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New York Regents Earth Science August 2003

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The University of the State of New York REGENTS HIGH SCHOOL EXAMINATION PHYSICAL SETTING EARTH SCIENCE Wednesday, August 13, 2003 12:30 to 3:30 p.m., only This is a test of your knowledge of Earth science. Use that knowledge to answer all questions in this examination. Some questions may require the use of the Earth Science Reference Tables. The Earth Science Reference Tables are supplied separately. Be certain you have a copy of the 2001 edition of these reference tables before you begin the examination. Your answer sheet for Part A and Part B 1 is the last page of this examination booklet. Turn to the last page and fold it along the perforations. Then, slowly and carefully, tear off your answer sheet and fill in the heading. The answers to the questions in Part B 2 and Part C are to be written in your separate answer booklet. Be sure to fill in the heading on the front of your answer booklet. You are to answer all questions in all parts of this examination according to the directions provided in the examination booklet. Record your answers to the Part A and Part B 1 multiple-choice questions on your separate answer sheet. Write your answers to the Part B 2 and Part C questions in your answer booklet. All work should be written in pen, except for graphs and drawings, which should be done in pencil. You may use scrap paper to work out the answers to the questions, but be sure to record all your answers on your separate answer sheet and in your answer booklet. When you have completed the examination, you must sign the statement printed at the end of your separate answer sheet, indicating that you had no unlawful knowledge of the questions or answers prior to the examination and that you have neither given nor received assistance in answering any of the questions during the examination. Your answer sheet and answer booklet cannot be accepted if you fail to sign this declaration. Notice. . . A four-function or scientific calculator and a copy of the 2001 Earth Science Reference Tables must be available for your use while taking this examination. DO NOT OPEN THIS EXAMINATION BOOKLET UNTIL THE SIGNAL IS GIVEN. Part A Answer all questions in this part. Directions (1 35): For each statement or question, write on your separate answer sheet the number of the word or expression that, of those given, best completes the statement or answers the question. Some questions may require the use of the Earth Science Reference Tables. 1 Which statement correctly compares the size, composition, and density of Neptune to Earth? (1) Neptune is smaller, more gaseous, and less dense. (2) Neptune is larger, more gaseous, and less dense. (3) Neptune is smaller, more solid, and more dense. (4) Neptune is larger, more solid, and more dense. 4 The diagram below represents Earth at a specific position in its orbit as viewed from space. The shaded area represents nighttime. 66 o 23 2 A person in New York State worked outdoors in sunlight for several hours on a day in July. Which type of clothing should the person have worn to absorb the least electromagnetic radiation? (1) dark colored with a rough surface (2) dark colored with a smooth surface (3) light colored with a rough surface (4) light colored with a smooth surface Sun s o North Pole N Equator rays 23 66 o o S S South Pole Which Earth latitude receives the greatest intensity of insolation when Earth is at the position shown in the diagram? 3 The diagram below shows an observer on Earth measuring the altitude of Polaris. Zenith N (1) 0 (2) 23 1 N 2 Polaris (3) 66 1 N 2 (4) 90 N 5 Surface ocean currents curve to the right in the Northern Hemisphere because (1) the Moon spins on its axis (2) the Moon travels in an orbit around Earth (3) Earth spins on its axis (4) Earth travels in an orbit around the Sun 47 43 Horizon 6 Which star color indicates the hottest star surface temperature? (1) blue (3) yellow (2) white (4) red 7 What is the dewpoint temperature when the drybulb temperature is 12 C and the wet-bulb temperature is 4 C? (1) 9 C (3) 8 C (2) 19 C (4) 4 C What is the latitude of this observer? (1) 43 N (3) 47 N (2) 43 S (4) 47 S P.S./E. Sci. Aug. 03 [2] 8 Letters A, B, C, D, and X on the map below represent locations on Earth. The map shows the latitudelongitude grid. 90 120 150 180 150 120 90 60 30 0 30 60 E 80 N A X Asia C 60 North America Europe D 30 B Africa South America Australia 0 30 60 S Solar time is based on the position of the Sun. If the solar time is 1 p.m. at location X, at which location is the solar time 5 p.m.? (1) A (3) C (2) B (4) D 9 The table below shows the duration of insolation (hours of daylight) measured by four observers, W, X, Y, and Z, at four different Earth latitudes on both March 21 and June 21. There were clear skies at all four latitudes on both days. Observer Duration of Insolation March 21 Duration of Insolation June 21 W 12 hr 0 hr X 12 hr 12 hr Y 12 hr 18 hr Z 12 hr 24 hr Which observer was located at the Equator? (1) W (3) Y (2) X (4) Z P.S./E. Sci. Aug. 03 [3] [OVER] 10 Adjacent land and ocean surfaces have the same temperature at sunrise on a clear, calm, summer day. Then the land and water are heated by the Sun for several hours. Which cross section shows the most likely direction of surface winds that will develop at this ocean shore? Land Ocean Land (1) (3) Land Ocean Land (2) III Sun II A North Pole II B II Equator 13 The air-pressure field map below represents a high-pressure system over the central United States. Isobars show the air pressure, in millibars. Letters A through E represent locations on Earth s surface. North D Pole North Pole North Pole 1008 Equator C C Equator 1020 High 1016 A B (Not drawn to scale) D E 1012 1004 Between which positions would New York State be experiencing the summer season? (1) A and B (3) C and D (2) B and C (4) D and A Between which two locations is the wind speed greatest? (1) A and B (3) C and D (2) B and C (4) D and E 12 An air mass classified as mP usually forms over which type of Earth surface? (1) warm land (3) cool land (2) warm ocean (4) cool ocean P.S./E. Sci. Aug. 03 Ocean (4) 11 The diagram below represents Earth at four different positions, A, B, C, and D, in its orbit around the Sun. Equator Ocean 14 Surface ocean currents located at 40 south latitude, 90 west longitude generally flow toward the (1) northeast (3) southwest (2) southeast (4) west [4] 15 The arrows on the two maps below show how the monsoon winds over India change direction with the seasons. Summer Winter Himalaya Himalaya s s India India Monsoon winds Monsoon winds 0 Equator 0 Equator How do these winds affect India s weather in summer and winter? (1) Summer is cooler and less humid than winter. (2) Summer is warmer and more humid than winter. (3) Winter is warmer and less humid than summer. (4) Winter is cooler and more humid than summer. 