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New York Regents Living Environment January 2012

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LIVING ENVIRONMENT The University of the State of New York REGENTS HIGH SCHOOL EXAMINATION LIVING ENVIRONMENT Wednesday, January 25, 2012 9:15 a.m. to 12:15 p.m., only Student Name _____________________________________________________________ School Name ______________________________________________________________ Print your name and the name of your school on the lines above. A separate answer sheet for multiple-choice questions in Parts A, B 1, B 2, and D has been provided to you. Follow the instructions from the proctor for completing the student information on your answer sheet. You are to answer all questions in all parts of this examination. Record your answers for all multiple-choice questions, including those in Parts B 2 and D, on the separate answer sheet. Record your answers for all open-ended questions directly in this examination booklet. All answers in this examination booklet should be written in pen, except for graphs and drawings, which should be done in pencil. You may use scrap paper to work out the answers to the questions, but be sure to record all your answers on the answer sheet or in this examination booklet as directed. When you have completed the examination, you must sign the declaration printed on your separate answer sheet, indicating that you had no unlawful knowledge of the questions or answers prior to the examination and that you have neither given nor received assistance in answering any of the questions during the examination. Your answer sheet cannot be accepted if you fail to sign this declaration. Notice... A four-function or scientific calculator must be made available for you to use while taking this examination. The use of any communications device is strictly prohibited when taking this examination. If you use any communications device, no matter how briefly, your examination will be invalidated and no score will be calculated for you. DO NOT OPEN THIS EXAMINATION BOOKLET UNTIL THE SIGNAL IS GIVEN. LIVING ENVIRONMENT Part A Answer all questions in this part. [30] Directions (1 30): For each statement or question, record on your separate answer sheet the number of the word or expression that, of those given, best completes the statement or answers the question. 1 Which statement describes an activity of a decomposer? (1) A mushroom digests and absorbs nutrients from organic matter. (2) A sunflower uses nutrients from the soil to make proteins. (3) A snail scrapes algae off rocks in an aquarium. (4) A hawk eats and digests a mouse. 7 Selective breeding has been used for thousands of years to (1) develop bacteria that produce human insulin (2) clone desirable plant varieties (3) develop viruses that protect against diseases (4) produce new varieties of domestic animals 8 A deletion of a DNA segment alters a gene in a single skin cell of an individual. Which statement best describes a result of this mutation? (1) Any cell produced from this skin cell will have the same mutation. (2) All offspring of the individual will have a skin cell mutation. (3) The mutation will spread into other types of cells. (4) The gametes of this individual will have the same mutation. 2 The calcium concentration in the root cells of certain plants is higher than in the surrounding soil. Calcium may continue to enter the root cells of the plant by the process of (1) diffusion (3) active transport (2) respiration (4) protein synthesis 3 Homeostasis is maintained in a single-celled organism by the interaction of (1) organs (3) tissues (2) systems (4) organelles 9 Some goats have been genetically modified with a human gene that codes for a blood anticlotting factor. The anticlotting factor can then be extracted from the goat milk and used during surgery. To produce these genetically modified goats, scientists most likely (1) injected the anticlotting factor into the milkproducing glands of the animals (2) added modified DNA into the milk of the animals (3) inserted the human gene into the egg cells of goats (4) altered the nutritional requirements of newborn goats 4 Within which structure of an animal cell does DNA replication take place? (1) vacuole (3) nucleus (2) cell membrane (4) ribosome 5 The shape of a protein is originally determined by the (1) size of the protein molecule (2) location of the protein within the cell (3) arrangement of amino acids in the protein (4) function the protein must carry out 10 Which characteristic is necessary for natural selection to occur in a species? (1) stability (2) variation (3) complex cellular organization (4) a very low mutation rate 6 Plant cells can synthesize energy-rich organic molecules, and later break them down to extract that energy for performing life processes. These activities require direct interaction between the (1) chloroplasts and vacuoles (2) cell walls and ribosomes (3) chloroplasts and mitochondria (4) ribosomes and mitochondria Living Environment Jan. 12 [2] 15 Although a liver cell and a muscle cell in a human developed from the same single cell, their appearance and functions are different. This is because the liver cell (1) contains different genes than the muscle cell (2) expresses different genes than the muscle cell (3) destroys the muscle cell genes it contains (4) lacks the genes found in muscle cells 11 Researchers use a variety of techniques to learn more about the function of a specific gene in an organism. In one type of experiment, called a loss-of-function experiment, the gene being investigated is eliminated. In a gain-of-function experiment, extra copies of the gene being investigated are inserted. The cell process most directly affected in both experiments is (1) protein synthesis (2) waste disposal (3) transport of materials (4) breakdown of nutrients 16 Sexual reproduction in a species usually results in (1) an increase in the chromosome number in the offspring (2) offspring genetically identical to the parent (3) recombination of genes (4) a decrease in biodiversity 12 Plants are green because they contain the protein chlorophyll. A bucket was left on the lawn for one week. When the bucket was removed, the grass under the bucket had turned from green to a yellowish white color. This change is due to the interaction between the grass and (1) decomposer organisms in the soil, an abiotic factor (2) the amount of sunlight, an abiotic factor (3) increased moisture under the bucket, a biotic factor (4) the metal composition of the bucket, a biotic factor 17 As water flows downhill, its energy can be used to generate electricity. Later, this water may evaporate, fall as rain, and be used again to generate electricity in the same way. This explains why electricity generated with water is considered (1) a source of water pollution (2) a renewable form of energy (3) more expensive than nuclear energy (4) responsible for global warming 13 Which statement describes a function of the human male reproductive system? (1) It produces gametes in testes. (2) It supplies a fluid that protects the fetus. (3) It provides support for the development of the embryo. (4) It provides nutrient materials through a placenta. 