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New York Regents Living Environment June 2007

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LIVING ENVIRONMENT The University of the State of New York REGENTS HIGH SCHOOL EXAMINATION LIVING ENVIRONMENT Wednesday, June 20, 2007 9:15 a.m. to 12:15 p.m., only Student Name _____________________________________________________________ School Name ______________________________________________________________ Print your name and the name of your school on the lines above. Then turn to the last page of this booklet, which is the answer sheet for Part A and Part B 1. Fold the last page along the perforations and, slowly and carefully, tear off the answer sheet. Then fill in the heading of your answer sheet. You are to answer all questions in all parts of this examination. Write your answers to the Part A and Part B 1 multiple-choice questions on the separate answer sheet. Write your answers for the questions in Parts B 2, C, and D directly in this examination booklet. All answers should be written in pen, except for graphs and drawings which should be done in pencil. You may use scrap paper to work out the answers to the questions, but be sure to record all your answers on the answer sheet and in this examination booklet. When you have completed the examination, you must sign the statement printed on your separate answer sheet, indicating that you had no unlawful knowledge of the questions or answers prior to the examination and that you have neither given nor received assistance in answering any of the questions during the examination. Your answer sheet cannot be accepted if you fail to sign this declaration. The use of any communications device is strictly prohibited when taking this examination. If you use any communications device, no matter how briefly, your examination will be invalidated and no score will be calculated for you. DO NOT OPEN THIS EXAMINATION BOOKLET UNTIL THE SIGNAL IS GIVEN. LIVING ENVIRONMENT Part A Answer all questions in this part. [30] Directions (1 30): For each statement or question, write on your separate answer sheet the number of the word or expression that, of those given, best completes the statement or answers the question. 4 A protein on the surface of HIV can attach to proteins on the surface of healthy human cells. These attachment sites on the surface of the cells are known as (1) receptor molecules (3) molecular bases (2) genetic codes (4) inorganic catalysts 1 Which statement describes a role of fungi in an ecosystem? (1) They transfer energy to decaying matter. (2) They release oxygen into the ecosystem. (3) They recycle chemicals from dead organisms. (4) They synthesize organic nutrients from inorganic substances. 5 Contractile vacuoles maintain water balance by pumping excess water out of some single-celled pond organisms. In humans, the kidney is chiefly involved in maintaining water balance. These facts best illustrate that (1) tissues, organs, and organ systems work together to maintain homeostasis in all living things (2) interference with nerve signals disrupts cellular communication and homeostasis within organisms (3) a disruption in a body system may disrupt the homeostasis of a single-celled organism (4) structures found in single-celled organisms can act in a manner similar to tissues and organs in multicellular organisms 2 Which diagram best represents the levels of organization in the human body? Tissues C e ll s C ell s Organs n syste ga s Or m Tissues Organ systems Organs (1) (3) gan systems Or Organs gan systems Or Tissues Tissues Organs Cells Cells (2) (4) 6 Which statement best explains the observation that clones produced from the same organism may not be identical? (1) Events in meiosis result in variation. (2) Gene expression can be influenced by the environment. (3) Differentiated cells have different genes. (4) Half the genetic information in offspring comes from each parent. 3 Which situation indicates that a disruption of homeostasis has taken place? (1) the presence of hormones that keep the blood sugar level steady (2) the maintenance of a constant body temperature (3) cell division that is involved in normal growth (4) a rapid rise in the number of red blood cells Living Environment June 07 7 A change in the base subunit sequence during DNA replication can result in (1) variation within an organism (2) rapid evolution of an organism (3) synthesis of antigens to protect the cell (4) recombination of genes within the cell [2] 11 The flounder is a species of fish that can live in very cold water. The fish produces an antifreeze protein that prevents ice crystals from forming in its blood. The DNA for this protein has been identified. An enzyme is used to cut and remove this section of flounder DNA that is then spliced into the DNA of a strawberry plant. As a result, the plant can now produce a protein that makes it more resistant to the damaging effects of frost. This process is known as (1) sorting of genes (2) genetic engineering (3) recombination of chromosomes (4) mutation by deletion of genetic material 8 The diagram below represents a yeast cell that is in the process of budding, a form of asexual reproduction. Nucleus Bud Nucleus Which statement describes the outcome of this process? (1) The bud will develop into a zygote. (2) The two cells that result will each contain half the species number of chromosomes. (3) The two cells that result will have identical DNA. (4) The bud will start to divide by the process of meiotic cell division. 12 Some human body structures are represented in the diagram below. 