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IIT JAM 2018 : Geology (with Answer Keys)

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JAM 2018 Geology - GG Paper Specific Instructions 1. The examination is of 3 hours duration. There are a total of 60 questions carrying 100 marks. The entire paper is divided into three sections, A, B and C. All sections are compulsory. Questions in each section are of different types. 2. Section A contains a total of 30 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ). Each MCQ type question has four choices out of which only one choice is the correct answer. Questions Q.1 Q.30 belong to this section and carry a total of 50 marks. Q.1 Q.10 carry 1 mark each and Questions Q.11 Q.30 carry 2 marks each. 3. Section B contains a total of 10 Multiple Select Questions (MSQ). Each MSQ type question is similar to MCQ but with a difference that there may be one or more than one choice(s) that are correct out of the four given choices. The candidate gets full credit if he/she selects all the correct answers only and no wrong answers. Questions Q.31 Q.40 belong to this section and carry 2 marks each with a total of 20 marks. 4. Section C contains a total of 20 Numerical Answer Type (NAT) questions. For these NAT type questions, the answer is a real number which needs to be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor. No choices will be shown for these type of questions. Questions Q.41 Q.60 belong to this section and carry a total of 30 marks. Q.41 Q.50 carry 1 mark each and Questions Q.51 Q.60 carry 2 marks each. 5. In all sections, questions not attempted will result in zero mark. In Section A (MCQ), wrong answer will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, 1/3 marks will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, 2/3 marks will be deducted for each wrong answer. In Section B (MSQ), there is NO NEGATIVE and NO PARTIAL marking provisions. There is NO NEGATIVE marking in Section C (NAT) as well. 6. Only Virtual Scientific Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, tables, cellular phone or other electronic gadgets are NOT allowed in the examination hall. 7. The Scribble Pad will be provided for rough work. GG 1/13 JAM 2018 Geology - GG SECTION A MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ) Q. 1 Q.10 carry one mark each. Q.1 Which one among the following planets in the Solar system is most similar in size to the Earth? (A) Mercury Q.2 (B) Venus (B) Quartz (B) Horsts (B) graphic (B) siltstone (D) isodont (C) Beryl (D) Olivine (C) Rifts (D) Thrust faults (C) perthite (D) antiperthite (C) shale (D) limestone Petroleum is NOT commercially produced from (A) Krishna Godavari basin (C) Cambay basin GG (C) pachydont Fissility is best shown by (A) sandstone Q.9 (B) taxodont The texture characterized by exsolved lamellae of albite in K-feldspar is known as (A) myrmekite Q.8 (D) Na2O Which one of the following is NOT found in an extensional setting? (A) Normal faults Q.7 (C) CaO Which one of the following minerals has isolated (SiO4)4 tetrahedra linked by divalent cations in octahedral coordination? (A) Muscovite Q.6 (B) SiO2 The type of dentition found in Trigonia is (A) schizodont Q.5 (B) Continental arc (D) Transcurrent The second-most abundant oxide in the Earth s crust is (A) Al2O3 Q.4 (D) Uranus In which one of the following tectonic settings are the highest mountain chains and thickest crust found? (A) Island arc (C) Continental collision Q.3 (C) Neptune (B) Cauvery Palar basin (D) Vindhyan basin 2/13 JAM 2018 Q.10 Geology - GG Among the following, the mineral showing acicular habit is (A) kyanite (B) tourmaline (C) biotite (D) sillimanite Q. 11 Q. 30 carry two marks each. Q.11 Isostasy involves ___________ continental mountain belts. (A) compensation in Q.12 (B) creation of (B) rifting (C) drifting (D) subduction Match the processes in Group I with corresponding geomorphic features in Group II. Group I P. Dissolution Q. Abrasion R. Deposition