18 Scientists have found that although plants require light to carry on photosynthesis, very high levels of sunlight can kill some plants. This illustrates that many biochemical processes may occur (1) more rapidly when temperatures are very high (2) within a specific range of conditions (3) best in the absence of abiotic factors (4) even if homeostasis is disrupted 14 Exposure to toxins during early stages of pregnancy is more likely to cause birth defects than exposure in late pregnancy because (1) essential organs form during early development (2) the uterus provides more protection in late pregnancy (3) the placenta forms during late pregnancy (4) meiosis occurs rapidly during early development Living Environment Jan. 12 19 A relationship between a consumer and producer is best illustrated by a (1) snake eating a bird (2) tree absorbing minerals (3) fungus breaking down wastes (4) deer eating grass [3] [OVER] 20 The evolutionary pathways of several species are represented in the diagram below. Present A B C D E I F E G L Time H E J K Which species was best adapted for survival in changing environmental conditions? (1) A (3) K (2) E (4) L 21 The diagram below represents a microscopic view of blood. A Cell A protects the body by producing specific chemicals in response to pathogens. Cell A is (1) a red blood cell (3) an insulin-producing cell (2) a bacteria cell (4) a white blood cell 22 The diagram below represents a change in guard cells that open and close pores in a plant. Guard cell Open pore Closed pore This change directly helps to (1) increase heterotrophic nutrition (2) absorb minerals Living Environment Jan. 12 (3) regulate water loss (4) reduce seed production [4] 23 Which statement represents a characteristic of an ecosystem that is not likely to sustain itself? (1) The Sun provides the needed energy. (2) Energy is transferred from plants to animals. (3) There are more consumers than producers. (4) There are interactions between biotic and abiotic factors. 26 One way humans can promote the survival of organisms in an ecosystem is to (1) decrease diversity in plant habitats (2) introduce new consumers to control autotrophs (3) release extra CO2 into the atmosphere to help autotrophs (4) learn about the interactions of populations 24 Which statement best explains why different plant species are found at different water depths as represented in the diagram below? 27 Environmentalists are hoping to protect endangered organisms by calling for a reduction in the use of pesticides, because loss of these organisms would (1) increase the mutation rate in plants (2) cause pesticides to become more toxic to insects (3) reduce biodiversity in various ecosystems (4) decrease the space and resources available to other organisms Typha Sparganium Zizania Sagittaria 28 Which farming practice causes the least harm to the environment? (1) using natural predators to reduce insect numbers (2) adding chemical fertilizers to all the crops in the area (3) planting the same crop for 1 year on all the fields in the area (4) planting the same crop in the same field each year for 10 years Myriophyllum Nuphar Chara (1) Energy flows through ecosystems in one direction, typically beginning with photosynthetic organisms. (2) In any particular environment, the growth and survival of organisms is affected by physical conditions. (3) Plants on land are higher up the food chain than plants under water. (4) Plant cells and some one-celled organisms contain chloroplasts. 29 Some bacteria are unable to survive unless a certain nutrient is present in their food supply. After exposure to ultraviolet radiation, some of these bacteria are able to synthesize this nutrient. This change is most likely due to (1) increased respiration (2) exposure to an antigen (3) an alteration in a gene (4) gamete formation 25 Some people see the benefit of wind energy as a clean alternative to fossil fuels for energy production. Others believe it is dangerous for migratory birds. These opinions best illustrate that decisions about alternate energy sources (1) will usually favor older methods of energy production over newer methods (2) must be made by weighing the risks and costs against the benefits (3) must be made by taking into account the present needs of the citizens without looking toward the future (4) should be the responsibility of each individual Living Environment Jan. 12 30 Which action by humans could improve the quality of the air? (1) building homes that use only oil furnaces for heat (2) buying cars that get more miles per gallon of gasoline (3) increasing the number of coal-burning power plants that generate electricity (4) cutting down forests to clear land for factories [5] [OVER] Part B 1 Answer all questions in this part. [13] Directions (31 43): For each statement or question, record on your separate answer sheet the number of the word or expression that, of those given, best completes the statement or answers the question. Base your answers to questions 31 through 33 on the information below and on your knowledge of biology. Euglena are single-celled organisms that live in ponds. All euglena have chloroplasts and can make their own food. They can also take in food from the environment. The diagram below represents a euglena. Flagellum Chloroplast Eyespot Nucleus An experiment was set up to determine the effect of nitrates, a pollutant, on the number of chloroplasts present in euglena. Five tanks were set up, each with euglena and a different concentration of nitrate solution: 0%, 0.5%, 1.0%, 1.5%, and 2.0%. The tanks were placed in a sunny location where each tank received the same amount of light. 31 Which statement is a possible hypothesis for this experiment that could be supported by the results of this experiment? (1) If the average number of chloroplasts in euglena decreases, will less nitrate be needed in each tank? (2) If the nitrate concentration is increased, then the euglena will have a lower average number of chloroplasts. (3) If the number of euglena in a tank increases, will more nitrates be produced? (4) If the nitrate concentration is decreased, then more light will reduce the average number of chloroplasts in euglena. 