and analgesics are neurologically active drugs The correct statements among the following are (1) I and III only (2) II and III only (3) I and II only (4) I, II and III 58.When 2 is fused with potassium hydroxide in presence of 3 , the deep green compound obtained is (1) 4 (2) 2 4 (3) ( )2 (4) 2 3 59.Which of the following has lowest ionization enthalpy? (1) (2) (3) (4) 60.Beryllium hydroxide reacts with alkali to form (1) [ ( )3 ] (2) [ ( )4 ]2 (3) [ ( 2 )2 ]2+ (4) [ ( 2 )4 ]2+ 61.Which among the following elements is not a representative element? (1) (2) (3) (4) 62.Which among the following will boil at highest temperature? (1) (2) (3) (4) 63.Which of the following is not a common component of photochemical smog? (1) 2 (2) (3) 3 (4) 64.The correct order of increasing energy of orbitals in a multi electron atom is (1) 4 < 4 < 3 < 2 (2) 2 < 3 < 4 < 4 (3) 2 < 3 < 4 < 4 (4) 2 < 4 < 3 < 4 65.The compound which is most easily soluble in aqueous alkali is 66.Consider the following reaction sequence Major product B is 67.Statement I : Phenol is converted to benzene on heating with zinc dust. Statement II: Chromic acid oxidises phenol to benzoquinone. In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer. (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect. (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct. (3) Both statement I and statement II are correct. (4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect 68.Compound A having molecular formula 9 10 2 on reaction with dilute gives compound and . evolves 2 on reaction with aqueous 3 and gives yellow precipitate on reaction with 2 / . Structure of compound is 69.Low spin complex of 4 cation in an octahedral field will have the following energy (P is pairing energy) (1) 2.4 0 + (2) 01.2 0 + 2 (3) 1.6 0 + (4) 0.6 0 70.Estimation of nitrogen using Kjeldahl s method is applicable to 71.Correct IUPAC name of the following compounds is (1) 3 1, 5 (2) 1, 2, 3 (3) 1, 2, 3 (4) 2, 3, 4 72.Oxidising behaviour of 2 4 is observed in (1) 2 + 2 4 2 4 + 2 2 (2) 2 5 + 2 4 2 3 + 2 + 2 2 (3) 2 + 2 4 2 + 2 + 2 2 (4) 3 + 2 4 2 2 7 0 73.The for the cell reaction + 2+ 3+ + , will be (Given: 0 = 170 1 ) (1) 0.37 (2) 0.29 (3) 0.21 (4) 0.16 74.Statement I : hcp and ccp structure are equally efficient. Statement II : Same number of atoms are present in a hcp and ccp unit cell. In the light of above statement choose the correct option among the following. (1) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect. (2) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct. (3) Both statement I and statement II are correct (4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect 75.The phenomenon of producing electrical signals in a crystal by applying pressure is known as (1) Piezoelectricity (2) Ferrielectricity (3) Pyroelectricity (4) Ferroelectricity 76.Volume of 2 obtained at STP on heating 100 of 3 sample (25 % ) is (1) 22.4 (2) 11.2 (3) 7.6 (4) 5.6 77.Statement I : Ellingham diagram explains the kinetics of reduction process. Statement II : Hydraulic washing, a method of concentration of ore is based on the differences in gravities of the ore and the gangue. In the light of above statements choose the correct option among the following. (1) Both statement I and statement II are true (2) Both statement I and statement II are false (3) Statement I is true but statement II is false (4) Statement I is false but statement II is true 78.Hydrolith on treatment with water gives (1) 2 ( ) (3) 2 2 ( ) (2) 2 ( ) (4) 3 79.For the reaction, 2 ( ) 2 ( ), the sign of and respectively are (1) + ve and + ve (2) ve and ve (3) + ve and ve (4) ve and + ve 80.If of saturated solution of ( )2 is 12 then of ( )2 is (1) 4 10 2 (2) 5 10 7 (3) 6 10 3 (4) 2 10 7 81.The shape of molecule when the central atom contains 3 bond pairs and 2 lone pairs is (1) Trigonal planar (2) T shape (3) Pyramidal (4) Bent 82.Optimum range for the enzymatic activity is (1) 1 3 (2) 3 5 (3) 5 7 (4) 7 9 83.How many half-lives will be required for 99.9% completion of 