1 9 Two proteins in the same cell perform different functions. This is because the two proteins are composed of (1) chains folded the same way and the same sequence of simple sugars (2) chains folded the same way and the same sequence of amino acids (3) chains folded differently and a different sequence of simple sugars (4) chains folded differently and a different sequence of amino acids 4 5 2 3 In which structures would the occurrence of mutations have the greatest effect on human evolution? (1) 1 and 3 (3) 3 and 6 (2) 2 and 5 (4) 4 and 6 10 Even though each body cell in an individual contains the same DNA, the functions of muscle cells and liver cells are not the same because (1) mutations usually occur in genes when muscle cells divide (2) liver tissue develops before muscle tissue (3) liver cells produce more oxygen than muscle cells (4) liver cells use different genes than muscle cells Living Environment June 07 6 [3] [OVER] 18 The letters in the diagram below represent structures in a human female. 13 A single pair of goldfish in an aquarium produced a large number of offspring. These offspring showed variations in body shape and coloration. The most likely explanation for these variations is that the (1) offspring were adapting to different environments (2) offspring were produced from different combinations of genes (3) parent fish had not been exposed to mutagenic agents (4) parent fish had not reproduced sexually D A C B Estrogen and progesterone increase the chance for successful fetal development by regulating activities within structure (1) A (3) C (2) B (4) D 14 A certain species has little genetic variation. The rapid extinction of this species would most likely result from the effect of (1) successful cloning (2) gene manipulation (3) environmental change (4) genetic recombination 19 Which part of a molecule provides energy for life processes? (1) carbon atoms (3) chemical bonds (2) oxygen atoms (4) inorganic nitrogen 15 Which two structures of a frog would most likely have the same chromosome number? (1) skin cell and fertilized egg cell (2) zygote and sperm cell (3) kidney cell and egg cell (4) liver cell and sperm cell 20 Energy from organic molecules can be stored in ATP molecules as a direct result of the process of (1) cellular respiration (2) cellular reproduction (3) diffusion (4) digestion 16 Tissues develop from a zygote as a direct result of the processes of (1) fertilization and meiosis (2) fertilization and differentiation (3) mitosis and meiosis (4) mitosis and differentiation 21 Which statement best describes how a vaccination can help protect the body against disease? (1) Vaccines directly kill the pathogen that causes the disease. (2) Vaccines act as a medicine that cures the disease. (3) Vaccines cause the production of specific molecules that will react with and destroy certain microbes. (4) Vaccines contain white blood cells that engulf harmful germs and prevent them from spreading throughout the body. 17 The human female reproductive system is adapted for (1) production of zygotes in ovaries (2) external fertilization of gametes (3) production of milk for a developing embryo (4) transport of oxygen through a placenta to a fetus Living Environment June 07 [4] 22 The diagram below represents four different species of wild birds. Each species has feet with different structural adaptations. Mallard duck Redheaded woodpecker Northern cardinal Common snipe The development of these adaptations can best be explained by the concept of (1) inheritance of resistance to diseases that affect all these species (2) inheritance of characteristics acquired after the birds hatched from the egg (3) natural selection (4) selective breeding 23 The diagram below represents a nucleus containing the normal chromosome number for a species. Which diagram bests illustrates the normal formation of a cell that contains all of the genetic information needed for growth, development, and future reproduction of this species? + + (3) (1) + + (4) (2) Living Environment June 07 [5] [OVER] 26 The diagram below represents two molecules that can interact with each other to cause a biochemical process to occur in a cell. 24 The diagram below represents events associated with a biochemical process that occurs in some organisms. Carbon dioxide Sun Oxygen Molecule A Molecule B Molecules A and B most likely represent (1) a protein and a chromosome (2) a receptor and a hormone (3) a carbohydrate and an amino acid (4) an antibody and a hormone 27 The graph below represents the amount of available energy at successive nutrition levels in a particular food web. Water Amount of Available Energy (Relative) Which statement concerning this process is correct? (1) The process represented is respiration and the primary source of energy for the process is the Sun. (2) The process represented is photosynthesis and the primary source of energy for the process is the Sun. (3) This process converts energy in organic compounds into solar energy which is released into the atmosphere. (4) This process uses solar energy to convert oxygen into carbon dioxide. X Producers Herbivores Carnivores The Xs in the diagram represent the amount of energy that was most likely (1) changed into inorganic compounds (2) retained indefinitely by the herbivores (3) recycled back to the producers (4) lost as heat to the environment 25 In the transfer of energy from the Sun to ecosystems, which molecule is one of the first to store this energy? (1) protein (3) DNA (2) fat (4) glucose Living Environment June 07 X [6] 29 In order to reduce consumption of nonrenewable resources, humans could (1) burn coal to heat houses instead of using oil (2) heat household water with solar radiation (3) increase industrialization (4) use a natural-gas grill to barbecue instead of using charcoal 28 The diagram below represents an energy pyramid constructed from data collected from an aquatic ecosystem. Large fish Small fish Animal plankton 30 In 1859, a small colony of 24 rabbits was brought to Australia. By 1928 it was estimated that there were 500 million rabbits in a 1-million square mile section of Australia. Which statement describes a condition that probably contributed to the increase in the rabbit population? (1) The rabbits were affected by many limiting factors. (2) The rabbits reproduced by asexual reproduction. (3) The rabbits were unable to adapt to the environment. (4) The rabbits had no natural predators in Australia. Algae Which statement best describes this ecosystem? (1) The ecosystem is most likely unstable. (2) Long-term stability of this ecosystem will continue. (3) The herbivore populations will continue to increase in size for many years. (4) The producer organisms outnumber the consumer organisms. Living Environment June 07 [7] [OVER] Part B 1 Answer all questions in this part. [12] Directions (31 42): For each statement or question, write on the separate answer sheet the number of the word or expression that, of those given, best completes the statement or answers the question. 