32 Which statement correctly identifies a variable in this experiment? (1) The independent variable is the concentration of nitrate solution used. (2) The dependent variable is the number of euglena placed in the tanks. (3) The independent variable is the amount of sunlight. (4) The dependent variable is the number of tanks used. 33 Euglena can be classified as both (1) an autotroph and a parasite (2) a decomposer and a heterotroph Living Environment Jan. 12 (3) a producer and a parasite (4) an autotroph and a heterotroph [6] 34 Two methods of reproduction are represented in the diagram below. Method A Method B Original organism 1 Original organism Egg cell Body cell Nucleus removed Offspring Embryo implanted in organism 2 Organism 2 Offspring How does the DNA in the offspring produced by these methods compare to the DNA in the original organism? (1) The offspring contain half the original number of chromosomes in each method. (2) The DNA in the offspring is genetically identical to that of the original organism in both methods. (3) The offspring produced by method A contain twice the original number of genes, while those produced by method B contain half the original number of genes. (4) The number of DNA bases is less than that of the original organism in method A, but more than the original number in method B. 35 Puppies are often given medicine to eliminate roundworms from their intestines. These worms consume some of the food the puppies have digested. The worms and the puppies represent a relationship known as (1) predator prey (3) parasite host (2) consumer producer (4) autotroph heterotroph Living Environment Jan. 12 [7] [OVER] 39 The graph below shows the results of an action of the enzyme catalase on a piece of meat. Evidence of enzyme activity is indicated by bubbles of oxygen. 36 The diagram below represents cells and hormones present in the human body. Hormone A Cell 2 Hormone B Number of Bubbles Per Second Cell 1 Hormone C Which statement correctly describes an interaction between the hormones and the cells? (1) Hormone A is synthesized by cell 2 and targets cell 1. (2) Hormone B bonds with both cell 1 and cell 2. (3) Specific reactions carried out by cell 1 are regulated by hormone C. (4) The specialized receptor molecules on cell 1 secrete hormone B. Influence of Temperature on Oxygen Production 15 10 5 0 10 20 30 60 40 Which process is represented in the diagram below? A B C D (3) C (4) D (1) (2) (3) (4) 38 In a DNA sample, 15% of the bases are thymine (T). What percentage of the bases in this sample are adenine (A)? (1) 15% (3) 35% (2) 30% (4) 85% Living Environment Jan. 12 50 Which statement best summarizes the activity of catalase shown in the graph? (1) The enzyme works better at 10 C than at 50 C. (2) The enzyme works better at 5 C than at 65 C. (3) The enzyme works better at 35 C than at either temperature extreme. (4) The enzyme works at the same level in all environments. 37 In the diagram below, which letter indicates the part of the cell that carries out a function most similar to a function of the human excretory system? (1) A (2) B 40 [8] energy flow biological evolution cellular communication ecological succession Base your answers to questions 41 and 42 on the diagram below and on your knowledge of biology. The diagram represents various levels of interaction between organisms in a prairie ecosystem. Prairie Ecosystem Hawks Sunlight Rattlesnakes Locusts Molds, bacteria, yeasts Quail Prairie dogs Indian grass Wheat Corn Raw materials 41 If the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere were to decrease, which organism in the diagram would be one of the first affected by this change? (1) hawks (3) locusts (2) wheat (4) molds 42 Which statement best describes a function of the molds, bacteria, and yeasts in this ecosystem? (1) They convert light energy into chemical energy. (2) They carry out a food-making process, using inorganic raw materials. (3) They break down dead organisms, releasing raw materials to the environment. (4) They act as catalysts to speed up the energy flow between organisms. 43 The diagram below represents the measurement of a biological specimen. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 cm What is the approximate length of the specimen in millimeters? (1) 25 mm (3) 35 mm (2) 30 mm (4) 40 mm Living Environment Jan. 12 [9] [OVER] Part B 2 Answer all questions in this part. [12] Directions (44 55): For those questions that are multiple choice, record on your separate answer sheet the number of the choice that, of those given, best completes each statement or answers each question. For all other questions in this part, follow the directions given and record your answers in the spaces provided in this examination booklet. Base your answers to questions 44 through 48 on the information and data table below and on your knowledge of biology. Diabetes is a disease characterized by consistently high blood glucose levels (at or above 126 mg/100 mL) as a result of hormone deficiency. For a study of diabetes, blood glucose levels from individual A and individual B were recorded each hour over a 5-hour period following a meal. The results are shown in the data table below. Blood Glucose Levels (mg/100 mL) Hours Individual A Individual B 0 135 90 1 175 122 2 200 110 3 185 87 4 165 85 5 150 90 Directions (44 46): Using the information in the data table, construct a line graph on the grid on the next page, following the directions below. 44 Mark an appropriate scale, without any breaks, on each labeled axis. [1] 45 Plot the data for individual A on the grid, surround each point with a small circle, and connect the points. [1] Example: 46 Plot the data for individual B on the grid, surround each point with a small triangle, and connect the points. [1] Example: Living Environment Jan. 12 [10] Blood Glucose Levels Key = Individual A Blood Glucose (mg/100 mL) = Individual B Time (hr) Note: The answer to question 47 should be recorded on your separate answer sheet. 47 Which individual most likely has diabetes? (1) A (2) B (3) both A and B (4) neither A nor B 48 Identify one hormone associated with the maintenance of blood glucose levels. [1] ___________________________________________ Living Environment Jan. 12 [11] [OVER] Base your answers to questions 49 and 50 on the food chain and information below. The food chain involves organisms in Yellowstone National Park. Grasses Elk Wolves Wolves in the park were killed or driven off by humans in the 1920s and 1930s. In the winter of 1995, humans released 17 wolves from Canada into the park. A year later, 14 more wolves were released. Note: The answers to questions 49 and 50 should be recorded on your separate answer sheet. 