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UGC NET DEC 2010 : COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS PAPER II

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PAPER-II COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS Signature and Name of Invigilator 1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................... (To be filled by the Candidate) (Name) ____________________________ Roll No. 2. (Signature) __________________________ (In figures as per admission card) (Name) ____________________________ D 87 Roll No.________________________________ (In words) 1 0 1 Time : 1 /4 hours] [Maximum Marks : 100 Number of Pages in this Booklet : 8 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50 Instructions for the Candidates 1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the oval as indicated below on the correct response against each item. B C A Example : D where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the Answer Sheet given inside the Paper I Booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the ovals in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the test booklet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR Answer sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. D-87-10 1. 2. - 3. , - - , : (i) - - (ii) - / - - (iii) OMR - 4. (A), (B), (C) (D) A B C : D (C) 5. I - , 6. 7. (Rough Work) 8. - , 9. - OMR - 10. / 11. ( ) 12. 1 P.T.O. COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS Paper II Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions, each question carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all the questions. 1. 5. The number of integers between 1 and 250 that are divisible by 2, 5 and 7 is (A) 2 (B) (C) (D) 8 5 3 Consider the problem of connecting 19 lamps to a single electric outlet by using extension cords each of which has four outlets. The number of extension cords required is (A) 4 (B) 2. (C) An undirected graph possesses an eulerian circuit if and only if it is connected and its vertices are 5 6 (D) 7 (A) all of even degree (B) (C) 6. all of odd degree of any degree The decimal number equivalent of (4057.06)8 is (A) 2095.75 (D) even in number (B) 3. (C) A partially ordered set is said to be a lattice if every two elements in the set have 7. a unique greatest lower bound (C) 2095.937 (D) 2095.0937 (A) a unique least upper bound (B) 2095.075 both (A) and (B) AB + A + B is equivalent to (A) A 7 B (B) 4. The minimum number of edges in a connected graph with n vertices is equal to (C) 8. An astable multivibrator has (A) one stable state n (n 1) 2 (B) n two stable states (C) 2 (D) n 1 Paper-II (A 7 B) :A (D) (A : B) 7 A (A) n (n 1) (B) A :B (C) (D) none of the above no stable states (D) none of these 2 D-87-10 13. (A) 01001001.1100 Which one of the following will set the value of y to 5 if x has the value 3, but not otherwise ? (B) 11001001.1100 (A) if (x = 3) y = 5 (C) 10110110.0100 (B) if x = = 3 (y = 5) (D) 10110110.1100 9. (C) if (x = = 3); y = 5 12-bit 2 s complement of 73.75 is (D) if (x = = 3) y = 5 10. Encoding of data bits 0011 into 7-bit even Parity Hamming Code is 14. (A) 0011110 (B) the following (A) The body of a while loop is executed at least once. 0101110 (C) Which one of sentences is true ? 0010110 (B) 11. How many of the declarations are correct ? The body of a do while loop is executed at least once. (C) (D) 0011100 The body of a do while loop is executed zero or more times. following (D) A for loop can never be used in place of a while loop. int z = 7.0; double void = 0.000; short array [2] = {0, 1, 2}; 15. char c = \n ; (A) Characters Black (A) None (B) One is correct (C) Two are correct of (B) the movie I O is hidden (C) (D) All four are correct 12. Black refers in the Black-box testing means Design is hidden (D) Users are hidden The value of the following expression (13 / 4 * 3) % 5 + 1 is 16. In generalisation, the differences between members of an entity is (A) 5.75 (A) maximized (B) 2.95 (B) minimized (C) 1.4875 (C) both (A) & (B) (D) 5 D-87-10 (D) None of these 3 Paper-II 17. The dependency preservation decomposition is a property to decompose database schema D, in which each functional dependency X Y specified in F, 21. (A) 111 (A) appeared directly in one of the relation schemas Ri in the decomposed D. (B) (B) 9999 both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above 22. (D) None of these 18. 999 (C) could be inferred from dependencies that appear in some Ri. (C) What is the maximum number of nodes in a B-tree of order 10 of depth 3 (root at depth 0) ? A binary tree with 27 nodes has _______ null branches. Which of the following is an optimistic concurrency control method ? (A) 54 (B) 27 (A) Validation based (C) 26 (B) Time stamp ordering (D) None of the above (C) Lock-based (D) None of these 19. 23. Optical storage is a (A) high-speed direct storage device. (B) access (A) 0(1) low-speed direct access storage device. (B) medium-speed direct access storage device. (D) high-speed sequential access storage device. 