S. Onion skin weathering (A) P-1 Q-3 R-2 S-4 GG (B) Pillow basalt subaerial eruption (D) Amygdales filled vesicles Wilson orogenic cycle in continents is initiated by (A) collision Q.14 (D) thrusting in Identify the pair from the following list that is NOT correctly matched. (A) Caldera stratovolcano (C) Ropy lava pahoehoe flow Q.13 (C) destruction of (B) P-3 Q-1 R-2 S-4 Group II 1. Mushroom rocks 2. Exfoliation domes 3. Sinkholes 4. Moraines (C) P-3 Q-1 R-4 S-2 (D) P-2 Q-1 R-4 S-3 3/13 JAM 2018 Q.15 Geology - GG The orientations of the fold axis and axial plane in the given figure indicate (A) reclined fold Q.16 II-Ambulacra II-Interambulacra II-Interambulacra II-Ambulacra III-Interambulacra III-Ambulacra III-Ambulacra III-Interambulacra IV-Peristome IV-Peristome IV-Periproct IV-Periproct (B) neritic, abyssal, bathyal (D) bathyal, abyssal, neritic Which one of the following invertebrates has the most primitive visual system? (A) Ammonites GG (D) horizontal fold The correct order of marine benthic habitats with increasing water depths is (A) abyssal, bathyal, neritic (C) neritic, bathyal, abyssal Q.18 (C) recumbent fold Identify the correct morphological features corresponding to numbers I IV in the echinoid illustrated below: (A) I-Periproct (B) I-Periproct (C) I-Peristome (D) I-Peristome Q.17 (B) vertical fold (B) Brachiopods (C) Gastropods (D) Trilobites 4/13 JAM 2018 Q.19 Geology - GG The correct chronological sequence (older to younger) of the Precambrian stratigraphic units listed below is (A) Sargur Group, Chitradurga Group, Alwar Group, Kaimur Group (B) Chitradurga Group, Sargur Group, Kaimur Group, Alwar Group (C) Sargur Group, Alwar Group, Chitradurga Group, Kaimur Group (D) Sargur Group, Chitradurga Group, Kaimur Group, Alwar Group Q.20 Match the Formations in Group I with corresponding characteristic fossils in Group II. Group I P. Barakar Formation Q. Uttatur Formation R. Dhok Pathan Formation S. Lameta Formation (A) P-3 Q-1 R-4 S-2 (B) P-4 Q-3 R-1 S-2 Group II 1. Stegodon 2. Sauropoda 3. Belemnites 4. Glossopteris (C) P-3 Q-4 R-1 S-2 (D) P-4 Q-3 R-2 S-1 Q.21 Which one of the following sedimentary structures is NOT used for determining top and bottom of beds? (A) Mud cracks (C) Sharp-crested wave ripples (B) Load and flame structures (D) Plane lamination Q.22 Identify the rocks P and Q in the diagram as per the IUGS classification. (A) P Websterite, Q Wehrlite (C) P Websterite, Q Dunite GG (B) P Dunite, Q Websterite (D) P Harzburgite, Q Wehrlite 5/13 JAM 2018 Q.23 Geology - GG Which one of the following is produced by a closed-system metamorphic reaction between muscovite and quartz? (A) orthoclase + sillimanite (C) plagioclase + biotite Q.24 (B) orthoclase + biotite (D) plagioclase + sillimanite The assemblage staurolite + garnet + biotite + muscovite + quartz in pelites is stable in (A) greenschist facies (C) granulite facies Q.25 (B) amphibolite facies (D) pyroxene hornfels facies Conglomerates are commonly deposited in (A) aeolian dunes (C) alluvial fans Q.26 (B) tidal flats (D) river flood plains Match the mineral deposits in Group I with corresponding Indian occurrences in Group II. Group I P. Iron Q. Uranium R. Manganese S. Baryte (A) P-1 Q-3 R-4 S-2 Q.27 (B) P-4 Q-1 R-3 S-2 (C) P-3 Q-4 R-2 S-1 (D) P-4 Q-3 R-2 S-1 Which one of the following processes is responsible for the formation of syngenetic Ni-Cu sulphide ore in gabbro-noritic rocks? (A) Hydrothermal replacement (C) Liquid immiscibility GG Group II 1. Mangampet, Andhra Pradesh 2. Balaghat, Madhya Pradesh 3. Narwa Pahar, Jharkhand 4. Hospet, Karnataka (B) Volcanic exhalation (D) Contact metamorphism 6/13 JAM 2018 Q.28 Q.29 Geology - GG Dashed lines in the figures given below represent joints. Considering only the orientations of the joints and the slope face, which one of the following represents the most stable slope? (A) (B) (C) (D) Match the morphological features/life processes in Group I with corresponding organisms in Group II. Group I P. Water vascular system