16 Most water vapor enters Earth s atmosphere by the processes of (1) condensation and precipitation (2) radiation and cementation (3) conduction and convection (4) evaporation and transpiration 19 Which cross section below best represents the crustal plate motion that is the primary cause of the volcanoes and deep rift valleys found at midocean ridges? Key Continental crust Oceanic crust Mantle Direction of plate motion 17 At an altitude of 95 miles above Earth s surface, nearly 100% of the incoming energy from the Sun can be detected. At 55 miles above Earth s surface, most incoming x-ray radiation and some incoming ultraviolet radiation can no longer be detected. This missing radiation was most likely (1) absorbed in the thermosphere (2) absorbed in the mesosphere (3) reflected by the stratosphere (4) reflected by the troposphere (1) (2) 18 Weather along most fronts is usually cloudy with precipitation because the warm air along most fronts is usually (1) sinking and cooling, causing water to evaporate (2) sinking and warming, causing water to evaporate (3) rising and cooling, causing water vapor to condense (4) rising and warming, causing water vapor to condense P.S./E. Sci. Aug. 03 [5] (3) (4) [OVER] 22 Most inferences about the characteristics of Earth s mantle and core are based on (1) the behavior of seismic waves in Earth s interior (2) well drillings from Earth s mantle and core (3) chemical changes in exposed and weathered metamorphic rocks (4) comparisons between Moon rocks and Earth rocks 20 The diagram below shows a classroom demonstration. Two identical flashlights were placed in the positions shown and they illuminated areas of varying size, A and B, on a classroom globe. Thermometers were then placed at the center of each illuminated area to measure the rate of temperature increase. Readings were taken over a period of 30 minutes. Flashlight 23 What is the minimum rate of flow at which a stream of water can maintain the transportation of pebbles 1.0 centimeter in diameter? (1) 50 cm/sec (3) 150 cm/sec (2) 100 cm/sec (4) 200 cm/sec Area B Globe Flashlight Area A 24 Which activity demonstrates chemical weathering? (1) freezing of water in the cracks of a sandstone sidewalk (2) abrasion of a streambed by tumbling rocks (3) grinding of talc into a powder (4) dissolving of limestone by acid rain Students most likely observed that the temperature of area A increased at a (1) slower rate than the temperature of area B because area A received rays that were less concentrated (2) slower rate than the temperature of area B because area A received rays that were more slanted (3) faster rate than the temperature of area B because area A received rays that were more perpendicular to the surface (4) faster rate than the temperature of area B because area A received rays with less total energy 25 Unsorted, angular, rough-surfaced cobbles and boulders are found at the base of a cliff. What most likely transported these cobbles and boulders? (1) running water (3) gravity (2) wind (4) ocean currents 26 The seismogram below shows P-wave and S-wave arrival times at a seismic station following an earthquake. 21 The photograph below shows a broken piece of the mineral calcite. Arrival of P-waves The calcite breaks in smooth, flat surfaces because calcite (1) is very dense (2) is very soft (3) contains certain impurities (4) has a regular arrangement of atoms P.S./E. Sci. Aug. 03 0 minutes Arrival of S-waves 6 minutes 12 minutes The distance from this seismic station to the epicenter of the earthquake is approximately (1) 1,600 km (3) 4,400 km (2) 3,200 km (4) 5,600 km [6] 27 The table below gives information about the radioactive decay of carbon-14. Part of the table has been deliberately left blank for student use. Half-life Mass of Original Carbon-14 Remaining (grams) 0 1 0 1 1 2 5,700 2 1 4 11,400 3 1 8 17,100 4 1 16 Number of Years 5 6 7 After how many years will (1) 22,800 yr (2) 28,500 yr 1 128 gram of the original carbon-14 remain? (3) 34,200 yr (4) 39,900 yr 28 In which layer of Earth s interior is the pressure inferred to be 1.0 million atmospheres? (1) outer core (3) rigid mantle (2) inner core (4) stiffer mantle 31 The greatest amount of rainwater infiltration occurs on the side of a hill if the surface of a permeable soil has (1) small soil particles and a steep slope (2) small soil particles and a gentle slope (3) large soil particles and a steep slope (4) large soil particles and a gentle slope 29 Which event occurred earliest in geologic history? (1) appearance of the earliest grasses (2) appearance of the earliest birds (3) the Grenville Orogeny (4) the intrusion of the Palisades Sill 32 Which element is most abundant in Earth s lithosphere? (1) oxygen (3) hydrogen (2) silicon (4) nitrogen 30 A very large, circular, impact crater under the coast of Mexico is believed to be approximately 65 million years old. This impact event is inferred to be related to the (1) appearance of the earliest trilobites (2) advance and retreat of the last continental ice sheet (3) extinction of the dinosaurs (4) formation of Pangea P.S./E. Sci. Aug. 03 33 A student incorrectly measured the volume of a mineral sample as 83 cubic centimeters when the actual volume was 89 cubic centimeters. What was the student s approximate percent deviation (percentage of error)? (1) 6.7% (3) 9.3% (2) 7.2% (4) 14.8% [7] [OVER] 35 In which New York State landscape region is Niagara Falls located? (1) Tug Hill Plateau (2) St. Lawrence Lowlands (3) Allegheny Plateau (4) Erie-Ontario Lowlands 34 The characteristic of the radioactive isotope uranium-238 that makes this isotope useful for accurately dating the age of a rock is the isotope s (1) organic origin (2) constant half-life (3) common occurrence in sediments (4) resistance to weathering and erosion P.S./E. Sci. Aug. 03 [8] Part B 1 Answer all questions in this part. Directions (36 50): For each statement or question, write on your separate answer sheet the number of the word or expression that, of those given, best completes the statement or answers the question. Some questions may require the use of the Earth Science Reference Tables. 