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New York Regents Chemistry June 2010 Exam

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PS/CHEMISTRY The University of the State of New York REGENTS HIGH SCHOOL EXAMINATION PHYSICAL SETTING CHEMISTRY Wednesday, June 16, 2010 1:15 to 4:15 p.m., only This is a test of your knowledge of chemistry. Use that knowledge to answer all questions in this examination. Some questions may require the use of the Reference Tables for Physical Setting/Chemistry. You are to answer all questions in all parts of this examination according to the directions provided in the examination booklet. The answers to all questions in this examination are to be written in your separate answer booklet. Be sure to fill in the heading on the front of your answer booklet. All work should be written in pen, except for graphs and drawings, which should be done in pencil. You may use scrap paper to work out the answers to the questions, but be sure to record all your answers in your answer booklet. When you have completed the examination, you must sign the statement printed on the first page of your answer booklet, indicating that you had no unlawful knowledge of the questions or answers prior to the examination and that you have neither given nor received assistance in answering any of the questions during the examination. Your answer booklet cannot be accepted if you fail to sign this declaration. Notice. . . A four-function or scientific calculator and a copy of the Reference Tables for Physical Setting/Chemistry must be available for you to use while taking this examination. The use of any communications device is strictly prohibited when taking this examination. If you use any communications device, no matter how briefly, your examination will be invalidated and no score will be calculated for you. DO NOT OPEN THIS EXAMINATION BOOKLET UNTIL THE SIGNAL IS GIVEN. PS/CHEMISTRY Part A Answer all questions in this part. Directions (1 30): For each statement or question, write in your answer booklet the number of the word or expression that, of those given, best completes the statement or answers the question. Some questions may require the use of the Reference Tables for Physical Setting/Chemistry. 1 The gold foil experiment led to the conclusion that each atom in the foil was composed mostly of empty space because most alpha particles directed at the foil (1) passed through the foil (2) remained trapped in the foil (3) were deflected by the nuclei in gold atoms (4) were deflected by the electrons in gold atoms 6 Which Group 14 element is classified as a metal? (1) carbon (3) silicon (2) germanium (4) tin 7 The light emitted from a flame is produced when electrons in an excited state (1) absorb energy as they move to lower energy states (2) absorb energy as they move to higher energy states (3) release energy as they move to lower energy states (4) release energy as they move to higher energy states 2 Which subatomic particles are located in the nucleus of a carbon atom? (1) protons, only (2) neutrons, only (3) protons and neutrons (4) protons and electrons 8 An atom of which element has the greatest attraction for electrons in a chemical bond? (1) As (3) Ge (2) Ga (4) Se 3 Which part of a helium atom is positively charged? (1) electron (3) nucleus (2) neutron (4) orbital 9 Which formula represents a polar molecule? (1) H2 (3) CO2 (2) H2O (4) CCl4 4 The mass of a proton is approximately equal to the mass of (1) an alpha particle (3) a neutron (2) an electron (4) a positron 10 Two categories of compounds are (1) covalent and molecular (2) covalent and metallic (3) ionic and molecular (4) ionic and metallic 5 At STP, solid carbon can exist as diamond and graphite. Compared to the molecular structure and chemical properties of diamond, graphite has (1) a different molecular structure and different properties (2) a different molecular structure and the same properties (3) the same molecular structure and different properties (4) the same molecular structure and the same properties P.S./Chem. June 10 11 Which type of bond is found between atoms of solid cobalt? (1) nonpolar covalent (3) metallic (2) polar covalent (4) ionic [2] 12 Which equation represents sublimation? (3) I2( ) I2(g) (1) I2(s) I2(g) (2) I2(s) I2( ) (4) I2( ) I2(s) 19 A