Q. Moulting R. Jet propulsion locomotion S. Lophophore (A) P-2 Q-3 R-1 S-4 Q.30 (B) P-3 Q-4 R-2 S-1 (C) P-2 Q-4 R-1 S-3 (D) P-4 Q-3 R-2 S-1 Match the plutonic rocks in Group I with corresponding volcanic equivalents in Group II. Group I P. Granite Q. Syenite R. Diorite S. Gabbro (A) P-2 Q-3 R-4 S-1 GG Group II 1. Cephalopoda 2. Echinodermata 3. Brachiopoda 4. Trilobita (B) P-3 Q-4 R-1 S-2 Group II 1. Andesite 2. Basalt 3. Rhyolite 4. Trachyte (C) P-4 Q-3 R-1 S-2 (D) P-3 Q-4 R-2 S-1 7/13 JAM 2018 Geology - GG SECTION - B MULTIPLE SELECT QUESTIONS (MSQ) Q. 31 Q. 40 carry two marks each. Q.31 Which of the following change(s) when a dipping bed with a plunging lineation is rotated about a vertical axis? (A) Dip amount of bed (C) Plunge direction of lineation Q.32 Which of the following indicate(s) the presence of directed stress in a rock? (A) Porphyritic texture (C) Gneissosity Q.33 (B) System Chronostratigraphy (D) Group Biostratigraphy The correct order(s) of stability of silica polymorphs with increasing pressure is/are (A) Quartz Coesite Stishovite (C) Tridymite Coesite Stishovite Q.35 (B) Schistosity (D) Mylonitic texture The correct combination(s) of ranks and corresponding categories of stratigraphic units is/are (A) Formation Lithostratigraphy (C) Period Chronostratigraphy Q.34 (B) Plunge amount of lineation (D) Strike of bed (B) Quartz Stishovite Coesite (D) Tridymite Stishovite Coesite Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for the upper hemisphere stereographic projection of a crystal given below? (A) Angle between the axes, = = = 90 (B) Crystal contains 1 tetrad (C) Crystal contains 4 diads (D) Crystal contains 5 mirror planes Q.36 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (A) An isotropic mineral remains dark through 360 rotation of stage under crossed polars (B) Pleochroism is the change of colour of a mineral during rotation under crossed polars (C) Minerals of the Triclinic system are optically uniaxial (D) Melatope in an interference figure marks the emergence of an optic axis GG 8/13 JAM 2018 Q.37 Geology - GG Hermatypic corals are typically found in (A) the photic zone (C) cool deep water Q.38 Choose the characteristic mineral(s) formed in the supergene enriched zone of a sulphide deposit. (A) Psilomelane Q.39 (B) warm and clear water (D) reefs (B) Covellite (C) Cassiterite (D) Chalcocite Which of the following is/are true for crystallization of plagioclase phenocrysts from a basic magma forming a layered intrusion? (A) Cumulus texture at the base (B) Anorthite-rich early plagioclase at the base (C) Albite-rich late plagioclase at the top (D) Quench texture at the base Q.40 Major mass extinction events occurred in the (A) end Silurian (C) end Permian GG (B) end Carboniferous (D) early Devonian 9/13 JAM 2018 Geology - GG SECTION C NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE (NAT) Q. 41 Q. 50 carry one mark each. Q.41 When plotted on a map of 1:50000 scale, a 2 km long dyke exposed on a horizontal surface has a length of _____cm (answer in one decimal place). Q.42 The valency of iron in hematite is _____. Q.43 A crustal rock is at a lithostatic pressure of 3 kbar and a temperature of 275 C. If the lithostatic pressure increases at a uniform rate of 0.3 kbar/km, and the surface temperature is 25 C, the geothermal gradient (in C/km) is_____ (answer in one decimal place). Q.44 The absolute difference in the Moh s hardness values of the two silicates among the minerals listed below is _____. Apatite, Corundum, Gypsum, Talc, Topaz Q.45 Attitudes of beds in sequences A (younger) and B (older), separated by an unconformity UU, are given in the following sectional view. If UU was horizontal when sequence A was deposited, the dip amount of beds in sequence B at that time was _____ (answer in one decimal place). Q.46 The number of alpha ( ) particles emitted to produce a daughter isotope of isotope of 238U by radioactive decay is _____. Q.47 The dip slip on a fault 000 , 30 E is 10 m. Assuming slip