0(lgn) (C) (C) 20. The time complexity to build a heap of n elements is 0(n) (D) 0(nlgn) 24. Which of the following is the process by which a user s access to physical data in the application is limited, based on his privileges ? Linear probing suffers problem known as from a (A) Secondary clustering (A) Authorization (B) Primary clustering (B) (C) (C) Both (A) and (B) Authentication Access Control (D) None of these (D) All of these Paper-II 4 D-87-10 25. 29. Which of the following can be the sequence of nodes examined in binary search tree while searching for key 88 ? (A) FTP (A) 90, 40, 65, 50, 88 (B) (B) 190, 60, 90, 85, 88 TFTP (C) 90, 110, 80, 85, 88 (C) Which of the following file transfer protocols use TCP and establishes two virtual circuits between the local and remote server ? TELNET (D) NFS (D) 65, 140, 80, 70, 88 30. 26. Frequency shift keying is used mostly in (A) exhibited by all demodulator, when the input signal to noise ratio is low. (A) Radio transmission (B) Telegraphy (C) The threshold effect in demodulator is Telephone (B) the rapid fall on output signal to noise ratio when the input signal to noise ratio fall below a particular value. (C) the property exhibited by all A.M. suppressed carrier coherent demodulator. (D) None of the above 27. The baud rate is (A) always equal to the bit transfer rate (B) (C) (D) the property exhibited correlation receiver. equal to twice the bandwidth of an ideal channel 31. not equal to the signalling rate by Object code is the output of ______. (A) Operating System (D) equal to half of the bandwidth of an ideal channel (B) Compiler or Assembler (C) only Assembler (D) only Compiler 28. How much bandwidth is there in 1 micron of spectrum at a wavelength of 1 micron ? 32. Macro in an assembly program is _______. (A) 300 MHz (A) sub program (B) 3 GHz (B) a complete program (C) 300 THz (C) level a hardware portion (D) relative coding (D) 30 KHz D-87-10 5 Paper-II 33. 38. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler. WINDOWS operating. is a _________ (A) Real time (A) semantic analysis (B) Multi-user (B) code generation (C) Preemptive (C) syntax analysis (D) Non-preemptive (D) code optimization 39. 34. The register or main memory location which contains the effective address of the operand is known as (A) Interruption (B) special location (C) indexed register Swapping (D) None of the above (D) None of the above 35. Termination (C) (A) pointer (B) Page making process from main memory to disk is called 40. A Dead-lock in an Operating System is Macro-processors are ______. (A) Desirable process (A) Hardware (B) Undesirable process (B) Compiler (C) Definite waiting process (C) Registers (D) All of the above (D) None of the above 41. 36. Prototyping is used to The dynamic allocation of storage areas with VSAM files is accomplished by (A) test the software as an end product (B) expand design details (A) Hashing (C) refine and establish requirements gathering (B) Control splits (C) Overflow areas (D) None of the above (D) Relative recoding 37. 42. Which of the following command the file names in multiple columns ? Which one of these are not software maintenance activity ? (A) IS X (A) Error correction (B) IS (B) Adaptation (C) IS 1 (C) Implementation of Enhancement (D) Establishing scope (D) IS f X Paper-II 6 D-87-10 43. 47. Data mining is (A) the process of extracting valid, previously unknown, comprehensible and actionable information from large databases and using it to make crucial business decisions. (B) a tool that allows end users direct access and manipulation of data from within datawarehousing environment without the intervention of customised programming activity. (C) a tool that helps end users extract useful business information from large database. (D) All of the above 48. E-Choupal refers to (A) calling meeting of Surpanches electronically. (B) conducting Panchayat meeting using latest electronic gadgets. (C) providing window of information to villagers and farmers in NIC network. (D) None of the above 49. The basic concepts of ethics in information society is/are (A) Responsibility (B) Accountability (C) Liability (D) All of the above 50. The system specification is the first deliverable in the computer system engineering process which does not include One of the distinguished features of super-computer over other category of computer is (A) parallel processing (B) highest accuracy level (C) more speed (D) more capacity (A) Functional Description (B) Cost (C) Schedule (D) Technical Analysis 44. The COCOMO model was introduced in the book title Software Engineering Economics authored by (A) Abraham Silberschatz (B) Barry Boehm (C) C.J. Date (D) D.E. Knuth 45. The Warnier diagram enables analyst (A) to represent information hierarchy in a compact manner (B) to further identify requirement (C) to estimate the total cost involved (D) None of the above 46. A data mart may contain (A) summarised data (B) de-normalized data (C) aggregate departmental data (D) All of the above D-87-10 7 Paper-II Space For Rough Works Paper-II 8 D-87-10

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Additional Info : UGC NET CS87 Paper II
Tags : UGC NET CS87, UGC NET DEC 2011 : GENERAL PAPER,UGC NET,GENERAL PAPER

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