36 The table below shows gravitational data for a planet traveling in an elliptical orbit around a star. The table shows the relative gravitational force between the star and this planet at eight positions in the orbit (letters A through H). Higher numbers indicate stronger gravitational attraction. Planet s Position in the Orbit A B C D E F G H Relative Gravitational Force Between Star and Planet 52 42 25 12 10 12 25 42 Which diagram best represents the positions of the planet in its orbit that would produce the gravitational forces shown in the data table? E A B Star Star C G D D F H G F C B H E A (1) (3) G C Star Star A E E B A H F D G C (2) P.S./E. Sci. Aug. 03 B D F H (4) [9] [OVER] Base your answers to questions 37 through 39 on the weather map below, which shows air temperature and winds for a few locations in the eastern half of the United States. A large low-pressure system is shown on the map. New York 50 Center of low pressure 60 67 54 68 70 72 59 75 Atlantic Ocean N 0 100 300 37 Surface winds within this low-pressure system generally flow (1) clockwise and toward the center of the system (2) clockwise and away from the center of the system (3) counterclockwise and toward the center of the system (4) counterclockwise and away from the center of the system P.S./E. Sci. Aug. 03 500 miles 38 Which type of front extends eastward from the low-pressure center? (1) cold (3) occluded (2) warm (4) stationary 39 If the low-pressure center follows a typical storm track, it will move toward the (1) southwest (3) northwest (2) southeast (4) northeast [10] Base your answers to questions 40 through 42 on the geologic cross section and the table below. The cross section represents the bedrock structure beneath four landscape regions, A, B, C, and D. Meandering Mesas streams Elevation (meters) A 3000 Key C B Limestone D 2000 Shale Granite 1000 Uplifted block (Not drawn to scale) The table below shows characteristics of the four landscape regions A, B, C, and D. Landscape Region Relief Bedrock A great relief, high peaks, deep valleys faulted and tilted structure; many bedrock types, including igneous B moderate relief, rounded peaks, wide valleys folded sedimentary bedrock C moderate to high relief horizontal sedimentary bedrock layers D very little relief, low elevations horizontal sedimentary bedrock layers 40 Which terms best describe the surface landscapes of A, B, C, and D? (1) A mountains, B ridges and valleys, C plateau, D plain (2) A plateau, B plain, C mountains, D ridges and valleys (3) A plain, B mountains, C plateau, D plain (4) A ridges and valleys, B plateau, C plain, D mountains P.S./E. Sci. Aug. 03 41 The meandering streams shown in landscape region B usually form where there are (1) volcanic cones (2) gentle gradients (3) many fractures in the bedrock (4) numerous escarpments 42 The sharp, angular flat-topped hills (mesas) in landscape region C were most likely produced by a climate that was (1) tropical (3) dry (2) humid (4) polar [11] [OVER] Base your answers to questions 43 through 47 on the geologic cross section of bedrock shown below. A through G identify rock layers and Q represents a fault. Lines W, X, Y, and Z are locations of unconformities. The rocks have not been overturned. A W C X B D F Y E Z Q G Key Contact metamorphism Igneous rock Sedimentary rock 43 Which rock or feature is oldest? (1) rock A (3) fault Q (2) rock G (4) unconformity Z 45 The movement of bedrock along fault Q most probably produced (1) gaps in the rock record (2) an earthquake (3) a volcanic lava flow (4) zones of contact metamorphism 44 The unconformities shown in the cross section represent (1) buried erosional surfaces (2) locations of index fossils (3) volcanic ash deposits (4) boundaries between oceanic and continental crust P.S./E. Sci. Aug. 03 46 Which rock most likely formed in the zone of contact between rock E and rock F? (1) obsidian (3) metaconglomerate (2) slate (4) sandstone [12] 47 Rock layers B, C, and D formed during the Devonian Period. Which fossil might be found in these rock layers? Mastodont (1) Elliptocephala (2) Base your answers to questions 48 and 49 on the diagram below, which shows numbered positions of the Sun at four different times along the Sun s apparent daily path, as seen by an observer in New York State. Numbers 1 through 4 represent apparent positions of the Sun. Sun s apparent path Phacops (3) Cystiphyllum (4) 50 The two photographs below show dates on tombstones found in a cemetery in St. Remy, New York. The tombstones were 5 meters apart and both faced north. Tombstone A had dates cut into the rock in 1922. Tombstone B had dates cut into the rock in 1892. Zenith 2 3 1 West 4 Observer South Tombstone A (1922) North East 48 The observer had the longest shadow when the Sun was at position (1) 1 (3) 3 (2) 2 (4) 4 Tombstone B (1892) Which statement best explains why the dates are more difficult to read on tombstone A than on tombstone B? (1) Tombstone A is composed of minerals less resistant to weathering than tombstone B. (2) Tombstone A has undergone a longer period of weathering than tombstone B. (3) Tombstone A experienced cooler temperatures than tombstone B. (4) Tombstone A was exposed to less acid rain than tombstone B. 49 During which day of the year is the Sun most likely to follow the apparent path shown? (1) March 1 (3) October 1 (2) July 1 (4) December 1 P.S./E. Sci. Aug. 03 [13] [OVER] Part B 2 Answer all questions in this part. Directions (51 63): Record your answers in the spaces provided in your answer booklet. Some questions may require the use of the Earth Science Reference Tables. 