49 One possible reason that the wolves were released into the park was to (1) eliminate unwanted autotrophs (3) provide food for small predators (2) reduce an overpopulation of elk (4) increase the number of herbivores 50 After the wolves were released, the populations of some scavengers increased. This was most likely due to (1) a reduction in predator populations (3) an increase in the number of dead elk (2) a decrease in the number of grasses (4) an increase in water supplies Base your answer to question 51 on the information below and on your knowledge of biology. Dissolved oxygen (DO) can be found in an aquatic ecosystem and is often one factor that affects the size of populations of aquatic organisms. Water temperature is very important in determining the amount of DO in a water supply. The colder the temperature of the water, the more DO the water can hold. 51 State one possible reason why the biodiversity of an aquatic ecosystem could decrease if the water temperature were to increase. Support your answer. [1] Living Environment Jan. 12 [12] Base your answers to questions 52 through 54 on the passage below and on your knowledge of biology. Polio is a virus that can cause paralysis or death. At its peak, the disease affected about 500,000 people a year worldwide before the development of an effective vaccine in 1955. When the first polio vaccine was developed, it was tested in experiments using thousands of children as subjects. The children were injected with either the experimental vaccine or given a harmless injection without the vaccine. Only after these extensive tests was the vaccine finally accepted as being successful in preventing the disease. Although, at this time, polio has been nearly eliminated in the Western Hemisphere, certain countries in the world still report new cases of the disease. Complete elimination of the disease can be achieved in these countries by vaccinating all of the children at the same time with the polio vaccine. 52 Identify the substance in the polio vaccine that makes it effective. [1] 53 Describe how the body responds to the vaccine, making it effective against a particular disease. [1] 54 Explain why the children in the first testing of the polio vaccine were not all given an injection of the experimental vaccine. [1] Base your answer to question 55 on the information below and on your knowledge of biology. In many areas, there are some small mammals whose fur color is influenced by temperature. In these animals, the trait for fur color is expressed only if the air temperature is above a certain level. In cold weather, when the ground is covered with snow, the trait is not expressed and the fur color is white. 55 Explain how the fur color change trait may help the small mammals survive. [1] Living Environment Jan. 12 [13] [OVER] Part C Answer all questions in this part. [17] Directions (56 72): Record your answers in the spaces provided in this examination booklet. Base your answer to question 56 60 on the information below and on your knowledge of biology. New varieties of organisms have resulted from human activities. These organisms have often led to problems in modern society. Two of these new varieties are listed below. Antibiotic-resistant bacteria Pesticide-resistant insects 56 60 Select one of these varieties and discuss a problem associated with the development of this new variety of organism. In your answer, be sure to: identify the variety you selected identify one biological process by which a population of this variety may develop resistance [1] describe how this process is involved in the production of a population of resistant organisms [1] identify one problem caused by this resistance [1] state one solution to this problem [1] identify one possible negative effect of this solution [1] Variety: ________________________________ Living Environment Jan. 12 [14] Base your answer to question 61 63 on the passage below and on your knowledge of biology. Green Tea & Acne Green tea might be an effective treatment for acne, according to a study by researchers from Memorial Medical Center in the Philippines, reported by United Press International (UPI). The study showed that 3 percent green tea cream is comparable to 4 percent benzoyl peroxide in the treatment of moderate to severe acne. Green tea has been shown to fight bacteria, reduce inflammation and decrease hormone activity three characteristics that make the ancient tea an excellent candidate for an acne therapy. In the study, one group of subjects applied benzoyl peroxide cream twice daily for 12 weeks and another used green tea extract cream twice daily for the same period. Patients received identical bottles of cream and were unaware of the type of treatment they were assigned. The researchers noted the green tea cream seemed to lighten patients [acne] and improve the overall appearance of their complexion. The preliminary data suggest green tea extract cream causes fewer side effects than benzoyl peroxide treatment. Patients in the green tea group reported fewer cases of dry skin, itching and allergic responses. Azucena Arguelles, MD, a private practice dermatologist from Mountain View, CA, told UPI that the findings, while promising, are not yet substantial enough to change clinical practice. Advance for Nurses, Nov. 10, 2003, Green Tea & Acne, www.advanceweb.com 61 63 Explain how this experiment can be used to develop a new treatment for acne. In your answer, be sure to: identify the organism targeted by green tea [1] identify one advantage of using green tea extract instead of benzoyl peroxide cream to treat acne [1] state one reason why, even though the findings are promising, they are not yet substantial enough to change clinical practice [1] Living Environment Jan. 12 [15] [OVER] Base your answers to questions 64 and 65 on the information below and on your knowledge of biology. Raw eggs and undercooked poultry may contain Salmonella bacteria. These bacteria can cause food poisoning by invading the cells lining the small intestine and producing a toxin that causes inflammation in the intestine. Symptoms usually appear 24 to 48 hours after the bacteria are ingested. Symptoms include fever, diarrhea, vomiting, dehydration, and abdominal pain that may last for several days. 64 Explain why Salmonella bacteria are described as pathogens. [1] 65 State one possible reason why the symptoms of food poisoning do not appear for 24 to 48 hours after eating food contaminated with Salmonella bacteria. [1] 66 68 A student was visiting a friend at her home. Her friend owned two cats. After playing with the cats for a while, the student began to sneeze. Her nose began to run and her eyes became red, watery, and itchy. It also became hard for her to