1st order reaction? (1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 8 (4) 10 84.The mixture which shows negative deviation from Raoult s law is (1) Acetone + Chloroform (2) Acetone + Ethanol (3) Acetone + Benzene (4) Ethanol + Water 85.Assuming 100% dissociation, the van t Hoff factor of 2 2 is (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 SECTION B 86.Consider the following sequence of reactions, Major product is 87.By what factor does the root mean square speed of the gaseous molecules increases when the temperature is tripled? (1) 1.41 (2) 1.73 (3) 2.4 (4) 0.91 88.Identify the correct statement(s) regarding Solvay process. (I) Sodium carbonate is generally prepared by this process. (II) Ammonia is recovered when solution containing ammonium chloride is treated with sodium chloride. (III) It cannot be used to manufacture potassium hydrogencarbonate. (1) I and II only (2) I and III only (3) II and III only (4) I, II and III 89.A 662 watt bulb emits monochromatic light of wavelength 300 nm. The number of photons emitted per second by the bulb is (take = 6.62 10 34 ) (1) 1021 1 (2) 1020 1 (3) 1018 1 (4) 1019 1 90.Statement I : 1 mol of 3 . 5 3 will give 2 mol of on reaction with excess 3 solution. Statement II : Secondary valency of in 3 . 5 3 is 5. Properties in light of the above statements, choose the correct answer. (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct (3) Both statement I and statement II are correct (4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect. 91.Mesityl oxide is the aldol condensation product of (1) Acetaldehyde (2) Acetophenone (3) Acetone (4) Propionaldehyde 92.For esters, prefix used in IUPAC nomenclature is (1) Carboxy (2) Carbamoyl (3) Formyl (4) Alkoxycarbonyl 93.Number of products (structural isomers only) formed by monochlorination of 3methylpentane is (1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 3 94.Equivalent mass of 2 3 when it is titrated against in presence of phenolphthalein indication is (1) 53 (2) 79.5 (3) 35.33 (4) 106 95.Limiting equivalent conductivity of calcium phosphate is given by (1) (3) ( 0 ) 2+ 2 ( 0 ) 2+ 3 + + ( 0 ) 3 4 3 ( 0 ) 3 4 2 (2) ( 0 ) 2+ + ( 0 ) 43 (4) ( 0 ) 2+ 2 + ( 0 ) 3 4 3 96.If equilibrium constant for a reaction is 1010 at 270 , then 0 of the reaction at 270 will be (1) 2303 (2) 6909 (3) 9212 (4) 10133 97.According to the classification based on the physical states of dispersed phase and dispersion medium. There are how many types of colloidal sols possible? (1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 8 (4) 9 98.Fraction of molecule having energy greater or equal to activation energy at temperature is given by (1) 1 (3) (2) (4) 99.Hybridization of middle carbon in carbon suboxide is (1) (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 2 100. Heat required to raise the temperature of 5.4 g of aluminum from 350 to 650 is (Molar heat capacity of = 24 1 1 ) (1) 36 (2) 72 (3) 144 (4) 288 BOTANY SECTION - A 101. Which of the given is not true w.r.t. 0 of ATP synthase? (1) It is embedded in the thylakoid membrane (2) It forms a transmembrane channel (3) It carries out facilitated diffusion of protons across the membrane (4) It shows a conformation change in it, which makes the enzyme synthesis everal molecules of energy packed ATP 102. In DNA, hydrogen bond joins (1) Nitrogenous base with pentose sugar (2) Pentose sugar with phosphate group (3) Two adjacent nitrogenous bases present on the complementary strands (4) Pyrimidines with deoxyribose sugar 103. RNA dependent DNA synthesis is related to (1) Replication (2) Transcription (3) Translation (4) Reverse transcription 104. All of the following act as a substrate in DNA replication, except (1) dATP (2) dUTP (3) dCTP (4) dTTP 105. Mark incorrect statement w.r.t. anthropogenic extinction. (1) It is extermination of species caused directly or indirectly by human activities (2) It includes loss of biodiversity by habitat destruction (3) It is causing sixth mass extinction of species (4) It occurs