51 State the general relationship between a planet s distance from the Sun and the time a planet takes to complete one orbit around the Sun. [1] Base your answers to questions 52 through 54 on the diagram below, which shows the altitude of the Sun at solar noon on certain dates. The positions of the Sun, labeled A, B, and C, were measured by an observer at 42 north latitude. The date when the Sun was observed at position A has been deliberately left blank. (June 21) C (March 21) 71 .5 B 24. 5 48 A Observer Horizon 52 Which season begins in New York State when the noontime Sun is observed at position A? [1] 53 Position B represents the Sun s position at solar noon on March 21. On what other date of the year would the noontime Sun be observed at position B? [1] 54 What is the total change in altitude that occurs as the noontime Sun appears to move from position A to position C? [1] Base your answers to questions 55 through 57 on the weather station model provided in your answer booklet. 55 On the weather station model provided in your answer booklet, draw the proper symbols to indicate a wind of 25 knots blowing from the southeast. [1] 56 What is the actual air pressure shown by this weather station model? [1] 57 a What specific type of precipitation is occurring at this weather station? [1] b State one additional weather condition shown by the station model. Explain how this weather condition provides evidence of high relative humidity. [1] P.S./E. Sci. Aug. 03 [14] Base your answers to questions 58 through 61 on the contour map below. Letters A through H represent locations in the area represented by the map. Contour lines are labeled in feet. 0 10 H F 200 E Steep Cliff 0 G 20 D 0 20 C 200 G 100 r ee B A n Riv e r 0 10 100 0 1/2 1 2 N 3 miles 58 Calculate the gradient of the slope along the dashed line between points G and H on the map. Label the answer with the correct units. [2] 59 State how the shape of the contour lines crossing the Green River indicates that this river flows toward the southeast. [1] 60 Which letter represents the highest elevation? [1] 61 Explain how the contour lines on the map indicate that the location labeled Steep Cliff is accurately named. [1] P.S./E. Sci. Aug. 03 [15] [OVER] Base your answers to questions 62 and 63 on the isotherm maps below and on your knowledge of Earth science. The maps show the average monthly air temperatures ( F) over a portion of Earth s surface for January and July. January Average Temperature ( F) 10 20 60 0 10 20 30 40 30 70 July Average Temperature ( F) 60 70 60 80 50 60 90 30 100 80 0 0 85 80 80 90 70 30 90 60 70 60 30 50 50 0 60 120 0 60 120 62 The hottest average January temperatures occur at approximately what latitude? [1] 63 From January to July, there is a smaller temperature change in the Southern Hemisphere than in the Northern Hemisphere. Explain why the Southern Hemisphere s larger ocean-water surface causes this smaller temperature change. [1] P.S./E. Sci. Aug. 03 [16] Part C Answer all questions in this part. Directions (64 80): Record your answers in the spaces provided in your answer booklet. Some questions may require the use of the Earth Science Reference Tables. Base your answers to questions 64 through 66 on the diagram provided in your answer booklet and on your knowledge of Earth science. The diagram shows the Sun, Earth, and the Moon s orbit around Earth as viewed from space. 64 On the diagram provided in your answer booklet, draw a circle of approximately this size to represent the Moon s position in its orbit when a solar eclipse is viewed from Earth. [1] 65 Approximately how many complete revolutions does the Moon make around Earth each month? [1] 66 Explain why solar eclipses do not occur every time the Moon revolves around Earth. [1] Base your answers to questions 67 through 70 on the table below and on your knowledge of Earth science. The table shows air temperatures and air pressures recorded by a weather balloon rising over Buffalo, New York. Altitude Above Sea Level (m) Air Temperature ( C) Air Pressure (mb) 300 16.0 973 600 16.5 937 900 15.5 904 1,200 13.0 871 1,500 12.0 842 1,800 10.0 809 2,100 7.5 778 2,400 5.0 750 2,700 2.5 721 67 On the grid provided in your answer booklet, construct a graph of altitude above sea level and air temperature by following the directions below. a Plot an X for the air temperature recorded at each altitude shown on the table. [1] b Connect the Xs with a solid line. [1] 68 What weather instrument is usually attached to a weather balloon to measure air pressure? [1] 69 State the relationship shown in the table between altitude above sea level and air pressure recorded by the rising weather balloon. [1] 70 This rising weather balloon also recorded dewpoint temperatures. If the dewpoint at 1,500 meters was 12 C, what was the relative humidity of the air at 1,500 meters above sea level? [1] P.S./E. Sci. Aug. 03 [17] [OVER] Base your answers to questions 71 through 74 on the reading passage below and on your knowledge of Earth science. Greenhouse Effect The warming of Earth s surface and lower atmosphere tends to intensify with an increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide. The atmosphere allows a large percentage of the visible light rays from the Sun to reach Earth s surface. Some of this energy is reradiated by Earth s surface in the form of long-wave infrared radiation. Much of this infrared radiation warms the atmosphere when it is absorbed by molecules of carbon dioxide and water vapor. A similar warming effect is produced by the glass of a greenhouse, which allows sunlight in the visible range to enter, but prevents infrared radiation from leaving the greenhouse. The absorption of infrared radiation causes Earth s surface and the lowest layer of Earth s atmosphere to warm to a higher temperature than would otherwise be the case. Without this greenhouse warming, Earth s average surface temperature could be as low as 73 C. The oceans would freeze under such conditions. Many scientists believe that modern industrialization and the burning of fossil fuels (coal, oil, and natural gas) have increased the amount of atmospheric carbon dioxide. This increase may result in an intensified greenhouse effect on Earth causing significant alterations in climate patterns in the future. Scientists estimate that average global temperatures could increase by as much as 5 C by the middle of the 21st century. 