breathe. A few minutes after leaving her friend s home, the symptoms disappeared. Provide a biological explanation for the symptoms the girl developed at her friend s house. In your response, be sure to: identify the body system that was responsible for triggering the reaction she experienced [1] identify the type of reaction the student was most likely experiencing [1] state one reason why her symptoms are not likely due to an infectious agent [1] Living Environment Jan. 12 [16] Base your answer to question 69 72 on the information below and on your knowledge of biology. Environmentalists and public health experts are warning the public about some chemicals that they come in contact with daily, such as PBDEs and phthalates. PBDEs are used to make children s clothing flame retardant and phthalates are used to manufacture many plastic bottles, toys, and cosmetics. Both of these chemicals accumulate in the body and endanger health. In one family tested, the young children had PBDE levels seven times that of their parents. These levels were two to three times the levels that caused thyroid problems in animals. Animal studies have shown that phthalates cause reproductive defects. Even at low levels, phthalates may contribute to infertility and impaired testes in males. Both chemicals can cause nervous system damage. Biomonitoring is a technology used to test for levels of industrial chemicals found in the body. The technology is less than ten years old, but results from animal studies led some countries to ban PBDEs in 2004. Presently, the United States EPA (Environmental Protection Agency) does not require chemical manufacturers to conduct human toxicity studies prior to approval for use. If concerns regarding risk or exposure arise during the approval process, the EPA can ask for additional testing. Additional testing occurs for approximately 10 percent of the new chemicals submitted each year. The EPA has also set up voluntary testing programs with major chemical manufacturers to rate some of the 3,000 most widely used chemicals. 69 72 The use of industrial chemicals, such as PBDEs and phthalates, provides both advantages and disadvantages. Discuss the disadvantages of using these chemicals. In your answer, be sure to: state one specific reason why public health officials are concerned about the use of these chemicals [1] identify the technique used to determine exposure levels to these chemicals in humans [1] state one possible reason why young children might have higher levels of exposure to these chemicals than do adults [1] state one possible reason why chemical manufacturers might participate in the voluntary testing programs set up by the EPA [1] Living Environment Jan. 12 [17] [OVER] Part D Answer all questions in this part. [13] Directions (73 85): For those questions that are multiple choice, record on your separate answer sheet the number of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. For all other questions in this part, follow the directions given and record your answers in the spaces provided in this examination booklet. Note: The answer to question 73 should be recorded on your separate answer sheet. 73 The materials represented in the diagram below were used in a laboratory activity. Bc Bc X Y X Y Z Z Water These materials were used to carry out the technique known as (1) DNA staining (3) paper chromatography (2) genetic engineering (4) glucose testing Note: The answer to question 74 should be recorded on your separate answer sheet. 74 A coverslip should be slowly lowered from a 45 angle onto a slide in order to (1) prevent the slide from being scratched (2) stop the loss of water from under the coverslip (3) ensure that the specimen being viewed will stay alive (4) reduce the formation of air bubbles Note: The answer to question 75 should be recorded on your separate answer sheet. 75 A substance is most likely to diffuse into a cell when (1) it is a large organic food molecule such as protein or starch (2) it is enclosed in an organelle such as a vacuole (3) the concentration of the substance is greater outside the cell than inside (4) the pH of the substance is greater than the pH of the cell Living Environment Jan. 12 [18] Base your answers to questions 76 and 77 on the information and data table below and on your knowledge of biology. Five students design an experiment to answer the question: How is heart rate affected by running? Two chairs were set up at different ends of a large room. The pulse rate of each student was taken at rest just before running. Each of the five students ran between the chairs a different number of times. Their pulse rates were taken after running and the results are shown in the table below. Effect of Running on Heart Rate Student Number of Times the Student Ran Between the Chairs Pulse Rate After Running (beats/min) A 2 88 B 4 96 C 6 104 D 8 112 E 10 120 Note: The answer to question 76 should be recorded on your separate answer sheet. 76 If a control group is not included in an experiment, it would be difficult to (1) formulate a hypothesis for the experiment (3) record data in a data table (2) make observations about the experimental group (4) draw a valid conclusion 77 Explain how the change in heart rate helps to maintain homeostasis during exercise. [1] Living Environment Jan. 12 [19] [OVER] Base your answers to questions 78 through 80 on the information below and on your knowledge of biology. The sequences below represent the same portions of a DNA molecule from the same gene used by a student to study the relationship between two plant species. A biological catalyst that recognizes the CCGG site is used to cut the DNA molecules into pieces. The catalyst cuts the DNA between the C and G of the site. 78 Draw lines in the sequences below for species 1 and species 2 to show where the catalyst would cut the DNA. [1] Species 1: T A C C G G A T T A G T T A T G C C G G A T C G Species 2: T A C G G A T G C C G G A T C G G A A A T T C G 79 Complete the data table below to show the results of the action of the catalyst. [1] Results of Catalyst Action Number of Cuts Number of Resulting Pieces of DNA Species 1 Species 2 80 Are the two species of plants closely related? Support your answer. [1] Living Environment Jan. 12 [20] Base your answer to question 81 on the information and diagrams below and on your knowledge of biology. The drawings below were made during a laboratory exercise in which a microscope was used to view slides of preserved protozoa. The microscope had a 10 eyepiece and two different objectives. Organism A viewed with 10 objective Organism B viewed with 40 objective Note: The answer to question 81 should be recorded on your separate answer sheet. 