chemical reaction between iron atoms and oxygen molecules can only occur if (1) the particles are heated (2) the atmospheric pressure decreases (3) there is a catalyst present (4) there are effective collisions between the particles 13 Which sample of ethanol has particles with the highest average kinetic energy? (1) 10.0 mL of ethanol at 25 C (2) 10.0 mL of ethanol at 55 C (3) 100.0 mL of ethanol at 35 C (4) 100.0 mL of ethanol at 45 C 20 Given the equation representing a phase change at equilibrium: H2O(s) H2O( ) 14 The molarity of an aqueous solution of NaCl is defined as the (1) grams of NaCl per liter of water (2) grams of NaCl per liter of solution (3) moles of NaCl per liter of water (4) moles of NaCl per liter of solution Which statement describes this equilibrium? (1) The H2O(s) melts faster than the H2O( ) freezes. (2) The H2O( ) freezes faster than the H2O(s) melts. (3) The mass of H2O(s) must equal the mass of H2O( ). (4) The mass of H2O( ) and the mass of H2O(s) each remain constant. 15 A real gas behaves least like an ideal gas under the conditions of (1) low temperature and low pressure (2) low temperature and high pressure (3) high temperature and low pressure (4) high temperature and high pressure 21 A molecule of an organic compound contains at least one atom of (1) carbon (3) nitrogen (2) chlorine (4) oxygen 16 Which sample of matter can be separated into different substances by physical means? (1) LiCl(aq) (3) NH3(g) (2) LiCl(s) (4) NH3( ) 22 In a chemical reaction, the difference between the potential energy of the products and the potential energy of the reactants is equal to the (1) activation energy (2) entropy of the system (3) heat of fusion (4) heat of reaction 17 At STP, 1.0 liter of helium contains the same total number of atoms as (1) 1.0 L of Ne (3) 0.5 L of Rn (2) 2.0 L of Kr (4) 1.5 L of Ar 23 A carbon-carbon triple bond is found in a molecule of (1) butane (3) butene (2) butanone (4) butyne 18 Which statement describes the particles of an ideal gas? (1) The particles move in well-defined, circular paths. (2) When the particles collide, energy is lost. (3) There are forces of attraction between the particles. (4) The volume of the particles is negligible. P.S./Chem. June 10 [3] [OVER] 24 Which statement describes one characteristic of an operating electrolytic cell? (1) It produces electrical energy. (2) It requires an external energy source. (3) It uses radioactive nuclides. (4) It undergoes a spontaneous redox reaction. 28 During which process can 10.0 milliliters of a 0.05 M HCl(aq) solution be used to determine the unknown concentration of a given volume of NaOH(aq) solution? (1) evaporation (3) filtration (2) distillation (4) titration 25 Which compound when dissolved in water is an Arrhenius acid? (1) CH3OH (3) NaCl (2) HCl (4) NaOH 29 Which radioisotope is matched with its decay mode? (1) H-3 and (3) N-16 and (2) K-42 and + (4) P-32 and 26 An acid can be defined as an (3) OH acceptor (1) H+ acceptor (2) H+ donor (4) OH donor 30 Which reaction is accompanied by the release of the greatest amount of energy? (1) combustion of 10. g of propane (2) electrolysis of 10. g of water (3) nuclear fission of 10. g of uranium (4) oxidation of 10. g of iron 27 Which nuclear emission has no charge and no mass? (1) alpha particle (3) gamma ray (2) beta particle (4) positron P.S./Chem. June 10 [4] Part B 1 Answer all questions in this part. Directions (31 50): For each statement or question, write in your answer booklet the number of the word or expression that, of those given, best completes the statement or answers the question. Some questions may require the use of the Reference Tables for Physical Setting/Chemistry. 