71 The lowest layer of Earth s atmosphere has undergone a large increase in temperature due to the presence of greenhouse gases. State the name of this temperaturezone layer. [1] 72 State a possible wavelength, in centimeters, of infrared radiation. [1] 73 Explain why most scientists believe an increase in the greenhouse effect will cause sea levels to rise. [1] 74 State one possible change humans could make to significantly reduce the amount of greenhouse gases added to the atmosphere each year. [1] P.S./E. Sci. Aug. 03 [18] Base your answers to questions 75 through 78 on the Rock Classification flowchart shown below. Letters A, B, and C represent specific rocks in this classification scheme. Rock Classification Flowchart Rocks Sedimentary Clastic Rock A Crystalline Rock salt Igneous Bioclastic Limestone Metamorphic Extrusive Rock B Intrusive Gabbro Foliated Rock C Nonfoliated Quartzite 75 Rock A is composed of very fine-grained quartz and feldspar particles 0.005 centimeter in diameter. State the name of rock A. [1] 76 Rock B has a glassy, vesicular texture and is composed mainly of potassium feldspar and quartz. State the name of rock B. [1] 77 Granite could be placed in the same position in the flowchart above as gabbro. Describe two differences between granite and gabbro. [1] 78 The diagram below represents two magnified views showing the arrangement of minerals before and after metamorphism of rock C. State the name of rock C. [1] Stress Stress Stress Stress Mineral Arrangement Before Metamorphism P.S./E. Sci. Aug. 03 Rock C Showing Banding After Metamorphism [19] [OVER] Base your answers to questions 79 and 80 on the reading passage and map of the western United States below and on your knowledge of Earth science. The states of Washington and Oregon have been labeled on the map. The plate boundary shown on the map is the source area for high-magnitude earthquakes in Washington and Oregon. Two hazardous zones associated with these earthquakes are also shown. Washington and Oregon Earthquakes Large-magnitude earthquakes have occurred in Washington and Oregon as a result of crustal movement along thrust faults bordering the coasts of these states. Thrust faults occur when one section of Earth s crust slides over another section. Associated with the sudden movement of these thrust faults, coastlines can drop several feet, flooding forests with saltwater. Geologists have discovered evidence from various geologic ages of flooded coastal forests in the bedrock layers of Washington and Oregon. They have also found layers of sandstone thought to have been derived from sand deposits left by tsunamis. Using the rock record, scientists conclude that very large magnitude earthquakes occur every 300 to 500 years with the most recent large quake occurring about 200 years ago. Canada Plate boundary Washington Yellowstone Hot Spot Oregon Pacific Ocean Key High-hazard zone Low-hazard zone 79 a What is a tsunami? [1] b State how tsunamis can affect coastal regions. [1] 80 a Identify the tectonic plates on both sides of the plate boundary shown on the map. [1] b Identify the type of tectonic plate boundary shown on the map that is responsible for the thrust faults along the Washington and Oregon coastline. [1] P.S./E. Sci. Aug. 03 [20] The University of the State of New York REGENTS HIGH SCHOOL EXAMINATION PHYSICAL SETTING Tear Here EARTH SCIENCE Wednesday, August 13, 2003 12:30 to 3:30 p.m., only Student ANSWER SHEET . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Sex: Teacher .............................................. Male Female Grade ........... School . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Record your answers to Part A and Part B 1 on this answer sheet. Part B 1 Part A 1 ............ 13 . . . . . . . . . . . . 25 . . . . . . . . . . . 36 . . . . . . . . . . . . 44 . . . . . . . . . . . . 2 ............ 14 . . . . . . . . . . . . 26 . . . . . . . . . . . 37 . . . . . . . . . . . . 45 . . . . . . . . . . . . 3 ............ 15 . . . . . . . . . . . . 27 . . . . . . . . . . . 38 . . . . . . . . . . . . 46 . . . . . . . . . . . . 4 ............ 16 . . . . . . . . . . . . 28 . . . . . . . . . . . 39 . . . . . . . . . . . . 47 . . . . . . . . . . . . 5 ............ 17 . . . . . . . . . . . . 29 . . . . . . . . . . . 40 . . . . . . . . . . . . 48 . . . . . . . . . . . . 6 ............ 18 . . . . . . . . . . . . 30 . . . . . . . . . . . 41 . . . . . . . . . . . . 49 . . . . . . . . . . . . 7 ............ 19 . . . . . . . . . . . . 31 . . . . . . . . . . . 42 . . . . . . . . . . . . 50 . . . . . . . . . . . . 8 ............ 20 . . . . . . . . . . . . 32 . . . . . . . . . . . 43 . . . . . . . . . . . . 9 ............ 21 . . . . . . . . . . . . 33 . . . . . . . . . . . 10 . . . . . . . . . . . . 22 . . . . . . . . . . . . 34 . . . . . . . . . . . 11 . . . . . . . . . . . . 23 . . . . . . . . . . . . 35 . . . . . . . . . . . 12 . . . . . . . . . . . . 24 . . . . . . . . . . . . Part B 1 Score Part A Score Write your answers to Part B 2 and Part C in your answer booklet. Tear Here The declaration below should be signed when you have completed the examination. I do hereby affirm, at the close of this examination, that I had no unlawful knowledge of the questions or answers prior to the examination and that I have neither given nor received assistance in answering any of the questions during the examination. Signature Tear Here Tear Here FOR TEACHERS ONLY The University of the State of New York REGENTS HIGH SCHOOL EXAMINATION PS ES PHYSICAL SETTING/EARTH SCIENCE Wednesday, August 13, 2003 12:30 p.m. to 3:30 p.m., only SCORING KEY AND RATING GUIDE Directions to the Teacher: Refer to the directions on page 3 before rating student papers. Part A and Part B 1 Allow 1 credit for each correct response Part A Part B 1 1 . . . . 2. . . . . . . . 13 . . . . .4 . . . . . . . 25 . . . . 3. . . . . . . . 36 . . . . 2. . . . . . . . 44 . . . .1 . . . . . . . . 2 . . . . 4. . . . . . . . 14 . . . . .1 . . . . . . . 26 . . . . 3. . . . . . . . 37 . . . . 3. . . . . . . . 45 . . . .2 . . . . . . . . 3 . . . . 1. . . . . . . . 15 . . . . .2 . . . . . . . 27 . . . . 4. . . . . . . . 38 . . . . 2. . . . . . . . 46 . . . .3 . . . . . . . . 4 . . . . 1. . . . . . . . 16 . . . . .4 . . . . . . . 28 . . . . 4. . . . . . . . 39 . . . . 4. . . . . . . . 47 . . . .3 . . . . . . . . 5 . . . . 