at a very slow rate 106. All of the given practices lead to soil erosion, except (1) Over cultivation (2) Unrestricted grazing (3) Poor-irrigation practices (4) Restoring a forest 107. Mark the statement not true for chromosomal theory of inheritance. (1) Both, chromosomes as well as genes occur in pairs (2) A gamete contains only one chromosome of a type (3) Paired condition of both chromosomes as well as Mendelian factors is restored during gametogenesis (4) Chromosomes retain their number, structure and individuality throughout the life. 108. Mark the odd one w.r.t. co-dominance. (1) Both the alleles express themselves equally (2) F1 progeny resembles both the parents (3) There is no mixing of the effects of the alleles (4) F1 phenotypic ratio is 3 : 1 while genotypic ratio is 1 : 2 : 1 109. Which of the following trait exemplifies polygenic inheritance? (1) Human blood groups (2) Skin colour in humans (3) Phenylketonuria disease (4) Starch synthesis in pea 110. Identify the incorrect match. (1) Euglena Photosynthetic protozoan (2) Paramecium Have two nuclei (3) Trypanosoma Pathogenic protozoan (4) Nostoc Symbiotic nitrogen fixer 111. Claviceps differs from Colletotrichum as the former (1) Produces conidia (2) Have septate hyphae (3) Produces meiospores in sac like structure (4) Lack asexual reproduction 112. An edible fruiting body is formed by all, except (1) Agaricus (2) Morels (3) Truffles (4) Yeast 113. If a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, (1) Solute molecules will move out of the cell (2) It will become turgid (3) It will undergo plasmolysis (4) Water will move into the cell 114. A typical mature embryo sac in angiosperm is (1) 7 celled and 8 nucleated (2) 4 celled and 8 nucleated (3) 8 celled and 4 nucleated (4) 12 celled and 6 nucleated 115. Algin and Carrageen is obtained from (1) Green algae (2) Brown and red algae, respectively (3) Blue green algae (4) Green and red algae, respectively 116. Which among the following constitutes the ring structure of chlorophyll and helps to maintain the ribosome structure? (1) Iron (2) Nitrogen (3) Magnesium (4) Boron 117. In cell division, crossing over happens during (1) Diplotene (2) Leptotene (3) Zygotene (4) Pachytene 118. The reduction in the number of chromosomes occurs during which phase of meiosis? (1) Prophase I (2) Diakinesis (3) Anaphase I (4) Metaphase I 119. Read the following statements about a taxonomical aid and identify it. (a) Provides index to the plant species found in a particular area. (b) Gives the actual account of habitat and distribution of various plants of a given area (1) Monograph (2) Catalogue (3) Flora (4) Key 120. Which of the following is not a feature of all living organisms? (1) Consciousness (2) Metabolism (3) Reproduction (4) Growth 121. Select the incorrect statement about Krebs cycle. (1) Takes place in cytosol of eukaryotes (2) Also known as TCA cycle (3) Enzymes for the cycle are found in mitochondrial matrix (4) Substrate level phosphorylation occurs at a particular step 122. Read the following statements and select the correct option. (A)The plant part which is used in tissue culture is called explant (B) Pathogen free clones of plants can be obtained through meristem culture. (1) Only statement A is correct (2) Only statement B is correct (3) Both statements A and B are correct (4) Both statement A and B are incorrect 123. Many adaptations are seen in various organisms that help them to survive in environment. Which one of the following is not true regarding such adaptations? (1) Xerophytes have thick cuticle (2) Scotoactive stomata in CAM plants (3) Blubber in seals (4) Increase in binding capacity of haemoglobin to oxygen in humans at high altitude 124. In the given food chain, what will be the energy available to carnivore II? Sunlight (100000 kcal) Producer Herbivore Carnivore I Carnivore II (1) 10 kcal (2) 1 kcal (3) 0.1 cal (4) 001 kcal 125. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. asexual reproduction. (1) It does not require the production of sex organs (2) It involves both meiotic and mitotic divisions (3) Individuals are genetically similar to the parent (4) It has no evolutionary significance 126. Which of the following is binucleate cell in a mature embryo sac of angiosperm? (1) Antipodal cell (2) Synergid (3) Egg cell (4) Central cell 127. Select the incorrect match. (1) Dragonfly - Use to get rid of mosquitoes (2) Trichoderma - Free living bacteria to fix nitrogen (3) Baculoviruses - Narrow spectrum insecticidal application (4) Glomus - Form symbiotic association with plants 128. Read the following statements and select the correct option. Statement A: In rice, hypocotyl grows first and cotyledons comes out of the soil. Statement B: Tobacco plants flower when they are exposed to a photoperiod shorter than a critical period. (1) Only statement A is correct (2) Only statement B is correct (3) Both the statements A and B are correct (4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect 129. Stilt roots in maize arise from (1) Internodes of the stem (2) Lower nodes of the stem (3) Fibrous adventitious roots (4) Elongated radicle 130. Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column I Column II A. Offset (i) Modified axillary bud B. Thorn (ii) Swollen leaf base C. Pneumatophore (iii) Respiratory root D. Pulvinus (iv) Su-aerial weak stem A B C D (1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 131. Read the following statements. (a) Annual rings are more distinct in plants growing in tropical regions. (b) One annual ring has one circle of autumn wood and two circles of spring wood. (c) Late wood is lighter in colour and has lower density. (d) Dermatogen forms epidermis and epidermal tissue system. The incorrect one(s) is / are (1) (b) and (c) only (2) (a), (c) and (d) (3) (b) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) 132. All of the following are absent in monocot stem, except (1) Hypodermis (2) Epidermis (3) Endodermis (4) Vascular Bundles 133. Which structure in bacteria is used to monitor bacterial transformation with foreign DNA? (1) Mesosome (2) Chromatophore (3) Plasmid (4) Polyribosome 134. One of the most important functions of plasma membrane is (1) Maintenance of the shape of the cell (2) To protect the cell from mechanical injury (3) Transport of molecules across it (4) Formation of glycoproteins 135. As per the position of centromere, chromosomes A and B shown below are (A-left, B-right) (1) Metacentric and sub-metacentric respectively (2) Sub-metacentric and acrocentric respectively (3) Acrocentric (4) Sub-metacentric SECTION B 136. Chromosome 1 of human beings (1) Has fewest gene (2) Has 2968 genes (3) Was the first chromosome get sequenced (4) Was sequenced by the end of May 2003 137. What is the value of Z (slope of regression) for frugivorous birds and mammals in tropical forests of different continents? (1) 0.1 (2) 0.6 (3) 0.2 (4) 1.15 138. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. polyblend. (1) It is a fine powder of recycled modified plastic (2) It is mixed with bitumen that is used to lay roads (3) The ray material for creating polyblend is any plastic film waste (4) It was developed by Ramesh Chandra Dagar 139. Which of the following disorders in humans is caused by gene present on sex chromosome? 140. Dinoflagellates are not (1) Found in marine habitat (2) Eukaryotes (3) Capable to reproduce sexually (4) Strictly heterotrophic in nature 141. Which of the following statements is correct w.r.t. symplastic pathway? (1) It consists of non-living parts of plant body (2) It is faster way of transport (3) It is directly affected by metabolic state of root (4) Water can pass without crossing cytoplasm 142. In gymnosperms (1) Male and female gametophytes do not have an independent free-living existence (2) Roots are generally fibrous root (3) Seeds and flowers are formed (4) Double fertilization takes place 143. The factor that increases the rate of decomposition of detritus is (1) Reduced moisture (2) Low temperature (3) Good