31 What is the approximate length of the earthworm shown in the diagram below? 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 10 9 11 12 13 14 15 metric (cm) (1) 9 mm (2) 90 mm (3) 10.6 cm (4) 106 cm 32 Information concerning the diet of crocodiles of different sizes is contained in the table below. Percentage of Crocodiles of Different Lengths and Their Food Sources Food Source Group A 0.3 0.5 Meter Group B 2.5 3.9 Meters Group C 4.5 5.0 Meters mammals 0 18 65 reptiles 0 17 48 fish 0 62 38 birds 0 17 0 snails 0 25 0 shellfish 0 5 0 spiders 20 0 0 frogs 35 0 0 100 2 0 insects Which statement is not a valid conclusion based on the data? (1) Overharvesting of fish could have a negative impact on group C. (2) The smaller the crocodile is, the larger the prey. (3) Group B has no preference between reptiles and birds. (4) Spraying insecticides would have the most direct impact on group A. Living Environment June 07 [8] 35 A classification system is shown in the table below. 33 The diagram below represents an incomplete section of a DNA molecule. The boxes represent unidentified bases. Classification C T Examples Kingdom animal A , , , T Phylum chordata , Genus Felis , ,, ,, , , Species domestica When the boxes are filled in, the total number of bases represented by the letter A (both inside and outside the boxes) will be (1) 1 (3) 3 (2) 2 (4) 4 This classification scheme indicates that most closely related to 34 The graph below shows the growth of a population of bacteria over a period of 80 hours. (1) Growth of a Population of Bacteria (2) (3) is (4) Number of Individuals 36 Information concerning nests built in the same tree by two different bird species over a ten-year period is shown in the table below. Distance of Nest Above Ground (m) Total Number of Nests Built by Two Different Species A B 5 0 1 5 10 0 6 10 5 0 over 10 0 20 less than 1 Time Which statement best describes section II of the graph? (1) The population has reached the carrying capacity of the environment. (2) The rate of reproduction is slower than in section I. (3) The population is greater than the carrying capacity of the environment. (4) The rate of reproduction exceeds the death rate. Living Environment June 07 , What inference best describes these two bird species? (1) They most likely do not compete for nesting sites because they occupy different niches. (2) They do not compete for nesting sites because they have the same reproductive behavior. (3) They compete for nesting sites because they build the same type of nest. (4) They compete for nesting sites because they nest in the same tree at the same time. [9] [OVER] 37 The diagram below shows the effect of spraying a pesticide on a population of insects over three generations. First generation Pesticide is sprayed Second generation Pesticide is sprayed Which concept is represented in the diagram? (1) survival of the fittest (2) dynamic equilibrium Third generation Pesticide is sprayed (3) succession (4) extinction 38 In an ecosystem, the herring population was reduced by fishermen. As a result, the tuna, which feed on the herring, disappeared. The sand eels, which are eaten by herring, increased in number. The fishermen then overharvested the sand eel population. Cod and seabirds then decreased. Which food web best represents the feeding relationships in this ecosystem? Seabirds Tuna Tuna Cod Sand eels Seabirds Herring Cod Herring Sand eels (1) (3) Tuna Cod Herring Tuna Seabirds Cod Herring Sand eels Seabirds (2) Living Environment June 07 Sand eels (4) [10] 42 Two food chains are represented below. Base your answers to questions 39 through 41 on the diagram below, which represents systems in a human male and on your knowledge of biology. Food chain A: aquatic plant insect frog hawk Food chain B: grass rabbit hawk D C Decomposers are important for supplying energy for (1) food chain A, only (2) food chain B, only (3) both food chain A and food chain B (4) neither food chain A nor food chain B B E F G A H 39 Which sequence represents the path of sperm leaving the body? (1) A C G (3) E F H (2) A C B (4) D F G 40 Which structures aid in the transport of sperm by secreting fluid? (1) A and H (3) C and D (2) B and E (4) D and H 41 Which structure has both reproductive and excretory functions? (1) A (3) C (2) G (4) D Living Environment June 07 [11] [OVER] Part B 2 Answer all questions in this part. [13] Directions (43 55): For those questions that are followed by four choices, circle the number of the choice that, of those given, best completes the statement or answers the question. For all other questions in this part, follow the directions given in the question and record your answers in the spaces provided. Base your answers to questions 43 through 45 on the diagrams below and on your knowledge of biology. The diagrams represent two different cells and some of their parts. The diagrams are not drawn to scale. For Teacher Use Only X Cell A Cell B 43 Identify an organelle in cell A that is the site of autotrophic nutrition. [1] __________________________________________ 43 44 Identify the organelle labeled X in cell B. [1] __________________________________________ 44 45 Which statement best