3. . . . . . . . 17 . . . . .1 . . . . . . . 29 . . . . 3. . . . . . . . 40 . . . . 1. . . . . . . . 48 . . . .4 . . . . . . . . 6 . . . . 1. . . . . . . . 18 . . . . .3 . . . . . . . 30 . . . . 3. . . . . . . . 41 . . . . 2. . . . . . . . 49 . . . .2 . . . . . . . . 7 . . . . 1. . . . . . . . 19 . . . . .3 . . . . . . . 31 . . . . 4. . . . . . . . 42 . . . . 3. . . . . . . . 50 . . . .1 . . . . . . . . 8 . . . . 2. . . . . . . . 20 . . . . .3 . . . . . . . 32 . . . . 1. . . . . . . . 43 . . . . 2. . . . . . . . 9 . . . . 2. . . . . . . . 21 . . . . .4 . . . . . . . 33 . . . . 1. . . . . . . . 10 . . . . 2. . . . . . . . 22 . . . . .1 . . . . . . . 34 . . . . 2. . . . . . . . 11 . . . . 1. . . . . . . . 23 . . . . .2 . . . . . . . 35 . . . . 4. . . . . . . . 12 . . . . 4. . . . . . . . 24 . . . . .4 . . . . . . . [1] [OVER] [2] PHYSICAL SETTING/EARTH SCIENCE continued Directions to the Teacher Follow the procedures below for scoring student answer papers for the Physical Setting/Earth Science examination. Additional information about scoring is provided in the publication Information for Administering and Scoring Regents Examinations in the Sciences. Use only red ink or red pencil in rating Regents papers. Do not correct the student s work by making insertions or changes of any kind. On the detachable answer sheet for Part A and Part B 1, indicate by means of a checkmark each incorrect or omitted answer. In the box provided at the end of each part, record the number of questions the student answered correctly for that part. At least two science teachers must participate in the scoring of each student s responses to the Part B 2 and Part C open-ended questions. Each of these teachers should be responsible for scoring a selected number of the open-ended questions on each answer paper. No one teacher is to score all the open-ended questions on a student s answer paper. Student s responses must be scored strictly according to the Scoring Key and Rating Guide. For open-ended questions, credit may be allowed for responses other than those given in the rating guide if the response is a scientifically accurate answer to the question and demonstrates adequate knowledge as indicated by the examples in the rating guide. In the student s answer booklet, record the number of credits earned for each answer in the box printed to the right of the answer lines or spaces for that question. Fractional credit is not allowed. Only whole-number credit may be given to a response. Units need not be given when the wording of the questions allows such omissions. Raters should enter the scores earned for Part A, Part B 1, Part B 2, and Part C on the appropriate lines in the box printed on the answer booklet and then should add these four scores and enter the total in the box labeled Total Written Test Score. The student s score for the Earth Science Performance Test should be entered in the space provided. Then, the student s raw scores on the performance test and written test should be converted to a scaled score by using the conversion chart printed at the end of this Scoring Key and Rating Guide. The student s scaled score should be entered in the labeled box on the student s answer booklet. The scaled score is the student s final examination score. All student answer papers that receive a scaled score of 60 through 64 must be scored a second time. For the second scoring, a different committee of teachers may score the student s paper or the original committee may score the paper, except that no teacher may score the same open-ended questions that he/she scored in the first rating of the paper. The school principal is responsible for assuring that the student s final examination score is based on a fair, accurate, and reliable scoring of the student s answer paper. Because scaled scores corresponding to raw scores in the conversion chart may change from one examination to another, it is crucial that for each administration, the conversion chart provided in the scoring key for that administration be used to determine the student s final score. The chart in this scoring key is usable only for this administration of the examination. [3] [OVER] PHYSICAL SETTING/EARTH SCIENCE continued Part B 2 51 [1] Allow 1 credit for a correct response. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples: The farther a planet is from the Sun, the longer the planet takes to complete one orbit around the Sun. direct relationship 52 [1] Allow 1 credit for winter. 53 [1] Allow 1 credit for a correct response. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples: September 21 September 22 September 23 September 24 autumnal equinox first day of fall 54 [1] Allow 1 credit for 47 degrees. 55 [1] 985 1 4 31\ 985 1 4 or 51 31\ 51 Allow 1 credit for correct symbols of both the wind direction and wind speed. 56 [1] Allow 1 credit for 998.5 millibars. [4] PHYSICAL SETTING/EARTH SCIENCE continued 57 [2] a Allow 1 credit for drizzle. Note: Do not allow credit for rain. b Allow 1 credit for a correct response. Responses must include both a weather condition and a correct explanation to receive credit. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples: Weather Condition 100% cloud cover 1 4 Explanation indicates that saturated air has condensed low visibility ( mile) is most likely caused by water droplets in the air low air pressure because humid air is less dense than dry air Air pressure decreased This change may indicate that moist air has during the last 3 hours. arrived. 58 [2] Allow 1 credit for 50 ( 3). and Allow 1 credit for the correct unit feet per mile or ft/mi. Note: Do not allow credit for ft/m. 59 [1] Allow 1 credit for a correct response. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples: Contour lines that cross the Green River bend in the opposite direction of river flow. Contour lines bend upstream when crossing the Green River. Contour lines that cross the river form V-shapes. The point of each V-shape indicates the uphill or upstream direction. 60 [1] Allow 1 credit for D. 61 [1] Allow 1 credit for a correct response. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples: Contour lines are extremely close together. The most closely spaced contour lines indicate the steepest gradient. [5] [OVER] PHYSICAL SETTING/EARTH SCIENCE continued 62 [1] Allow 1 credit for 20 south ( 8 ). The correct compass direction must be included. 