aeration (4) Low nitrogenous compound and water soluble carbohydrates 144. A population interaction represented by + - symbols, refers to (1) Parasitism (2) Amensalism (3) Commensalism (4) Mutualism 145. Select the option with beverages produced by distillation of the fermented broth. (1) Wine and whisky (2) Beer and brandy (3) Brandy and rum (4) Wine and beer 146. Select the correct statement for pollen grains. (a) They cannot be stored in liquid nitrogen. (b) They can be used as food supplements. (c) In majority of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at 3-celled stage. (d) Its outer layer is made up of organic material which can withstand high temperature and strong alkali. (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (d) only (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d) 147. The effect of auxin that promote apical dominance in plant, can be counteracted by (1) Gibberllins (2) Abscisic acid (3) Cytokinin (4) Ethylene 148. Staminodes are stamens that (1) Develop on the calyx (2) Mature before the pistils (3) Are sterile (4) Are united into a single bundle 149. Which of the following is not the function of pericycle? (1) Storage of food material (2) Controlling the quantity of solutes that reach the xylem (3) Formation of a part of cambial ring (4) Giving rise to the lateral roots 150. Select the incorrect match from the following. (1) Centriole - Gives rise to spindle apparatus (2) Microtubules - Form axoneme of cilia (3) Flagella - 9+2 organisation of microtubules (4) Spindle fibres - Made up of contractile proteins ZOOLOGY SECTION A 151. Consider the given statements and select the option with incorrect statement. (1) In humans, lungs are enclosed in a double layered peritoneum formed by connective tissue with a fluid between them that reduces friction. (2) Alveoli are the main sites where actual diffusion of gases 2 and 2 takes place between blood and atmospheric air. (3) During expiration, diaphragm relaxes and arches upwards. (4) Values of tidal volume is the lowest among all types of respiratory volumes. 152. Identify the protein produced by liver in inactive form whose activated form stimulates adrenal cortex to release mineralocorticoid that increases the reabsorption of the Na+ ions from the filtrate. (1) ACE (2) ANF (2) Angiotensinogen (4) Renin 153. Select the correct match. (1) Verbetrostemal ribs - Dorsally attached to the sternum (2) Vertebral ribs - Also know as floating ribs (3) Sternum - Present on the dorsal midline of the thorax (4) Pectoral girdle - Formed of three bones namely ilium, pubis and ischium 154. Which of the following structures have saddle joint? (1) Between humerus and pectoral girdle (2) Between atlas and axis (3) Between tarsals (4) Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb 155. Select the incorrect statement regarding apiculture. (1) Bee-keeping can be practiced in any area where there are sufficient pastures of some wild shrubs, fruit orchards etc. (2) Bee-keeping is very labour intensive (3) Management of beehives is different in different seasons (4) For successful bee-keeping, knowledge of the nature and habits of bees is very important. 156. Which of the following processes / techniques are included under the umbrella of biotechnology? (a) In vitro fertilization leading to a test-tube baby (b) Synthesizing a gene and using it (c) Developing a DNA vaccine (d) Correcting a defective gene Choose the correct option. (1) (a) and (d) only (2) (b) and (c) only (3) (b), (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 157. The second two letters in the name of restriction enzymes come from the (1) Genus of the prokaryotic cell (2) Species of the eukaryotic cell (3) Strain of bacteria (4) Species of the prokaryotic cell 158. Select the incorrect statement. (1) All plasmids replicate only when bacteria divides. (2) Copy number of bacteriophages is more than that of plasmids. (3) Ori sequence is responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA. (4) The normal E. coli cells do not carry resistance genes against tetracycline and ampicillin antibiotics. 