31 The total number of protons, electrons, and neutrons in each of four different atoms are shown in the table below. Subatomic Particles in Four Different Atoms Atom Total Number of Protons Total Number of Electrons Total Number of Neutrons A 6 6 7 D 6 6 8 X 7 7 8 Z 8 8 9 Which two atoms are isotopes of the same element? (1) A and D (3) X and D (2) A and Z (4) X and Z 35 Which characteristics both generally decrease when the elements in Period 3 on the Periodic Table are considered in order from left to right? (1) nonmetallic properties and atomic radius (2) nonmetallic properties and ionization energy (3) metallic properties and atomic radius (4) metallic properties and ionization energy 32 Which Lewis electron-dot diagram represents an atom in the ground state for a Group 13 element? X X X X (1) (2) (3) (4) 33 Which element forms a compound with chlorine with the general formula MCl? (1) Rb (3) Re (2) Ra (4) Rn 36 Which formula is both a molecular and an empirical formula? (1) C6H12O6 (3) C3H8O (2) C2H4O2 (4) C4H8 34 A sample of an element has a mass of 34.261 grams and a volume of 3.8 cubic centimeters. To which number of significant figures should the calculated density of the sample be expressed? (1) 5 (3) 3 (2) 2 (4) 4 37 An atom of argon in the ground state tends not to bond with an atom of a different element because the argon atom has (1) more protons than neutrons (2) more neutrons than protons (3) a total of two valence electrons (4) a total of eight valence electrons P.S./Chem. June 10 [5] [OVER] 41 A sample of gas confined in a cylinder with a movable piston is kept at constant pressure. The volume of the gas doubles when the temperature of the gas is changed from (1) 400. K to 200. K (3) 400. C to 200. C (2) 200. K to 400. K (4) 200. C to 400. C 38 Which formula represents a molecule having a nonpolar covalent bond? H H HC N HC H H C HH (1) HH (3) H H H HC H HC H 42 According to Table F, which compound is soluble in water? (1) barium phosphate (3) silver iodide (2) calcium sulfate (4) sodium perchlorate OH H (4) (2) 43 Given the equation representing a system at equilibrium: N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) + energy 39 Which compound has the lowest vapor pressure at 50 C? (1) ethanoic acid (3) propanone (2) ethanol (4) water Which changes occur when the temperature of this system is decreased? (1) The concentration of H2(g) increases and the concentration of N2(g) increases. (2) The concentration of H2(g) decreases and the concentration of N2(g) increases. (3) The concentration of H2(g) decreases and the concentration of NH3(g) decreases. (4) The concentration of H2(g) decreases and the concentration of NH3(g) increases. Potential Energy 40 Given the potential energy diagram and equation representing the reaction between substances A and D: G 44 Which formula represents an unsaturated hydrocarbon? A+D H H C C H O H H C (1) Reaction Coordinate C H H (3) G H H H H C C C H According to Table I, substance G could be (1) HI(g) (3) CO2(g) (2) H2O(g) (4) C2H6(g) H H (2) P.S./Chem. June 10 C H H A+D H [6] H H H C H H (4) C C H O H H H 48 Which laboratory test result can be used to determine if KCl(s) is an electrolyte? (1) pH of KCl(aq) (2) pH of KCl(s) (3) electrical conductivity of KCl(aq) (4) electrical conductivity of KCl(s) 45 Which half-reaction equation represents the reduction of an iron(II) ion? (1) Fe2+ Fe3+ + e (3) Fe3+ + e Fe2+ (2) Fe2+ + 2e Fe (4) Fe Fe2+ + 2e 46 Which metal is more active than H2? (1) Ag (3) Cu (2) Au (4) Pb 49 Which compound is produced when HCl(aq) is neutralized by Ca(OH)2(aq)? (3) HClO (1) CaCl2 (2) CaH2 (4) HClO2 47 Given the balanced ionic equation representing the reaction in an operating voltaic cell: Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s) 50 Which nuclides are used to date the remains of a once-living organism? (1) C-14 and C-12 (3) I-131 and Xe-131 (2) Co-60 and Co-59 (4) U-238 and Pb-206 The flow of electrons through the external circuit in this cell is from the (1) Cu anode to the Zn cathode (2) Cu cathode to the Zn anode (3) Zn anode to the Cu cathode (4) Zn cathode to the Cu anode P.S./Chem. June 10 [7] [OVER] Part B 2 Answer all questions in this part. Directions (51 64): Record your answers in the spaces provided in your answer booklet. Some questions may require the use of the Reference Tables for Physical Setting/Chemistry. 51 What is the total number of electron pairs shared between the carbon atom and one of the oxygen atoms in a carbon dioxide molecule? [1] 52 Explain, in terms of subatomic particles, why the radius of a chloride ion is larger than the radius of a chlorine atom. [1] 53 Explain, in terms of valence electrons, why the bonding in magnesium oxide, MgO, is similar to the bonding in barium chloride, BaCl2. [1] Base your answers to questions 54 and 55 on the information below. An atom in an excited state has an electron configuration of 2-7-2. 