81 Which statement about the size of the organisms is correct? (1) Organism A is larger than organism B. (2) Organism B is larger than organism A. (3) Organisms A and B are both the same size. (4) The relative size of the organisms cannot be determined from the information given. Note: The answer to question 82 should be recorded on your separate answer sheet. 82 A student performed a gel electrophoresis experiment. The results are represented in the diagram below. Electrode Well Samples Fragment motion Buffer Gel Electrode Plastic frame Compared to the fragments at the top of the gel, the fragments at the lower end are (1) larger, and move slower (2) larger, and move faster Living Environment Jan. 12 (3) smaller, and move faster (4) smaller, and move slower [21] [OVER] Base your answers to questions 83 through 85 on the diagram below and on your knowledge of biology. Variations in Beaks of Galapagos Islands Finches Large ground finch Medium ground finch Pr Mainly animal food All animal food Large tree finch i ng tip s Mainly plant food a s p i n g b ill s Sharp-billed ground finch ill s Gr E d g e cru sh in C r u s hi n g b g B it Small ground finch Vegetarian finch obing bills Probing Cactus finch Small tree finch Woodpecker finch Warbler finch from: Galapagos: A Natural History Guide 83 On an island populated by both warbler finches and small tree finches, there is a significant decrease in the amount of animal food. Which finch population would decrease more? Support your answer. [1] Finch population: ________________________________________ Living Environment Jan. 12 [22] 84 Identify one species of finch that would most likely survive a sudden change in climate that destroyed seeds with small, thin coverings, leaving only seeds with large, thick coverings. Support your answer. [1] Species of finch: ________________________________________ 85 An island has populations of both the cactus finch and sharp-billed ground finch. Explain how these finches can live on the same island even though these finches have similar beaks and both eat plants. [1] Living Environment Jan. 12 [23] LIVING ENVIRONMENT Printed on Recycled Paper LIVING ENVIRONMENT FOR TEACHERS ONLY The University of the State of New York REGENTS HIGH SCHOOL EXAMINATION LE LIVING ENVIRONMENT Wednesday, January 25, 2012 9:15 a.m. to 12:15 p.m., only SCORING KEY AND RATING GUIDE Directions to the Teacher: Refer to the directions on page 2 before rating student papers. Updated information regarding the rating of this examination may be posted on the New York State Education Department s web site during the rating period. Check this web site at: http://www.p12.nysed.gov/apda/ and select the link Scoring Information for any recently posted information regarding this examination. This site should be checked before the rating process for this examination begins and several times throughout the Regents Examination period. Multiple Choice for Parts A, B 1, B 2, and D Allow 1 credit for each correct response. Part A 1 ......1...... 9 ......3...... 17 . . . . . . 2 . . . . . . 25 . . . . . . 2 . . . . . . 2 ......3...... 10 . . . . . . 2 . . . . . . 18 . . . . . . 2 . . . . . . 26 . . . . . . 4 . . . . . . 3 ......4...... 11 . . . . . . 1 . . . . . . 19 . . . . . . 4 . . . . . . 27 . . . . . . 3 . . . . . . 4 ......3...... 12 . . . . . . 2 . . . . . . 20 . . . . . . 2 . . . . . . 28 . . . . . . 1 . . . . . . 5 ......3...... 13 . . . . . . 1 . . . . . . 21 . . . . . . 4 . . . . . . 29 . . . . . . 3 . . . . . . 6 ......3...... 14 . . . . . . 1 . . . . . . 22 . . . . . . 3 . . . . . . 30 . . . . . . 2 . . . . . . 7 ......4...... 15 . . . . . . 2 . . . . . . 23 . . . . . . 3 . . . . . . 8 ......1...... 16 . . . . . . 3 . . . . . . 24 . . . . . . 2 . . . . . . Part B 1 31 . . . . . . 2 . . . . . . 35 . . . . . . 3 . . . . . . 39 . . . . . . 3 . . . . . . 32 . . . . . . 1 . . . . . . 36 . . . . . . 3 . . . . . . 40 . . . . . . 4 . . . . . . 33 . . . . . . 4 . . . . . . 37 . . . . . . 2 . . . . . . 41 . . . . . . 2 . . . . . . 34 . . . . . . 2 . . . . . . 38 . . . . . . 1 . . . . . . 42 . . . . . . 3 . . . . . . Part B 2 47 . . . . . . 1 . . . . . . 49 . . . . . . 2 . . . . . . 50 . . . . . . 3 . . . . . . 73 . . . . . . 3 . . . . . . 75 . . . . . . 3 . . . . . . Part D 81 . . . . . . 1 . . . . . . 74 . . . . . . 4 . . . . . . 76 . . . . . . 4 . . . . . . 82 . . . . . . 3 . . . . . . 43 . . . . . . 1 . . . . . . Directions to the Teacher Follow the procedures below for scoring student answer papers for the Regents Examination in Living Environment. Additional information about scoring is provided in the publication Information Booklet for Scoring Regents Examinations in the Sciences. Do not attempt to correct the student s work by making insertions or changes of any kind. Allow 1 credit for each correct response. At least two science teachers must participate in the scoring of the Part B 2, Part C, and Part D openended questions on a student s paper. Each of these teachers should be responsible for scoring a selected number of the open-ended questions on each answer paper. No one teacher is to score more than approximately one-half of the open-ended questions on a student s answer paper. Students responses must be scored strictly according to the Scoring Key and Rating Guide. For openended questions, credit may be allowed for responses other than those given in the rating guide if the response is a scientifically accurate answer to the question and demonstrates adequate knowledge as indicated by the examples in the rating guide. On the student s separate answer sheet, for each question, record the number of credits earned and the teacher s assigned rater/scorer letter. Fractional credit is not allowed. Only whole-number credit may be given for a response. If the student gives more than one answer to a question, only the first answer should be rated. Units need not be given when the wording of the questions allows such omissions. For hand scoring, raters should enter the scores earned in the appropriate boxes printed on the separate answer sheet. Next, the rater should add these scores and enter the total in the box labeled Total Raw Score. Then the student s raw score should be converted to a scale score by using the conversion chart that will be posted on the Department s web site at: http://www.p12.nysed.gov/apda/ on Wednesday, January 25, 2012. The student s scale score should be entered in the box labeled Scale Score on the student s answer sheet. The scale score is the student s final examination score. Schools are not permitted to rescore any of the open-ended questions on this exam after each question has been rated once regardless of the final exam score. Schools are required to ensure that the raw scores have been added correctly and that the resulting scale score has been determined accurately. Because scale scores corresponding to raw scores in the conversion chart may change from one administration to another, it is crucial that for each administration, the conversion chart provided for that administration be used to determine the student s final score. Living Environment Rating Guide Jan. 12 [2] Part B 2 44 [1] Allow 1 credit for marking an appropriate scale, without any breaks, on each labeled axis. 45 [1] Allow 1 credit for correctly plotting the data for individual A, surrounding each point with a small circle, and connecting the points. 