159. Which theory/hypothesis stated that formation of life was preceded by chemical evolution? (1) Panspermia theory (2) Spontaneous generation theory (3) Oparin Haldane hypothesis (4) Theory of biogenesis 160. The population in genetic equilibrium can be disturbed by (a) Assortative mating (b) Absence of mutation (c) Gene migration (d) Natural selection Choose the correct option. (1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (3) (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (c) 161. Match column I with column II and choose the correct option. Column I Column II (a) Australopithecines (i) 900 cc cranial capacity (b) Homo habilis (ii) Not taller than 4 feet but walked upright (c) Homo erectus (iii) Lived between 100000-40000 years ago (d) Homo sapiens (iv) Cranial capacity 650-800 cc neanderthalensis (1) a (ii), b (iv), c (iii), d (i) (2) a (i), b (ii), c (iv), d (iii) (3) a (ii), b (iv), c (i), d (iii) (4) a (i), b (ii), c (iii), d (iv) 162. Read the given statements and select the correct option. (a) Primary metabolites have identifiable functions and play known roles in normal physiological processes. (b) Scents and pigments are primary metabolites. (c) Nicotine and strychnine are secondary metabolites produced by plants. (1) (a) and (b) are correct while (c) is incorrect (2) (a) and (c) are correct while (b) is incorrect. (3) (b) and (c) are correct while (a) is incorrect. (4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct 163. Select an enzyme among the following that is not proteinaceous in nature. (1) Nitrogenase (2) Pectinase (3) Trypsin (4) Ribozyme 164. Select the incorrect pair among the following w.r.t. given structures and characteristics. Structural component of cell membrane of plants (1) - Fatty acids are esterified with it to (2) - form glycerides It s structure changes in solution of - different pH (3) It is a nucleoside present in RNA and DNA (4) - 165. The mucus present in the gastric juice protects the mucosal epithelium from the excoriating action of . The mucosal lining is a ______ barrier of innate immunity. Select the correct option to fill in the blank. (1) Physical (2) Physiological (3) Cytokine (3) Cellular 166. Read the statements given below and select the incorrect one. (1) Pollens and animal dander are examples of allergens. (2) Allergy is due to release of histamine and serotonin from mast cells. (3) Memory based acquired immunity evolved in higher vertebrates is based on ability to differentiate foreign organisms from self cells. (4) Vitiligo and psoriasis are auto-immune diseases of skin and respiratory passage respectively. 167. Choose the incorrect option about the secretions of endocrine glands. (1) Non-nutrient chemicals (2) Produced in minute amounts (3) Carried by the blood (4) Does not show target specificity 168. How many of the following parts given in the box below are associated with genital chamber of male cockroach? Dorsal anus, Collaterial glands, Ventral male genital pore, Gonapophysis, Spermathecal pores (1) Three (2) Four (3) Two (4) Five 169. Match column I with column II and select the correct option. Column I a. Diarrhoea Column II (i) b. Constipation (ii) Protein-energy malnutrition Abnormal frequency of bowel movement and increased liquidity of faecal discharge c. Indigestion (iii) Faeces are retained within the colon d. Kwashiorkar (iv) Caused due to inadequate enzyme secretion (1) a (i), b (iii), c (ii), d (iv) (2) a (ii), b (iii), c (i), d (iv) (3) a (iii), b (ii), c (iv), d (i) (4) a (ii), b (iii), c (iv), d (i) 170. Which of the following is not a carbohydrate digesting enzyme? (1) Ptyalin (2) Steapsin (3) Maltase (4) Amylase 171. Pharynx is perforated by gill slits in (1) Star fish (2) Devil fish (3) Cuttle fish (4) Dog fish 172. Complete the analogy w.r.t locomotory structures and select the correct option. Nereis : Parapodia : : Ctenoplana : _______ (1) Tentacles (2) Flagellated comb plates (3) Ciliated