54 Explain, in terms of subatomic particles, why this excited atom is electrically neutral. [1] 55 Write the electron configuration of this atom in the ground state. [1] Base your answers to questions 56 through 58 on the information below. Glycine, NH2CH2COOH, is an organic compound found in proteins. Acetamide, CH3CONH2, is an organic compound that is an excellent solvent. Both glycine and acetamide consist of the same four elements, but the compounds have different functional groups. 56 In the space in your answer booklet, calculate the gram-formula mass of glycine. Your response must include both a numerical setup and the calculated result. [2] 57 Identify one functional group in a glycine molecule. [1] 58 In the space in your answer booklet, draw a structural formula for acetamide. [1] P.S./Chem. June 10 [8] Base your answers to questions 59 through 61 on the information below. Heat is added to a 200.-gram sample of H2O(s) to melt the sample at 0 C. Then the resulting H2O( ) is heated to a final temperature of 65 C. 59 Determine the total amount of heat required to completely melt the sample. [1] 60 In the space in your answer booklet, show a numerical setup for calculating the total amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the H2O( ) from 0 C to its final temperature. [1] 61 Compare the amount of heat required to vaporize a 200.-gram sample of H2O( ) at its boiling point to the amount of heat required to melt a 200.-gram sample of H2O(s) at its melting point. [1] Base your answers to questions 62 through 64 on the information below. When a uranium-235 nucleus absorbs a slow-moving neutron, different nuclear reactions may occur. One of these possible reactions is represented by the complete, balanced equation below. Equation 1: 235U 92 42 + 1n 92Kr + 156Ba + 21n + energy 0 36 0 For this reaction, the sum of the masses of the products is slightly less than the sum of the masses of the reactants. Another possible reaction of U-235 is represented by the incomplete, balanced equation below. Equation 2: 235U 92 1 + 1n 92Sr + _____ + 20n + energy 0 38 62 Identify the type of nuclear reaction represented by equation 1. [1] 63 Write a notation for the missing product in equation 2. [1] 64 Determine the half-life of krypton-92 if only 6.0 milligrams of an original 96.0-milligram sample remains unchanged after 7.36 seconds. [1] P.S./Chem. June 10 [9] [OVER] Part C Answer all questions in this part. Directions (65 83): Record your answers in the spaces provided in your answer booklet. Some questions may require the use of the Reference Tables for Physical Setting/Chemistry. Base your answers to questions 65 through 68 on the information below. In a laboratory, a student makes a solution by completely dissolving 80.0 grams of KNO3(s) in 100.0 grams of hot water. The resulting solution has a temperature of 60. C. The room temperature in the laboratory is 22 C. 65 Classify, in terms of saturation, the type of solution made by the student. [1] 66 Compare the boiling point of the solution at standard pressure to the boiling point of water at standard pressure. [1] 67 Describe the direction of heat flow between the solution made by the student and the air in the laboratory. [1] 68 Describe a laboratory procedure that can be used to recover the solid solute from the aqueous solution. [1] P.S./Chem. June 10 [10] Base your answers to questions 69 through 71 on the information below. At room temperature, a reaction occurs when KIO3(aq) is mixed with NaHSO3(aq) that contains a small amount of starch. The colorless reaction mixture turns dark blue after a period of time that depends on the concentration of the reactants. In a laboratory, 12 drops of a 0.02 M NaHSO3(aq) solution containing starch were placed in each of six test tubes. A different number of drops of 0.02 M KIO3(aq) and enough water to maintain a constant volume were added to each test tube and the time for the dark-blue color to appear was measured. The data were recorded in the table below. Data Table Test Tube A B C D E F Number of Drops of 0.02 M KIO3(aq) 2 4 6 8 10 12 210. 