46 [1] Allow 1 credit for correctly plotting the data for individual B, surrounding each point with a small triangle, and connecting the points. Example of a 3-credit graph for questions 44 46: Blood Glucose Levels Key = Individual A Blood Glucose (mg/100 mL) = Individual B 200 180 160 140 120 100 80 0 1 2 3 4 5 Time (hr) Note: Allow credit only if circles and triangles are used. Do not assume that the intersection of the x- and y-axes is the origin (0.0) unless it is labeled. An appropriate scale only needs to include the data range in the data table. Do not allow credit for plotting points that are not in the data table, e.g., (0.0), or for extending lines beyond the data points. Do not deduct more than 1 credit for plotting points that are not in the data table or for extending lines beyond the data points. Living Environment Rating Guide Jan. 12 [3] 47 MC on scoring key 48 [1] Allow 1 credit for insulin or glucagon. 49 MC on scoring key 50 MC on scoring key 51 [1] Allow 1 credit. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: Warmer water holds less oxygen, so some species would not have enough oxygen to live. There would be less oxygen available for organisms and some organisms may die off. 52 [1] Allow 1 credit. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: dead/weakened pathogen antigens a small piece of the virus/viral coat Note: Do not accept a little bit of the disease or a small amount of the virus. 53 [1] Allow 1 credit. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: The body responds to the vaccine by producing antibodies to protect against polio. The vaccine triggers an immune response against a particular disease. The immune system is activated to fight off the virus. 54 [1] Allow 1 credit. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: The children who did not receive the vaccine served as the control group. They needed a group for comparison. 55 [1] Allow 1 credit. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: The trait increases chances for survival of the small mammals by helping them blend into their environment. They can avoid being eaten by predators if they are camouflaged. Living Environment Rating Guide Jan. 12 [4] Part C Note: The student s response to the bulleted items in question 56 60 need not appear in the following order. 56 [1] Allow 1 credit for identifying one biological process by which a population of this variety may develop resistance. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: natural selection evolution reproduction mutation 57 [1] Allow 1 credit for describing how this process is involved in the production of a population of resistant organisms. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: Natural Selection: The population had some members that were naturally resistant to antibiotics. They survived and reproduced, passing on the resistance. Evolution: Some organisms were resistant to the pesticide. They survived and passed on the trait. Reproduction: Resistant members survived and passed on the trait. Mutation: It produces variations that give some organisms a survival advantage. Note: Allow credit for a response consistent with the process identified in question 56. 58 [1] Allow 1 credit for identifying one problem caused by this resistance. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: Resistant bacteria will survive and continue to make people sick. Insects will continue to destroy crops. Antibiotics do not work anymore. There will be less food available. 59 [1] Allow 1 credit for stating one solution to this problem. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: Do not use antibiotics/antibacterial products unless needed. Use different antibiotics or pesticides. Use a natural predator for pests. Insert genes into plants that will make them resistant to bacteria or pests. Research and find new antibiotics/ways of controlling insect pests. Note: Allow credit for a response consistent with the problem identified in question 58. Living Environment Rating Guide Jan. 12 [5] 60 [1] Allow 1 credit for identifying one possible negative effect of this solution. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: People might be sick longer. More people could get sick. Organisms may become resistant to other treatments. Natural predators may get out of control. Inserted genes may have an undesired effect. Research takes a lot of time and money. Note: Allow credit for a response consistent with the student s solution to question 59. Note: The student s response to the bulleted items in question 61 63 need not appear in the following order. 61 [1] Allow 1 credit for identifying the organism targeted by green tea. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: bacteria acne C. acnes Propionibacterium acnes 62 [1] Allow 1 credit for identifying one advantage of using green tea extract instead of benzoyl peroxide cream to treat acne. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: causes fewer side effects less itching lightening of acne on the skin improved overall complexion 63 [1] Allow 1 credit for stating one reason why, even though the findings are promising, they are not yet substantial enough to change clinical practice. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: need to repeat experiment to see if results are the same need a larger sample group need to see if side effects occur later on Living Environment Rating Guide Jan. 12 [6] 64 [1] Allow 1 credit. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: It is an organism that causes disease. produces toxins that cause fewer and other symptoms because it invades cells and causes food poisoning Salmonella makes people sick. 65 [1] Allow 1 credit. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: It takes time for the bacteria to reproduce. It takes time for the bacteria to produce enough toxins. It takes time for the bacteria to invade intestine walls. It takes time for the bacteria to cause inflammation. Note: The student s response to the bulleted items in question 66 68 need not appear in the following order. 