63 [1] Allow 1 credit for a correct response. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples: Water has a higher specific heat than the land. Water takes a longer time to heat up and cool down than land. [6] PHYSICAL SETTING/EARTH SCIENCE continued Part C 64 [1] Moon Earth Sun Moon s orbit (Not drawn to scale) Allow 1 credit for drawing the Moon on the orbit directly between the Sun and Earth. 65 [1] Allow 1 credit for 1 or 1.1 revolution. 66 [1] Allow 1 credit for a correct response. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples: The Moon s orbit around Earth is not always in the same plane as Earth s orbit around the Sun. The Moon usually passes above or below the Sun as seen from Earth. The Sun, Moon, and Earth are only occasionally aligned in a straight line. [7] [OVER] PHYSICAL SETTING/EARTH SCIENCE continued 67 [2] 18 17 16 X X X 15 14 Air Temperature ( C) 13 X 12 X 11 10 X 9 8 X 7 6 5 X 4 3 X 2 1 0 300 600 900 1200 1500 1800 2100 2400 2700 Altitude Above Sea Level (m) Allow 1 credit for correctly plotting seven or more points, even if Xs are not used. and Allow 1 credit for correctly connecting the plotted Xs or points, even if they are plotted incorrectly. 68 [1] Allow 1 credit for barometer or altimeter. [8] PHYSICAL SETTING/EARTH SCIENCE continued 69 [1] Allow 1 credit for a correct response. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples: inverse realtionship indirect relationship As elevation increases, air pressure decreases. 70 [1] Allow 1 credit for 100% relative humidity. 71 [1] Allow 1 credit for troposphere. 5 72 [1] Allow 1 credit for a correct response. Acceptable responses range from 7.0 10 to 2 5.0 10 according to the Earth Science Reference Tables. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples: 0.0001 or 0.001 or 0.01 10 4 or 10 3 or 10 2 73 [1] Allow 1 credit for a correct response. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, this example: An increase in global temperatures will cause glaciers and continental ice sheets to gradually melt. 74 [1] Allow 1 credit for a correct response. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples: Pass a law to limit greenhouse gas emissions. Stop burning the rain forests. Increase car pool/mass transit use. 75 [1] Allow 1 credit for siltstone. 76 [1] Allow 1 credit for pumice. [9] [OVER] PHYSICAL SETTING/EARTH SCIENCE continued 77 [1] Allow 1 credit for two correct responses. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples: Granite is lighter in color than gabbro. Granite is less dense than gabbro. Granite s composition is more felsic, while gabbro s composition is more mafic. Granite contains the minerals potassium feldspar and quartz; gabbro does not. 78 [1] Allow 1 credit for gneiss. 79 [2] a Allow 1 credit for a correct response. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples: large ocean wave or series of ocean waves generated by an earthquake wave caused by an earthquake Note: Accept the commonly used term tidal wave, but do not accept the response that tsunamis are caused by tides. b Allow 1 credit for a correct response. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples: flooding bringing in sand deposits destruction of coastal property [10] PHYSICAL SETTING/EARTH SCIENCE concluded 80 [2] a Allow 1 credit for Juan de Fuca Plate and North American Plate. b Allow 1 credit for a correct response. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples: subduction zone convergent plate boundary or Allow 1 credit for a response that is consistent with the student s answer for 80a. Note: Do not allow credit for thrust faults. [11] PHYSICAL SETTING/EARTH SCIENCE continued [12] [13] Regents Examination in Physical Setting/Earth Science August 2003 CHART FOR DETERMINING THE FINAL EXAMINATION SCORE (USE FOR AUGUST 2003 EXAMINATION ONLY.) To determine the student s final examination score, locate the student s total performance test score across the top of the chart and the student s total written test score down the side of the chart. The point where those two scores intersect is the student s final examination score. For example, a student receiving a total performance test score of 14 and a total written test score of 68 would receive a final examination score of 84. Total Performance Test Score 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 14 13 12 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 0 100 99 98 97 97 97 97 96 96 95 95 94 94 93 92 92 91 90 89 89 88 87 86 85 84 99 98 97 97 96 96 96 95 95 94 94 93 93 92 92 91 90 89 89 88 87 86 85 84 83 99 98 97 97 96 96 96 95 95 94 94 93 93 92 92 91 90 89 89 88 87 86 85 84 82 98 97 96 96 96 95 95 94 94 94 93 93 92 91 91 90 89 89 88 87 86 85 84 83 81 97 96 95 95 95 94 94 94 93 93 92 92 91 90 90 89 88 88 87 86 85 84 83 82 80 97 96 95 95 95 94 94 94 93 93 92 92 91 90 90 89 88 88 87 86 85 84 83 82 79 97 96 94 94 94 93 93 93 92 92 91 91 90 90 89 88 88 87 86 85 84 83 83 82 78 96 95 94 93 93 93 92 92 91 91 91 90 89 89 88 87 87 86 85 84 84 83 82 81 77 96 95 94 93 93 93 92 92 91 91 91 90 89 89 88 87 87 86 85 84 84 83 82 81 76 95 94 93 92 92 92 91 91 91 90 90 89 89 88 87 87 86 85 84 84 83 82 81 80 75 94 93 92 92 91 91 91 90 90 89 89 88 88 87 86 86 85 84 84 83 82 81 80 79 74 93 92 91 91 90 90 90 89 89 88 88 87 87 86 86 85 84 83 83 82 81 80 79 78 73 93 92 91 91 90 90 90 89 89 88 88 87 87 86 86 85 84 83 83 82 81 80 79 78 72 Total Written Test Score 23 85 92 91 90 90 90 89 89 88 88 88 87 87 86 85 85 84 83 83 82 81 80 79 78 77 71 92 90 89 89 89 88 88 88 87 87 86 86 85 85 84 83 83 82 81 80 79 78 77 77 70 91 90 88 88 88 88 87 87 86 86 85 85 84 84 83 82 82 81 80 79 78 78 77 76 69 90 89 88 87 87 87 86 86 86 85 85 84 83 83 82 82 81 80 79 78 78 77 76 75 68 89 88 87 86 86 86 85 85 85 84 84 83 83 82 81 81 80 79 78 78 77 76 75 74 67 88 87 86 86 85 85 85 84 84 83 83 82 82 81 80 80 79 78 78 77 76 75 74 73 66 88 87 86 86 85 85 85 84 84 83 83 82 82 81 80 80 79 78 78 77 76 75 74 73 65 87 86 85 85 84 84 84 83 83 82 82 81 81 80 80 79 78 78 77 76 75 74 73 72 64 86 85 84 84 84 83 83 83 82 82 81 81 80 79 79 78 77 77 76 75 74 73 72 71 63 86 85 83 83 83 82 82 82 81 81 80 80 79 79 78 77 77 76 75 74 73 72 72 71 62 85 84 82 82 82 82 81 81 80 80 