88 49 39 33 27 Time for Dark-Blue Color to Appear (s) 69 On the grid in your answer booklet: Mark an appropriate scale on the axis labeled Time (s). [1] Plot the data from the data table. Circle and connect the points. [1] 70 State how increasing the number of drops of 0.02 M KIO3(aq) used in the reaction affects the rate of reaction. [1] 71 Identify one factor, other than the concentration of the reactants, that would affect the rate of this reaction. [1] Base your answers to questions 72 through 75 on the information below. The Solvay process is a multistep industrial process used to produce washing soda, Na2CO3(s). In the last step of the Solvay process, NaHCO3(s) is heated to 300 C, producing washing soda, water, and carbon dioxide. This reaction is represented by the balanced equation below. 2NaHCO3(s) + heat Na2CO3(s) + H2O(g) + CO2(g) 72 Write the IUPAC name for washing soda. [1] 73 Identify the type of chemical reaction represented by the equation. [1] 74 State evidence that indicates the entropy of the products is greater than the entropy of the reactant. [1] 75 Determine the total mass of washing soda produced if 3360. kilograms of NaHCO3 reacts completely to produce 360. kilograms of H2O and 880. kilograms of CO2. [1] P.S./Chem. June 10 [11] [OVER] Base your answers to questions 76 through 79 on the information below. In liquid water, an equilibrium exists between H2O( ) molecules, H+(aq) ions, and OH (aq) ions. A person experiencing acid indigestion after drinking tomato juice can ingest milk of magnesia to reduce the acidity of the stomach contents. Tomato juice has a pH value of 4. Milk of magnesia, a mixture of magnesium hydroxide and water, has a pH value of 10. 76 Complete the equation in your answer booklet for the equilibrium that exists in liquid water. [1] 77 Compare the hydrogen ion concentration in tomato juice to the hydrogen ion concentration in milk of magnesia. [1] 78 Identify the negative ion found in milk of magnesia. [1] 79 What is the color of thymol blue indicator when placed in a sample of milk of magnesia? [1] Base your answers to questions 80 through 83 on the information below. Two sources of copper are cuprite, which has the IUPAC name copper(I) oxide, and malachite, which has the formula Cu2CO3(OH)2. Copper is used in home wiring and electric motors because it has good electrical conductivity. Other uses of copper not related to its electrical conductivity include coins, plumbing, roofing, and cooking pans. Aluminum is also used for cooking pans. At room temperature, the electrical conductivity of a copper wire is 1.6 times greater than an aluminum wire with the same length and cross-sectional area. At room temperature, the heat conductivity of copper is 1.8 times greater than the heat conductivity of aluminum. At STP, the density of copper is 3.3 times greater than the density of aluminum. 80 Write the chemical formula of cuprite. [1] 81 Determine the oxidation number of oxygen in the carbonate ion found in malachite. [1] 82 Identify one physical property of copper that makes it a good choice for uses that are not related to electrical conductivity. [1] 83 Identify one physical property of aluminum that could make it a better choice than copper for a cooking pan. [1] P.S./Chem. June 10 [12] PS/CHEMISTRY Printed on Recycled Paper PS/CHEMISTRY FOR TEACHERS ONLY The University of the State of New York REGENTS HIGH SCHOOL EXAMINATION PS CH PHYSICAL SETTING/CHEMISTRY Wednesday, June 16, 2010 1:15 to 4:15 p.m., only SCORING KEY AND RATING GUIDE Directions to the Teacher: Refer to the directions on page 3 before rating student papers. Updated information regarding the rating of this examination may be posted on the New York State Education Department s web site during the rating period. Check this web site http://www.emsc.nysed.gov/osa/ and select the link Examination Scoring Information for any recently posted information regarding this examination. This site should be checked before the rating process for this examination begins and several times throughout the Regents examination period. Part A and Part B 1 Allow 1 credit for each correct response. Part A A Part Part art B 1 P B 1 1 . . . . .1 . . . . . . . 11 . . . . .3 . . . . . . . 21 . . . . 1. . . . . . . 31 . . . . . 1 . . . . . . . 41 . . . . . 2. . . . . . . 2 . . . . .3 . . . . . . . 12 . . . . .1 . . . . . . . 22 . . . . 4. . . . . . . 32 . . . . . 3 . . . . . . . 42 . . . . . 4. . . . . . . 3 . . . . .3 . . . . . . . 13 . . . . .2 . . . . . . . 23 . . . . 4. . . . . . . 33 . . . . . 1 . . . . . . . 43 . . . . . 