describes these cells? (1) Cell B lacks vacuoles while cell A has them. (2) DNA would not be found in either cell A or cell B. (3) Both cell A and cell B use energy released from ATP. (4) Both cell A and cell B produce antibiotics. Living Environment June 07 45 [12] Base your answers to questions 46 through 48 on the diagram below and on your knowledge of biology. For Teacher Use Only Snake Hawk Owl Frog Mouse Deer Trees Cricket Grass Bacteria 46 What is an appropriate title for this diagram? (1) Energy Flow in a Community (2) Ecological Succession (3) Biological Evolution 46 (4) A Food Chain 47 Which organism carries out autotrophic nutrition? (1) hawk (2) cricket (3) grass 47 (4) deer 48 State what would most likely happen to the cricket population if all of the grasses were removed. [1] _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ Living Environment June 07 [13] 48 [OVER] Base your answers to questions 49 through 53 on the information and diagrams below and on your knowledge of biology. The laboratory setups represented below were used to investigate the effect of temperature on cellular respiration in yeast (a singlecelled organism). Each of two flasks containing equal amounts of a yeast-glucose solution was submerged in a water bath, one kept at 20 C and one kept at 35 C. The number of gas bubbles released from the glass tube in each setup was observed and the results were recorded every 5 minutes for a period of 25 minutes. The data are summarized in the table below. Water bath at 20 C Water bath at 35 C Gas bubble Gas bubble Water Water Glass tube Glass tube Yeast-glucose solution Yeast-glucose solution Data Table Time (minutes) Total Number of Bubbles Released 20 C 35 C 5 0 5 10 5 15 15 15 30 20 30 50 25 45 75 Directions (49 51): Using the information in the data table, construct a line graph on the grid on the next page, following the directions below. 49 Mark an appropriate scale on each axis. [1] 50 Plot the data for the total number of bubbles released at 20 C on the grid on the next page. Surround each point with a small circle and connect the points. [1] Example: Living Environment June 07 [14] For Teacher Use Only 51 Plot the data for the total number of bubbles released at 35 C on the grid. Surround each point with a small triangle and connect the points. [1] For Teacher Use Only Example: The Effect of Temperature on Respiration in Yeast Key Total Number of Bubbles Released Yeast respiration at 20 C Yeast respiration at 35 C 49 50 Time (minutes) 51 52 State one relationship between temperature and the rate of gas production in yeast. [1] _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ 52 53 Identify the gas that would be produced by the process taking place in both laboratory setups. [1] __________________________________________ Living Environment June 07 [15] 53 [OVER] Base your answers to questions 54 and 55 on the diagram below and on your knowledge of biology. X For Teacher Use Only Insulin Blood glucose Glycogen Decreases blood glucose 54 Identify the organ labeled X. [1] __________________________________________ 54 55 The dashed line in the diagram represents (1) a digestive process (2) a feedback mechanism (3) cellular differentiation (4) recycling of organic chemicals Living Environment June 07 55 [16] Part C Answer all questions in this part. [17] Directions (56 61): Record your answers in the spaces provided in this examination booklet. 56 An experiment was carried out to determine how competition for living space affects plant height. Different numbers of plants were grown in three pots, A, B, and C. All three pots were the same size. The data collected are shown in the table below. For Teacher Use Only Average Daily Plant Height (mm) Day 1 Day 2 Day 3 Day 4 Day 5 Day 6 Day 7 Pot A 5 plants 2 4 6 8 10 14 16 Pot B 10 plants 2 4 6 8 10 12 12 Pot C 20 plants 2 2 2 6 6 8 8 Analyze the experiment that produced the data shown in the table. In your answer be sure to: state a hypothesis for the experiment [1] identify one factor, other than pot size, that should have been kept the same in each experimental group [1] identify the dependent variable [1] state whether the data supports or fails to support your hypothesis and justify your answer [1] _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ Living Environment June 07 [17] 56 [OVER] 57 In many investigations, both in the laboratory and in natural environments, the pH of substances is measured. Explain why pH is important to living things. In your explanation be sure to: For Teacher Use Only identify one example of a life process of an organism that could be affected by a pH change [1] state one environmental problem that is directly related to pH [1] identify one possible cause of this environmental problem [1] _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ Living Environment June 07 [18] 57 Base your answer to question 58 on the information below and on your knowledge of biology. For Teacher Use Only Cargo ships traveling to the Great Lakes from the Caspian Sea in Eurasia often carry water in tanks known as ballast tanks. This water helps the ships to be more stable while crossing the ocean. Upon arrival in the Great Lakes, this water is pumped out of the ships. Often this water contains species that are not native to the Great Lakes environment. The zebra mussel is one species that was introduced into the Great Lakes in this way. Although large numbers of zebra mussels often clog water intake pipes of power plants and other industries, the mussels have a benefit. Each mussel filters about a quart of water per day, absorbing cancercausing PCB s from lake water in the process. The goby, a bottom-feeding fish from Europe, was introduced into the Great Lakes in a similar way a few years later. The gobies have become a dominant species in the Great Lakes, eating small zebra mussels and the eggs and young of other fish. Gobies are eaten by large sport fish. These sport