equals separation here, the throw on the fault is _____ m (answer in one decimal place). GG 206 Pb from a parent 10/13 JAM 2018 Q.48 Geology - GG A continuous 10 m thick sequence of shale was deposited in 10,000 years at uniform rate of sedimentation. The number of samples that must be collected at equal stratigraphic intervals to sample the succession every 500 years is ______. Q.49 Attitudes of the two limbs of a non-plunging kink fold shown below are 045 , 20 SE and 045 , 40 NW. The dip amount (in degrees) of the axial plane of the kink fold is _____ (answer in one decimal place). Q.50 In the garnet formula (Fe2.5Mg0.3Cax)Al2Si3O12, x represents the number of atoms of Ca. The mole % of grossular in the garnet is _____ (answer in one decimal place). Q. 51 Q. 60 carry two marks each. Q.51 Assuming the Earth to be an ideal sphere, the volume % of the core relative to the total volume of the Earth is _____ (answer in one decimal place). Q.52 Based on 8 oxygen atoms, the number of silicon atoms in a plagioclase of composition Ab20An80 is ____ (answer in one decimal place). Q.53 600 tons of low grade iron ore (40% Fe) are blended with 400 tons of high grade iron ore (65% Fe). The grade of the blended ore is _____ % Fe (answer in one decimal place). Q.54 The mass of a fully dried rock sample of volume 100 cm3 is 300 g. The mass of the sample, when fully saturated with water of density 1.00 g/cm3, is 325 g. Assuming no volume change, the computed porosity of the rock is _____ % (answer in one decimal place). Q.55 When a dunite comprising pure forsterite undergoes melting, the weight % of MgO in the melt is _____ (answer in one decimal place; given molecular weights of SiO2 = 60.08; MgO = 40.30). GG 11/13 JAM 2018 Geology - GG Q.56 A block of rock with a mass of 72 kg slides on a surface inclined at an angle of 30 as shown in the figure. Assuming no cohesion and friction, the force F is _____ Newton (answer in one decimal place; acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s2). Q.57 The true thickness of Bed A in the map given below is _____ m (answer in one decimal place). Q.58 A melt containing 900 moles of anorthite and 100 moles of diopside undergoes crystallization. The number of moles of anorthite that crystallizes as the melt composition moves from P to Q is ____. GG 12/13 JAM 2018 Geology - GG Q.59 A confined sandstone aquifer with a uniform cross-sectional area of 7 m2 and a hydraulic conductivity of 2 m/s, transmits water across a hydraulic gradient of 3.2. Assuming steady state Darcian flow, the volumetric flow rate through the aquifer is _____ m3/s (answer in one decimal place). Q.60 A diamondiferous lamproite is ultrapotassic and has a molar K2O/Na2O ratio of 11. If the Na2O content of the rock is 0.62 wt%, the K2O content is _____ wt% (answer in one decimal place; molecular weight of Na2O = 61.98, and K2O = 94.20). END OF THE QUESTION PAPER GG 13/13 Paper Code : GG Q No Question Type (QT) 1 MCQ 2 MCQ A C 3 MCQ A A 4 MCQ A A 5 MCQ A D 6 MCQ A D 7 MCQ A C 8 MCQ A C 9 MCQ A D 10 MCQ A D 11 MCQ A A 12 MCQ A B 13 MCQ A B 14 MCQ A C 15 MCQ A A 16 MCQ A A 17 MCQ A C 18 MCQ A D 19 MCQ A A 20 MCQ A B 21 MCQ A D 22 MCQ A D 23 MCQ A A Section A Key/Range B Paper Code : GG Q No Question Type (QT) Section Key/Range 24 MCQ A B 25 MCQ A C 26 MCQ A D 27 MCQ A C 28 MCQ A B 29 MCQ A C 30 MCQ A B 31 MSQ B C;D 32 MSQ B B;C;D 33 MSQ B A;B 34 MSQ B A;C 35 MSQ B A;B;C;D 36 MSQ B A;D 37 MSQ B A;B;D 38 MSQ B B;D 39 MSQ B A;B;C 40 MSQ B C 41 NAT C 4.0 to 4.0 42 NAT C 3 to 3 43 NAT C 25.0 to 25.0 44 NAT C 7 to 7 45 NAT C 50.0 to 50.0 46 NAT C 8 to 8 Paper Code : GG Q No Question Type (QT) Section Key/Range 47 NAT C 5.0 to 5.0 48 NAT C 20 to 20 49 NAT C 70.0 to 90.0 50 NAT C 6.6 to 6.8 51 NAT C 14.0 to 18.0 52 NAT C 2.2 to 2.2 53 NAT C 50.0 to 50.0 54 NAT C 25.0 to 25.0 55 NAT C 57.0 to 57.5 56 NAT C 352.8 to 352.8 57 NAT C 89.0 to 90.0 58 NAT C 800 to 800 59 NAT C 44.8 to 44.8 60 NAT C 10.3 to 10.5

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