79 79 78 78 77 76 76 75 74 73 72 72 71 70 61 84 83 82 81 81 81 80 80 80 79 79 78 77 77 76 76 75 74 73 72 72 71 70 69 60 83 82 81 80 80 80 80 79 79 78 78 77 77 76 75 75 74 73 72 72 71 70 69 68 59 82 81 80 80 79 79 79 78 78 77 77 76 76 75 75 74 73 72 72 71 70 69 68 67 58 81 80 79 79 79 78 78 77 77 77 76 76 75 74 74 73 72 72 71 70 69 68 67 66 57 80 79 78 78 78 77 77 77 76 76 75 75 74 73 73 72 71 71 70 69 68 67 66 65 56 80 79 77 77 77 76 76 76 75 75 74 74 73 73 72 71 71 70 69 68 67 66 66 65 55 79 78 77 76 76 76 75 75 74 74 74 73 72 72 71 70 70 69 68 67 67 66 65 64 54 78 77 76 75 75 75 74 74 74 73 73 72 72 71 70 70 69 68 67 67 66 65 64 63 53 76 75 74 74 73 73 73 72 72 71 71 70 70 69 69 68 67 66 66 65 64 63 62 61 52 75 74 73 73 73 72 72 71 71 71 70 70 69 68 68 67 66 66 65 64 63 62 61 60 51 75 73 72 72 72 71 71 71 70 70 69 69 68 68 67 66 66 65 64 63 62 61 60 60 50 74 73 71 71 71 71 70 70 69 69 68 68 67 67 66 65 65 64 63 62 61 61 60 59 49 73 72 71 70 70 70 69 69 69 68 68 67 66 66 65 65 64 63 62 61 61 60 59 58 48 72 71 70 69 69 69 68 68 68 67 67 66 66 65 64 64 63 62 61 61 60 59 58 57 47 71 70 69 69 68 68 68 67 67 66 66 65 65 64 63 63 62 61 61 60 59 58 57 56 46 70 69 68 68 67 67 67 66 66 65 65 64 64 63 63 62 61 61 60 59 58 57 56 55 45 44 69 68 68 67 66 65 66 65 66 65 65 65 65 64 65 64 64 63 64 63 63 62 63 62 62 61 62 61 61 60 60 59 60 59 59 58 58 57 57 56 56 55 55 55 55 54 54 53 [14] Regents Examination in Physical Setting/Earth Science August 2003 CHART FOR DETERMINING THE FINAL EXAMINATION SCORE (USE FOR AUGUST 2003 EXAMINATION ONLY.) Total Performance Test Score 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 14 13 12 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 0 43 67 66 65 64 64 64 63 63 63 62 62 61 60 60 59 59 58 57 56 55 55 54 53 52 42 66 65 64 63 63 63 63 62 62 61 61 60 60 59 58 58 57 56 55 55 54 53 52 51 41 64 63 62 62 62 61 61 60 60 60 59 59 58 57 57 56 55 55 54 53 52 51 50 49 40 63 62 61 61 61 60 60 60 59 59 58 58 57 56 56 55 54 54 53 52 51 50 49 48 39 63 62 60 60 60 59 59 59 58 58 57 57 56 56 55 54 54 53 52 51 50 49 49 48 38 62 61 60 59 59 59 58 58 57 57 57 56 55 55 54 53 53 52 51 50 50 49 48 47 37 60 59 58 58 57 57 57 56 56 55 55 54 54 53 52 52 51 50 50 49 48 47 46 45 36 59 58 57 57 56 56 56 55 55 54 54 53 53 52 52 51 50 49 49 48 47 46 45 44 35 58 57 56 56 56 55 55 54 54 54 53 53 52 51 51 50 49 49 48 47 46 45 44 43 34 58 56 55 55 55 54 54 54 53 53 52 52 51 51 50 49 49 48 47 46 45 44 43 43 33 56 55 54 53 53 53 52 52 52 51 51 50 49 49 48 48 47 46 45 44 44 43 42 41 32 55 54 53 52 52 52 51 51 51 50 50 49 49 48 47 47 46 45 44 44 43 42 41 40 31 54 53 52 52 51 51 51 50 50 49 49 48 48 47 46 46 45 44 44 43 42 41 40 39 30 52 51 50 50 50 49 49 49 48 48 47 47 46 45 45 44 43 43 42 41 40 39 38 37 29 52 51 49 49 49 48 48 48 47 47 46 46 45 45 44 43 43 42 41 40 39 38 38 37 28 51 50 48 48 48 48 47 47 46 46 45 45 44 44 43 42 42 41 40 39 38 38 37 36 27 Total Written Test Score 23 49 48 47 46 46 46 46 45 45 44 44 43 43 42 41 41 40 39 38 38 37 36 35 34 26 48 47 46 46 45 45 45 44 44 43 43 42 42 41 41 40 39 38 38 37 36 35 34 33 25 46 45 44 44 44 43 43 43 42 42 41 41 40 39 39 38 37 37 36 35 34 33 32 31 24 46 45 43 43 43 42 42 42 41 41 40 40 39 39 38 37 37 36 35 34 33 32 32 31 23 45 44 43 42 42 42 41 41 40 40 40 39 38 38 37 36 36 35 34 33 33 32 31 30 22 43 42 41 41 40 40 40 39 39 38 38 37 37 36 35 35 34 33 33 32 31 30 29 28 21 42 41 40 40 39 39 39 38 38 37 37 36 36 35 35 34 33 32 32 31 30 29 28 27 20 41 39 38 38 38 37 37 37 36 36 35 35 34 34 33 32 32 31 30 29 28 27 26 26 19 40 39 37 37 37 37 36 36 35 35 34 34 33 33 32 31 31 30 29 28 27 27 26 25 18 38 37 36 35 35 35 34 34 34 33 33 32 32 31 30 30 29 28 27 27 26 25 24 23 17 37 36 35 35 34 34 34 33 33 32 32 31 31 30 29 29 28 27 27 26 25 24 23 22 16 35 34 33 33 33 32 32 32 31 31 30 30 29 28 28 27 26 26 25 24 23 22 21 20 15 35 34 32 32 32 31 31 31 30 30 29 29 28 28 27 26 26 25 24 23 22 21 21 20 14 34 33 31 31 31 31 30 30 29 29 28 28 27 27 26 25 25 24 23 22 21 21 20 19 13 32 31 30 29 29 29 29 28 28 27 27 26 26 25 24 24 23 22 21 21 20 19 18 17 12 31 30 29 29 28 28 28 27 27 26 26 25 25 24 24 23 22 21 21 20 19 18 17 16 11 29 28 27 27 27 26 26 26 25 25 24 24 23 22 22 21 20 20 19 18 17 16 15 14 10 28 27 26 25 25 25 24 24 23 23 23 22 21 21 20 19 19 18 17 16 16 15 14 13 9 27 26 25 24 24 24 23 23 23 22 22 21 21 20 19 19 18 17 16 16 15 14 13 12 8 25 24 23 23 22 22 22 21 21 20 20 19 19 18 18 17 16 15 15 14 13 12 11 10 7 24 23 22 22 22 21 21 20 20 20 19 19 18 17 17 16 15 15 14 13 12 11 10 9 6 23 22 20 20 20 20 19 19 18 18 17 17 16 16 15 14 14 13 12 11 10 10 9 8 5 22 21 20 19 19 19 18 18 18 17 17 16 15 15 14 14 13 12 11 10 10 9 8 7 4 20 19 18 18 17 17 17 16 16 15 15 14 14 13 12 12 11 10 10 9 8 7 6 5 3 19 18 17 17 16 16 16 15 15 14 14 13 13 12 12 11 10 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 2 18 17 15 15 15 14 14 14 13 13 12 12 11 11 10 9 9 8 7 6 5 4 4 3 1 17 16 14 14 14 14 13 13 12 12 11 11 10 10 9 8 8 7 6 5 4 4 3 2 0 15 14 13 12 12 12 12 11 11 10 10 9 9 8 7 7 6 5 4 4 3 2 1 0 [15] Map to Core Curriculum August 2003 Physical Setting/ Earth Science Question Numbers Key Ideas/Performance Indicators Part A Part B Part C 33 27 3 21,22,25 54,56 36,51 60 41,42,43,50,61 65,67 65,70,71 1,3,4,6,7,8,9, 10,11,13,15,19, 20,28,29,30 36,40,43,44,47, 48,52,53,54, 57a,59,62 65,69,71,72,75, 76,77,78,79a,79b, 80a,80b 74 37,38,39,53 68 46,55,56,57b, 63 40,43,52,55,61 51,58,59,60,61, 62 36 38,39,41,44,45, 48,49,50,53,58 66 Standard 1 Math Key Idea 1 Math Key Idea 2 Math Key Idea 3 Sci. Inq. Key Idea 1 Sci. Inq. Key Idea 2 Sci. Inq. Key Idea 3 Eng. Des. Key Idea 1 66,69,73,79a,79b Standard 2 Key Idea 1 Key Idea 2 Key Idea 3 26 Standard 6 Key Idea 1 Key Idea 2 Key Idea 3 Key Idea 4 Key Idea 5 3,4,10,13,19 8,11,15,20 Key Idea 6 64 72 74 67 64,74 Standard 7 Key Idea 1 Key Idea 2 74 Standard 4 Performance Indicator 1 1,3,4,5,8,9,11, 27,29,30,31,34 Performance Indicator 2 2,7,10,12,13, 14,15,16,17,18, 19,20,22,24,25, 26,28,35 Performance Indicator 3 36,43,44,45,46, 47,48,49,52,53, 54 37,38,39,40,41, 42,50,55,56,57, 58,59,60,61,62, 63 21,32 64,65,66 67,68,69,70,71, 72,73,74,79a,79b, 80a,80b 75,76,77,78 Reference Tables ESRT 2001 edition 1,6,7,12,14,17, 19,23,26,27,28, 29,30,32,33,35 [16] 38,46,47,51,55, 56,57,58,63 65,71,72,75,76, 77,78,80a,80b

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