fish have been tested and PCB s have been found in their tissues. Recommendations have been made that people limit the number of sport fish they eat. 58 Explain how the introduction of foreign species can often cause environmental problems. In your answer be sure to: state how the zebra mussels and gobies were introduced into the United States [1] state one way either the zebra mussels or gobies have become a problem in their new environment [1] describe how both zebra mussels and gobies contribute to increasing the concentration of PCB s in sport fish [2] _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ Living Environment June 07 [19] 58 [OVER] 59 Knowledge of human genes gained from research on the structure and function of human genetic material has led to improvements in medicine and health care for humans. For Teacher Use Only state two ways this knowledge has improved medicine and health care for humans [2] identify one specific concern that could result from the application of this knowledge [1] _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ 59 Base your answers to questions 60 and 61 on the information below and on your knowledge of biology. You are the owner of a chemical company. Many people in your community have been complaining that rabbits are getting into their gardens and eating the flowering plants and vegetables they have planted. Your company is developing a new chemical product called Bunny Hop-Away that repels rabbits. This product would be sprayed on the plants to prevent the rabbits from eating them. Certain concerns need to be considered before you make the product available for public use. 60 State two environmental concerns that should be considered before the product is sold and used by the public. [2] _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ 60 61 State one safety procedure that should be followed when the product is sprayed on plants. [1] _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ 61 Living Environment June 07 [20] Part D Answer all questions in this part. [13] Directions (62 73): For those questions that are followed by four choices, circle the number of the choice, that, of those given, best completes the statement or answers the question. For all other questions in this part, follow the directions given in the questions and record your answers in the spaces provided. 62 Students were asked to determine if they could squeeze a clothespin more times in a minute after resting than after exercising. An experiment that accurately tests this question should include all of the following except For Teacher Use Only (1) a hypothesis on which to base the design of the experiment (2) a large number of students (3) two sets of clothespins, one that is easy to open and one that is more difficult to open (4) a control group and an experimental group with equal numbers of students of approximately the same age 62 63 Which statement best describes a controlled experiment? (1) It eliminates the need for dependent variables. (2) It shows the effect of a dependent variable on an independent variable. (3) It avoids the use of variables. (4) It tests the effect of a single independent variable. 63 64 Which statement best describes a change that usually takes place in the human body when the heart rate increases as a result of exercise? (1) More oxygen is delivered to muscle cells. (2) Blood cells are excreted at a faster rate. (3) The rate of digestion increases. (4) No hormones are produced. Living Environment June 07 64 [21] [OVER] Base your answers to questions 65 through 67 on the diagram below and on your knowledge of biology. The diagram shows the results of a technique used to analyze DNA. 1 DNA Samples 23456 For Teacher Use Only 7 65 This technique used to analyze DNA directly results in (1) synthesizing large fragments of DNA (2) separating DNA fragments on the basis of size (3) producing genetically engineered DNA molecules (4) removing the larger DNA fragments from the samples 65 66 This laboratory technique is known as (1) gel electrophoresis (2) DNA replication (3) protein synthesis (4) genetic recombination 66 67 State one specific way the results of this laboratory technique could be used. [1] _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ Living Environment June 07 [22] 67 68 The cactus finch, warbler finch, and woodpecker finch all live on one island. Based on the information in the diagram below, which one of these finches is least likely to compete with the other two for food? Support your answer with an explanation. [1] For Teacher Use Only Large ground finch Medium ground finch Pr Mainly animal food 100% animal food obing bills Probing Cactus finch Large tree finch i ng tip s Mainly plant food a s p i n g b ill s Sharp-billed ground finch ill s Gr E d g e cru sh in C r u s hi n g b g B it Small ground finch Vegetarian finch Small tree finch Woodpecker finch Warbler finch From: Galapagos: A Natural History Guide Variations in Beaks of Galapagos Islands Finches _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ Living Environment June 07 [23] 68 [OVER] Base your answers to questions 69 and 70 on the information below and on your knowledge of biology. For Teacher Use Only Evolutionary changes have been observed in beak size in a population of medium ground finches in the Galapagos Islands. Given a choice of small and large seeds, the medium ground finch eats mostly small seeds, which are easier to crush. However, during dry years, all seeds are in short supply. Small seeds are quickly consumed, so the birds are left with a diet of large seeds. Studies have shown that this change in diet may be related to an increase in the average size of the beak of the medium ground finch. 