comb plates (4) Jointed legs 173. Match items in column I with those in column II and choose the correct option. Column I Column II a. Pleurobrachia (i) Oral sucker b. Fasciola (ii) Collar c. Spongilla (iii) Paired tentacles d. Saccoglossus (iv) Collar cells (1) a (i), b (ii), c (iii), d (iv) (2) a (ii), b (iv), c (i), d (iii) (3) a (iii), b (i), c (iv), d (ii) (4) a (iv), b (iii), c (ii), d (i) 174. Assertion (A) : No individual is immortal, except single-celled organisms like Planaria. Reason (R) : There is no natural death in single celled organisms. In the light of above statements. Select the correct option. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (3) (A) is true, (R) is false. (4) (A) is false, (R) is true 175. During fertilization, a sperm comes in contact with the ____ layer of the ovum and induces changes in the membrane that block the entry of additional sperms. Select the option that correctly fills the blank. (1) Corona radiata (2) Perivitelline (3) Zona pellucida (4) Granulosa 176. Read the following statements A and B. Choose the correct answer from the option given below. Statement A : The motile sperms pass through cervix and uterus after insemination and reach at the junction of uterus and fallopian tubes where fertilization takes place. Statement B : The secretions of acrosome help the sperm to enter into the cytoplasm of the ovum through the zona pellucida and the plasma membrane. (1) Both statements A and B are correct (2) Only statement A is correct (3) Both statements A and B are incorrect (4) Only statement B is correct 177. The first sign of growing foetus may be noticed by (1) Formation of digits in embryo (2) Implantation of blastocyst within endometrium (3) Listening to the heart sound carefully through the stethoscope (4) The first movements of the foetus 178. Match column I with column II and choose the correct option. Column I Column II a. Oviduct (i) Ampulla and areola b. Uterus (ii) Isthmus, ampulla, infundibulum c. Mammary gland (iii) Head, neck and tail d. Sperm (iv) Fundus and cervix (1) a (i), b (ii), c (iii), d (iv) (2) a (ii), b (iv), c (i), d (iii) (3) a (iv), b (iii), c (ii), d (i) (4) a (iii), b (i), c (iv), d (ii) 179. Choose the incorrect statement. (1) In reptiles, limbs are either absent or present (2) All reptiles are oviparous and have internal fertilization and indirect development. (3) Some of the mammals are adapted to fly or live in water. (4) In cartilaginous fishes, teeth are modified placoid scales which are backwardly directed. 180. Read the given statements w.r.t. cardiac cycle and select the incorrect one. (1) SAN generates an action potential which stimulates both the atria to undergo a simultaneous contraction. (2) The action potential is conducted to the ventricular side by the AVN and AV bundle from where the bundle of His transmits it through the entire ventricular musculature. (3) During joint diastole, semilunar valves are closed and the tricuspid and bicuspid valves are open; blood from pulmonary veins and vena cava flows into the right and the left ventricles respectively. (4) In ventricular diastole, the ventricular pressure falls causing the closure of semilunar valves which presents the backflow of blood into the ventricles. 181. Complete the analogy and select the correct option. B Blood group : Anti A : : O blood group : ____ (1) Anti A only (2) Nil (3) Anti B only (4) Anti A, B 182. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from _____. Select the option that correctly fills the blank. (1) Oesophagus (2) Instestine (3) Heart (4) Kidneys 183. Priya is pregnant with her first child, but due to unforeseen circumstances she does not with to continue with her pregnancy. After a sonography the foetus was observed to have developed limbs, digits etc. She needs the opinion of how many medical practitioners to get an MTP? (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four 184. All of the following are applicable for Nirodh , except (1) Disposable (2) Protect from STIs (3) Can be used by both males and females (4) Prevents fertilization 185. Which was the first human hormone to be produced by recombinant DNA technology? (1) Insulin (2) GH (3) Oxytocin (4) ADH SECTION B 186. All of the following peculiar features of Platyhelminthes can differentiate between free living and parasitic forms except (1) Dorsoventrally flattened body (2) Presence of hooks (3) Presence of suckers (4) Absorption of nutrients from the host directly through their body surface 187. Veins are best defined as the vessels which (1) Carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ (2) Collect deoxygenated blood from different organs (3) Carry blood from different organs to the heart (4) Break up into capillaries which reunite to form an artery 188. Which of the following parasite feeds upon erythrocytes, mucosa and submucosa of colon? (1) Wuchereria (2) Ascaris (3) Entamoeba (4) Plasmodium 189. Which of the following is the blood concentration of monomer of maltose in a normal healthy human? Which of the following is the blood concentration of monomer of maltose in a normal healthy human? (1) 2.4 mmol/L 6.1 mmol/L (2) 0.0042 mol/L 0.0061 mol/L (2) 0.42 mmol/L 0.61 mmol/L (4) 0.042 mol/L 0.061 mol/L 190. If cloning vector pBR322 has desired gene in one of the selectable marker, then in this case, one antibiotic resistance gene helps in selecting the __A__, whereas the other antibiotic resistance gene which gets inactivated due to insertion of alien DNA helps in selection of __B__. Choose the option which correctly fills the blanks A and B. A B (1) Non-recombinants - Non- transformants (2) Transformants - Recombinants (3) Non- transformants - Transformants (4) Recombinants - Non-recombinants 191. Select the correct match w.r.t. enzymes and their functions. (1) Exonuclease - Breaks sugar phosphate backbones of DNA (2) Restriction enzyme - Removes nucleotides from 5 end of DNA (3) DNA ligase - Breaks phosphodiester bond (4) Methylase - Adds hydroxyl methyl groups to DNA 192. When more than one adaptive radiation appeared to have occurred in an isolated geographical area, one can call this (1) Convergent evolution (2) Parallel evolution (3) Divergent evolution only (3) Co-evolution 193. Removal of loop of Henle from the nephron will result in (1) No urine formation (2) More diluted urine (3) More concentrated urine (4) No change in quality and quantity of urine 194. Which part of brain contains neural central to moderate the cardiac function through ANS as well as to maintain the respiratory rhythm? (1) Pons (2) Cerebellum (3) Cerebrum (4) Medulla oblongata 195. Which one of the given options is a correct difference between implant contraceptives and oral contraceptive pills? (1) Effect on ovulation (2) Effect on implantation (3) Effective period (4) Mode of action 196. Choose the mismatch from the following (1) Mosquito - Dipteran (2) Golden rice - Insecticidal crop (3) cry IAb - Corn borer (4) Oil spills - Pseudomonas putida 197. How many of the following are not included in the human hindbrain? Medulla oblongata, Thalamus, Corpora qudrigemina, Pons, Cerebrum, Cerebellum (1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five 198. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t nodes of Ranvier. (1) Present on dendrites (2) Interruptions between myelin sheaths (3) Seen n nerve cells (4) Help in impulse transmission 199. Assertion (A) : Fallopian tubes help in transport of ovum from ovary to the uterus. Reason (R) : Ciliated epithelium is present in the inner surface of hollow organs like fallopian tubes. In the light of above statements, select the correct option. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (3) (A) is true but (R) is false. (4) (A) is false but (R) is true 200. Complete the analogy w.r.t. adrenal cortex by choosing the correct option. Middle layer : Zona Fasciculata : : Inner layer : _____ (1) Zona reticularis (2) Zona pellucida (3) Zona glomerulosa (4) Zonula occludens

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