4. . . . . . . 4 . . . . .3 . . . . . . . 14 . . . . .4 . . . . . . . 24 . . . . 2. . . . . . . 34 . . . . . 2 . . . . . . . 44 . . . . . 3. . . . . . . 5 . . . . .1 . . . . . . . 15 . . . . .2 . . . . . . . 25 . . . . 2. . . . . . . 35 . . . . . 3 . . . . . . . 45 . . . . . 2. . . . . . . 6 . . . . .4 . . . . . . . 16 . . . . .1 . . . . . . . 26 . . . . 2. . . . . . . 36 . . . . . 3 . . . . . . . 46 . . . . . 4. . . . . . . 7 . . . . .3 . . . . . . . 17 . . . . .1 . . . . . . . 27 . . . . 3. . . . . . . 37 . . . . . 4 . . . . . . . 47 . . . . . 3. . . . . . . 8 . . . . .4 . . . . . . . 18 . . . . .4 . . . . . . . 28 . . . . 4. . . . . . . 38 . . . . . 3 . . . . . . . 48 . . . . . 3. . . . . . . 9 . . . . .2 . . . . . . . 19 . . . . .4 . . . . . . . 29 . . . . 4. . . . . . . 39 . . . . . 1 . . . . . . . 49 . . . . . 1. . . . . . . 10 . . . . .3 . . . . . . . 20 . . . . .4 . . . . . . . 30 . . . . 3. . . . . . . 40 . . . . . 1 . . . . . . . 50 . . . . . 1. . . . . . . PHYSICAL SETTING/CHEMISTRY continued Directions to the Teacher Follow the procedures below for scoring student answer papers for the Physical Setting/Chemistry examination. Additional information about scoring is provided in the publication Information Booklet for Scoring Regents Examinations in the Sciences. Use only red ink or red pencil in rating Regents papers. Do not correct the student s work by making insertions or changes of any kind. For Part A and Part B 1, indicate by means of a check mark each incorrect or omitted answer. In the box provided at the end of each part, record the number of questions the student answered correctly for that part. At least two science teachers must participate in the scoring of each student s responses to the Part B 2 and Part C open-ended questions. Each of these teachers should be responsible for scoring a selected number of the open-ended questions on each answer paper. No one teacher is to score all the open-ended questions on a student s answer paper. Students responses must be scored strictly according to the Scoring Key and Rating Guide. For open-ended questions, credit may be allowed for responses other than those given in the rating guide if the response is a scientifically accurate answer to the question and demonstrates adequate knowledge as indicated by the examples in the rating guide. Complete sentences are not required. Phrases, diagrams, and symbols may be used. In the student s answer booklet, record the number of credits earned for each answer in the box printed to the right of the answer lines or spaces for that question. Fractional credit is not allowed. Only whole-number credit may be given to a response. Units need not be given when the wording of the questions allows such omissions. Raters should enter the scores earned for Part A, Part B 1, Part B 2, and Part C on the appropriate lines in the box printed on the answer booklet and then should add these four scores and enter the total in the box labeled Total Written Test Score. Then, the student s raw score should be converted to a scale score by using the conversion chart that will be posted on the Department s web site http://www.emsc.nysed.gov/osa/ on Wednesday, June 16, 2010. The student s scale score should be entered in the labeled box on the student s answer booklet. The scale score is the student s final examination score. On the front of the student s answer booklet, raters must enter their initials on the lines next to Rater 1 or Rater 2. All student answer papers that receive a scale score of 60 through 64 must be scored a second time. For the second scoring, a different committee of teachers may score the student s paper or the original committee may score the paper, except that no teacher may score the same open-ended questions that he/she scored in the first rating of the paper. The school principal is responsible for assuring that the student s final examination score is based on a fair, accurate, and reliable scoring of the student s answer paper. Because scale scores corresponding to raw scores in the conversion chart may change from one examination to another, it is crucial that for each administration, the conversion chart provided for that administration be used to determine the student s final score. [3] [OVER]

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