69 The most likely explanation for the increase in average beak size of the medium ground finch is that the (1) trait is inherited and birds with larger beaks have greater reproductive success (2) birds acquired larger beaks due to the added exercise of feeding on large seeds (3) birds interbred with a larger-beaked species and passed on the trait (4) lack of small seeds caused a mutation which resulted in a larger beak 69 70 In exceptionally dry years, what most likely happens in a population of medium ground finches? (1) There is increased cooperation between the birds. (2) Birds with large beaks prey on birds with small beaks. (3) The finches develop parasitic relationships with mammals. (4) There is increased competition for a limited number of small seeds. Living Environment June 07 [24] 70 Base your answers to questions 71 and 72 on the diagram below and on your knowledge of biology. The diagram shows the changes that occurred in a beaker after 30 minutes. The beaker contained water, food coloring, and a bag made from dialysis tubing membrane. Yellow foodcoloring solution Green color 30 minutes Blue food-coloring solution Before For Teacher Use Only Green color Dialysis tubing membrane After 71 When the colors yellow and blue are combined, they produce a green color. Which statement most likely describes the relative sizes of the yellow and blue food-coloring molecules in the diagram? (1) The yellow food-coloring molecules are small, while the blue food-coloring molecules are large. (2) The yellow food-coloring molecules are large, while the blue food-coloring molecules are small. (3) Both the yellow food-coloring molecules and the blue food-coloring molecules are large. (4) Both the yellow food-coloring molecules and the blue food-coloring molecules are small. 71 72 Which statement best explains the changes shown? (1) Molecular movement was aided by the presence of specific carbohydrate molecules on the surface of the membrane. (2) Molecular movement was aided by the presence of specific enzyme molecules on the surface of the membrane. (3) Molecules moved across the membrane without additional energy being supplied. (4) Molecules moved across the membrane only when additional energy was supplied. Living Environment June 07 [25] 72 [OVER] 73 Cell A shown below is a typical red onion cell in water on a slide viewed with a compound light microscope. For Teacher Use Only Cell A Draw a diagram of how cell A would most likely look after salt water has been added to the slide and label the cell membrane in your diagram. [2] 73 Living Environment June 07 [26] Tear Here The University of the State of New York Maximum Score Part REGENTS HIGH SCHOOL EXAMINATION A 30 LIVING ENVIRONMENT B 1 12 Wednesday, June 20, 2007 9:15 a.m. to 12:15 p.m., only B 2 13 C 17 D Student s Score 13 ANSWER SHEET Student . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Sex: I Female I Male Teacher . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Total Raw Score (maximum Raw Score: 85) School . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Grade . . . . . . . . . Final Score (from conversion chart) Raters Initials Rater 1 . . . . . . . . Rater 2 . . . . . . . . . Record your answers to Part A and Part B 1 on this answer sheet. Part B 1 Part A 1 .......... 11 . . . . . . . . . . 21 . . . . . . . . . . 31 . . . . . . . . . . 37 . . . . . . . . . . 2 .......... 12 . . . . . . . . . . 22 . . . . . . . . . . 32 . . . . . . . . . . 38 . . . . . . . . . . 3 .......... 13 . . . . . . . . . . 23 . . . . . . . . . . 33 . . . . . . . . . . 39 . . . . . . . . . . 4 .......... 14 . . . . . . . . . . 24 . . . . . . . . . . 34 . . . . . . . . . . 40 . . . . . . . . . . 5 .......... 15 . . . . . . . . . . 25 . . . . . . . . . . 35 . . . . . . . . . . 41 . . . . . . . . . . 6 .......... 16 . . . . . . . . . . 26 . . . . . . . . . . 36 . . . . . . . . . . 42 . . . . . . . . . . 7 .......... 17 . . . . . . . . . . 27 . . . . . . . . . . 8 .......... 18 . . . . . . . . . . 28 . . . . . . . . . . 9 .......... 19 . . . . . . . . . . 29 . . . . . . . . . . 10 . . . . . . . . . . 20 . . . . . . . . . . 30 . . . . . . . . . . Part B 1 Score Tear Here Part A Score The declaration below must be signed when you have completed the examination. I do hereby affirm, at the close of this examination, that I had no unlawful knowledge of the questions or answers prior to the examination and that I have neither given nor received assistance in answering any of the questions during the examination. Signature LIVING ENVIRONMENT Tear Here Tear Here LIVING ENVIRONMENT FOR TEACHERS ONLY The University of the State of New York REGENTS HIGH SCHOOL EXAMINATION LE LIVING ENVIRONMENT Wednesday, June 20, 2007 9:15 a.m. to 12:15 p.m., only SCORING KEY AND RATING GUIDE Directions to the Teacher: Refer to the directions on page 3 before rating student papers. Updated information regarding the rating of this examination may be posted on the New York State Education Department s web site during the rating period. Check this web site http://www.emsc.nysed.gov/osa/ and select the link Examination Scoring Information for any recently posted information regarding this examination. This site should be checked before the rating process for this examination begins and several times throughout the Regents examination period. Part A and Part B 1 Allow 1 credit for each correct response. Part A Part B 1 1 . . . . .3 . . . . . 11 . . . . .2 . . . . 21 . . . . .3. . . . . 31 . . . . .2. . . . . 37 . . . . .1. . . . . 2 . . . . .2 . . . . . 12 . . . . .3. . . . . 22 . . . . .3. . . . . 32 . . . . .2. . . . . 38 . . . . .3. . . . . 3 . . . . .4 . . . . . 13 . . . . .2. . . . . 23 . . . . .3. . . . . 33 . . . . .3. . . . . 39 . . . . .1. . . . . 4 . . . . .1 . . . . . 14 . . . . .3. . . . . 24 . . . . .2. . . . . 34 . . . . .4. . . . . 40 . . . . .2. . . . . 5 . . . . .4 . . . . . 15 . . . . .1. . . . . 25 . . . . .4. . . . . 35 . . . . .4. . . . . 41 . . . . .2. . . . . 6 . . . . .2 . . . . . 16 . . . . .4. . . . . 26 . . . . .2. . . . . 36 . . . . .1. . . . . 42 . . . . .4. . . . . 7 . . . . .1 . . . . . 17 . . . . .4. . . . . 27 . . . . .4. . . . . 