66 [1] Allow 1 credit for identifying the body system that was responsible for triggering the reaction she experienced as the immune system. 67 [1] Allow 1 credit for identifying the type of reaction the student was most likely experiencing. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: an allergic reaction or allergy an immune response to a usually harmless substance 68 [1] Allow 1 credit for stating one reason why her symptoms are not likely due to an infectious agent. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: An infection would probably take longer to develop. An infection by a pathogen would probably not end so suddenly. The symptoms went away when she left her friend s house. Living Environment Rating Guide Jan. 12 [7] Note: The student s response to the bulleted items in question 69 72 need not appear in the following order. 69 [1] Allow 1 credit for stating one specific reason why public health officials are concerned about the use of these chemicals. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: These chemicals have been found to cause health problems in animals and in humans. PBDEs have been found to cause thyroid problems and nervous system damage in animals. Phthalates may contribute to infertility. 70 [1] Allow 1 credit for identifying the technique used to determine exposure levels to these chemicals in humans as biomonitoring. 71 [1] Allow 1 credit for stating one possible reason why young children might have higher levels of exposure to these chemicals than do adults. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: Young children have more contact with the products that contain these chemicals. Young children play with more toys/use baby bottles. Children wear flame-retardant clothing. 72 [1] Allow 1 credit for stating one possible reason why chemical manufacturers might participate in the voluntary testing programs set up by the EPA. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: They may participate to prevent being sued in the future. They may participate because it improves their public image. They may participate to make sure their product is safe. Living Environment Rating Guide Jan. 12 [8] Part D 73 MC on scoring key 74 MC on scoring key 75 MC on scoring key 76 MC on scoring key 77 [1] Allow 1 credit. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: The heart rate increases, which transports more oxygen from the lungs to the muscle cells. The heart beats faster and transports carbon dioxide to the lungs faster for elimination. Increased heart rate removes wastes from cells more rapidly. 78 [1] Allow 1 credit. Example of a 1-credit response: Species 1: T A C C | G G A T T A G T T A T G C C | G G A T C G Species 2: T A C G G A T G C C | G G A T C G G A A A T T C G 79 [1] Allow 1 credit. Example of a 1-credit response: Results of Catalyst Action Number of Cuts Number of Resulting Pieces of DNA Species 1 2 3 Species 2 1 2 Note: Allow credit for an answer consistent with the student s response to question 78. Living Environment Rating Guide Jan. 12 [9] 80 [1] Allow 1 credit. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: No, the biological catalyst made two cuts in species 1 DNA and only one cut in species 2 DNA. No, the catalyst cut the DNA of species 1 into three pieces and cut the DNA of species 2 into only two. No, 15 out of 24 bases are different. No, the base sequences are very different. Note: Allow credit for an answer consistent with the student s response to question 79. 81 MC on scoring key 82 MC on scoring key 83 [1] Allow 1 credit for warbler finch and supporting the answer. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: Small tree finches may eat some plant food, while warbler finches eat only animal food. Warbler finches eat only animal food, while small tree finches may eat some plant food. 84 [1] Allow 1 credit for identifying one species of finch that would most likely survive a sudden change in climate that destroyed seeds with small, thin coverings, leaving only seeds with large, thick coverings, and supporting the answer. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: large ground finch or medium ground finch or small ground finch or sharp-billed ground finch because it has a large crushing beak and eats mainly plant food large/small tree finch or woodpecker finch or warbler finch because they don t eat much plant food The warbler finch eats only animal food, so it would not be affected. 85 [1] Allow 1 credit. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: different niches eat at different times live in different areas amount of food was sufficient to support both may eat different plants/different parts of plant Living Environment Rating Guide Jan. 12 [10] The Chart for Determining the Final Examination Score for the January 2012 Regents Examination in Living Environment will be posted on the Department s web site at: http://www.p12.nysed.gov/apda/ on Wednesday, January 25, 2012. Conversion charts provided for previous administrations of the Regents Examination in Living Environment must NOT be used to determine students final scores for this administration. Online Submission of Teacher Evaluations of the Test to the Department Suggestions and feedback from teachers provide an important contribution to the test development process. The Department provides an online evaluation form for State assessments. It contains spaces for teachers to respond to several specific questions and to make suggestions. Instructions for completing the evaluation form are as follows: 1. Go to http://www.forms2.nysed.gov/emsc/osa/exameval/reexameval.cfm. 2. Select the test title. 3. Complete the required demographic fields. 4. Complete each evaluation question and provide comments in the space provided. 5. Click the SUBMIT button at the bottom of the page to submit the completed form. Living Environment Rating Guide Jan. 12 [11] Map to Core Curriculum January 2012 Living Environment Q uestion Numbers Standards Part A 1 30 Part B 1 31 43 Part B 2 44 55 Part C 56 72 Standard 1 Analysis, Inquiry and Design Key Idea 1 61, 62, 63 Key Idea 2 31 Key Idea 3 39 Appendix A (Laboratory Checklist) 44, 45, 46 32, 43 Standard 4 Key Idea 1 Key Idea 2 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 18, 33, 36, 37 19 5, 7, 8, 9, 11, 12, 38 15 Key Idea 3 10, 20, 29 Key Idea 4 13, 14, 16 Key Idea 5 21, 22 Key Idea 6 23, 24, 26 Key Idea 7 17, 25, 27, 28, 30 55 34 47, 48, 52, 53, 54 35, 40, 41, 42 76, 77 Lab 3 83, 84, 85 Lab 5 74, 75, 81 Living Environment Rating Guide Jan. 12 64, 66, 67, 68 49, 51 69, 70, 71, 72 73, 78, 79, 80, 82 Lab 2 56, 57, 58, 59, 60 65 Part D 73 85 Lab 1 50 [12]

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