8 . . . . .3 . . . . . 18 . . . . .1. . . . . 28 . . . . .1. . . . . 9 . . . . .4 . . . . . 19 . . . . .3. . . . . 29 . . . . .2. . . . . 10 . . . . .4. . . . . 20 . . . . .1. . . . . 30 . . . . .4. . . . . LIVING ENVIRONMENT continued Follow the procedures below for scoring student answer papers for the Regents Examination in Living Environment. Additional information about scoring is provided in the publication Information Booklet for Scoring Regents Examinations in the Sciences. Use only red ink or red pencil in rating Regents papers. Do not attempt to correct the student s work by making insertions or changes of any kind. Allow 1 credit for each correct response for multiple-choice questions. On the detachable answer sheet for Part A and Part B 1, indicate by means of a checkmark each incorrect or omitted answer to multiple-choice questions. In the box provided in the upper right corner of the answer sheet, record the number of questions the student answered correctly for each of these parts. At least two science teachers must participate in the scoring of the Part B 2, Part C, and Part D open-ended questions on a student s paper. Each of these teachers should be responsible for scoring a selected number of the open-ended questions on each answer paper. No one teacher is to score all the open-ended questions on a student s answer paper. Students responses must be scored strictly according to the Scoring Key and Rating Guide. For open-ended questions, credit may be allowed for responses other than those given in the rating guide if the response is a scientifically accurate answer to the question and demonstrates adequate knowledge as indicated by the examples in the rating guide. In the student s examination booklet, record the number of credits earned for each answer in the box printed to the right of the answer lines or spaces for that question. Fractional credit is not allowed. Only whole-number credit may be given for a response. If the student gives more than one answer to a question, only the first answer should be rated. Units need not be given when the wording of the questions allows such omissions. Raters should enter the scores earned for Part A, Part B 1, Part B 2, Part C, and Part D on the appropriate lines in the box printed on the answer sheet and should add these 5 scores and enter the total in the box labeled Total Raw Score. Then the student s raw score should be converted to a scaled score by using the conversion chart that will be posted on the Department s web site http://www.emsc.nysed.gov/osa/ on Wednesday, June 20, 2007. The student s scaled score should be entered in the box labeled Final Score on the student s answer sheet. The scaled score is the student s final examination score. All student answer papers that receive a scaled score of 60 through 64 must be scored a second time. For the second scoring, a different committee of teachers may score the student s paper or the original committee may score the paper, except that no teacher may score the same open-ended questions that he/she scored in the first rating of the paper. The school principal is responsible for assuring that the student s final examination score is based on a fair, accurate, and reliable scoring of the student s answer paper. Because scaled scores corresponding to raw scores in the conversion chart may change from one examination to another, it is crucial that for each administration, the conversion chart provided for that administration be used to determine the student s final score. [3] [OVER] LIVING ENVIRONMENT continued Part B 2 43 [1] Allow 1 credit for chloroplast. 44 [1] Allow 1 credit for ribosome. 45 3 46 1 47 3 48 [1] Allow 1 credit. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: The cricket population would decrease. 49 [1] Allow 1 credit for marking an appropriate scale on both axes. 50 [1] Allow 1 credit for plotting the data correctly for the total number of bubbles released at 20 C, surrounding each point with a small circle, and connecting the points. 51 [1] Allow 1 credit for plotting the data correctly for the total number of bubbles released at 35 C, surrounding each point with a small triangle, and connecting the points. [4] LIVING ENVIRONMENT continued Example of a 3-credit response for questions 49 51: The Effect of Temperature on Respiration in Yeast Key Yeast respiration at 20 C Total Number of Bubbles Released 80 Yeast respiration at 35 C 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0 0 5 10 15 20 25 Time (minutes) Note: Allow credit only if circles and triangles are used. Make no assumptions about the origin unless it is labeled. Do not allow credit for plotting points that are not in the data table, e.g., (0,0). 52 [1] Allow 1 credit. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: As the temperature increases, the gas production increases. As temperature changes from 35 C to 20 C, the gas production decreases. There is a direct relationship. 53 [1] Allow 1 credit for CO2 or carbon dioxide. 54 [1] Allow 1 credit for pancreas. 55 2 [5] [OVER] LIVING ENVIRONMENT continued Part C 56 [4] Allow a maximum of 4 credits, allocated as follows: Allow 1 credit for stating a hypothesis. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: Competition decreases plant height. Competition increases plant height. Competition has no effect on plant height. Note: Do not accept a hypothesis written in the form of a question. Allow 1 credit for identifying one factor, other than pot size, that should have been kept the same in each experimental group. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: same potting soil (type or amount) environmental conditions (sunlight, H2O) type of plant Allow 1 credit for identifying the dependent variable. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: height size Allow 1 credit for stating whether the information in the data table supports or fails to support the student s hypothesis with appropriate justification. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: The data supports my hypothesis because the plants in the pot with the greatest number of plants were the shortest. The data does not support my hypothesis because the plants in pot C (20 plants) were shorter than the plants in pot A (5 plants). The data did not support my hypothesis because the number of plants in the pot did affect the heights of the plants. [6] LIVING ENVIRONMENT continued 57 [3] Allow a maximum of 3 credits, allocated as follows: Allow 1 credit for identifying one example of a life process of an organism that could be affected by a pH change. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: growth digestion reproduction Allow 1 credit for stating one environmental problem that is directly related to pH. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: acid rain loss of biodiversity Allow 1 credit for identifying one possible cause of this environmental problem. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: It is caused by air pollution/burning fossil fuels. deforestation Note: Allow credit for an answer that is consistent with the student s response to the second bullet. 58 [4] Allow a maximum of 4 credits, allocated as follows: Allow 1 credit for stating how the zebra mussels and gobies were introduced into the United States. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: Zebra mussels and gobies were introduced into the Great Lakes from the ballast tanks of cargo ships. Allow 1 credit for stating one way either the zebra mussels or gobies have become a problem in their new environment. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: Zebra mussels clog water intake pipes. Zebra mussels disrupt existing food chains. Gobies eat the eggs and young of other fish. Allow a maximum of 2 credits, 1 credit each for the roles of zebra mussels and gobies in PCB contamination of sport fish. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: Zebra mussels filter PCB s from lake water. Gobies eat small zebra mussels, then the gobies are eaten by sport fish. [7] [OVER] LIVING ENVIRONMENT continued 59 [3] Allow a maximum of 3 credits, allocated as follows: Allow a maximum of 2 credits, 1 credit for each of two ways this knowledge has improved medicine and health care for humans. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: gene tests to diagnose disease gene therapy genetic engineering to produce hormones understand causes of inherited disease prevent disease Allow 1 credit for identifying one specific concern that could result from the application of this knowledge. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: Screening for genetic diseases may limit insurance coverage. Gene therapy could result in overpopulation. may lead to discrimination 60 [2] Allow a maximum of 2 credits, 1 credit for each of two environmental concerns. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: The chemical may not be biodegradable. The chemical may interfere with food webs. The chemical may pollute the environment. The product may be toxic to humans and wildlife. 61 [1] Allow 1 credit. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: wear goggles wear shoes wear gloves wear mask follow directions on package [8] LIVING ENVIRONMENT continued Part D 62 3 63 4 64 1 65 2 66 1 67 [1] Allow 1 credit. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: determining evolutionary relationships gene testing for diagnosis paternity testing determining identity solving crimes 68 [1] Allow 1 credit. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: The cactus finch is least likely to compete with the other two for food because it eats mainly plant food, while the other two eat mainly or all animal food. 69 1 70 4 71 4 72 3 [9] [OVER] LIVING ENVIRONMENT concluded 73 [2] Allow a maximum of 2 credits, allocated as follows: Allow 1 credit for a diagram showing a plasmolyzed onion cell. Allow 1 credit for correctly labeling the cell membrane in the diagram. Example of a 2-credit response: Cell membrane Note: Shading is not necessary. [10] The Chart for Determining the Final Examination Score for the June 2007 Regents Examination in Living Environment will be posted on the Department s web site http://www.emsc.nysed.gov/osa/ on Wednesday, June 20, 2007. Conversion charts provided for previous administrations of the Regents Examination in Living Environment must NOT be used to determine students final scores for this administration. On-line Submission of Teacher Evaluations of the Test to the Department Suggestions and feedback from teachers provide an important contribution to the test development process. The Department provides an on-line evaluation form for State assessments. It contains spaces for teachers to respond to several specific questions and to make suggestions. Instructions for completing the evaluation form are as follows: 1. Go to www.emsc.nysed.gov/osa/exameval/. 2. Select the test title. 3. Complete the required demographic fields. 4. Complete each evaluation question and provide comments in the space provided. 5. Click the SUBMIT button at the bottom of the page to submit the completed form. [11] Map to Core Curriculum June 2007 Living Environment Question Numbers Standards Part A 1 30 Part B 1 31 42 Part B 2 43 55 Part C 56 61 Standard 1 Analysis, Inquiry and Design Key Idea 1 Key Idea 2 56,61 Key Idea 3 34 Appendix A (Laboratory Checklist) 49,50,51,52 31,35 Standard 4 Key Idea 1 1,2,3,4,5 41 Key Idea 2 6,7,8,9,10,11 Key Idea 3 12,13,14,15,22,23 37 Key Idea 4 16,17,18 39,40 Key Idea 5 19,20,21,24,26 33 Key Idea 6 25,27,28,30 32,36,38,42 Key Idea 7 29 59 65,66,67 Lab 2 62,63,64 Lab 3 68,69,70 Lab 5 43,53,54,55 59 57 57,58,60 Part D 62 73 Lab 1 44,45,46,47,48 71,72,73 [12]

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Additional Info : Refer : Scoring Key (page 29)
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