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18th National Certification Exam Energy Managers & Auditors SEPTEMBER 2017 Paper 1

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Paper 1 Set A with Solutions 18th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION FOR ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS September, 2017 PAPER 1: GENERAL ASPECTS OF ENERGY MANAGEMENT & ENERGY AUDIT Date: 23.09.2017 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150 General instructions: o o o o o Please check that this question paper contains 11 printed pages Please check that this question paper contains 64 questions The question paper is divided into three sections All questions in all three sections are compulsory All parts of a question should be answered at one place Section I: OBJECTIVE TYPE (i) (ii) (iii) Marks: 50 x 1 = 50 Answer all 50 questions Each question carries one mark Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with Black Pen, as per instructions 1. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas ? a) CFCs 2. c) PFC d) SF6 Bio-gas generated through anaerobic process mainly consists of a) only methane c) only ethane 3. b) SO2 b) methane and carbon dioxide d) none of these In a boiler, fuel substitution of coal with rice husk results in a) energy conservation b) energy efficiency c) both energy conservation and energy efficiency d) carbon neutrality 4. A building intended to be used for commercial purpose will be required to follow Energy conservation building code under Energy Conservation Act, 2001 provided its a) connected load is 120 kW and above b) contract demand is 100 kVA and above c) connected load is100 kW and above or contract demand is 120 kVA and above _______________________ Bureau of Energy Efficiency 1 Paper 1 Set A with Solutions d) connected load is 500 kW and contract demand is 600 kVA 5. Which of the following is not a part of energy audit as per the Energy Conservation Act, 2001? a) monitoring and analysis of energy use b) verification of energy use c) submission of technical report with recommendations d) ensuring implementation of recommended measures followed by review 6. Which of the following criteria is a responsibility of Designated Consumer? a) designate or appoint an accredited Energy Auditor b) adhere to stipulated energy consumption norms and standards as notified c) submit the status of energy consumption information every three years d) conduct energy audit through a certified energy auditor periodically 7. Which of the following is an energy security measure? a) fully exploiting domestic energy resources b) diversifying energy supply source c) substitution of imported fuels for domestic fuels to the extent possible d) all of the above 8. Which of the following statements are true? reactive current is necessary to build up the flux for the magnetic field of inductive devices ii) some portion of reactive current is converted into work iii) the cosine of angle between kVA and kVAr vector is called power factor iv) the cosine of angle between kW and kVA vector is called power factor i) a) i & iv 9. b) ii & iii c) i & iii d) iii & iv Which of the following statements regarding evacuated tube collectors (ETC) are true? ETC is used for high temperatures upto 150oC because of use of vacuum between two concentric glass tube, higher amount of heat is retained in ETC iii) heat loss due to conduction back to atmosphere from ETC is high iv) performance of evacuated tube is highly dependent upon the ambient temperature i) ii) i & iii b) ii & iii _______________________ Bureau of Energy Efficiency c) i & iv d) i & ii 2 Paper 1 Set A with Solutions 10. Which among the following has the highest flue gas loss on combustion due to Hydrogen in the fuel? a) natural gas b) furnace oil c) coal d) light diesel oil 11. Assume CO equivalent emissions by the use of a 60 W incandescent lamp are of the 2 order of 60 g/hr. If it is replaced by a 5 W LED lamp then the equivalent CO 2 emissions will be a) nil b) 5 g/hr c) 12 g/hr d) 300 g/hr 12. The benchmarking parameter for a vapour compression refrigeration system is a) kW / kg of refrigerant used c) BTU / Ton of Refrigeration b) kcal / m3 of chilled water d) kW / Ton of Refrigeration 13. The rate of energy transfer from a higher temperature to a lower temperature is measured in a) kcal b) Watt c) Watts per second d) none of the above. 14. Energy sources which are inexhaustible are known as a) commercial energy c) renewable energy b) primary energy d) secondary energy 15. 1 kg of wood contains 15% moisture and 5% hydrogen by weight. How much water is evaporated during complete combustion of 1kg of wood? a) 0.6 kg b) 200 g c) 0.15 kg d) none of the above 16. The internal rate of return is the discount rate for which the NPV is a) positive b) zero c) negative d) less than 1 17. As per Energy Conservation Act, 2001, a BEE Certified Energy Manger is required to be appointed/designated by the a) state designated agencies c) designated consumers b) all industrial consumers d) electrical distribution licensees 18. The process of capturing CO2 from point sources and storing them is called a) carbon sequestration c) carbon capture . b) carbon sink d) carbon adsorption 19. Which of the following has the highest specific heat? a) lead b) mercury c) water d) alcohol 20. The retrofitting of a variable speed drive in a plant costs Rs 2 lakh. The annual savings _______________________ Bureau of Energy Efficiency 3 Paper 1 Set A with Solutions is Rs 0.5 lakh. The maintenance cost is Rs. 5,000/year. The return on investment is a) 25% 21. b) 22.5% c) 24% d) 27.5% is a statistical technique which determines and quantifies the relationship between variables and enables standard equations to be established for energy consumption. a) linear regression analysis c) moving annual total b) time-dependent energy analysis d) CUSUM 22. The power generation potential in mini hydro power plant for a water flow of 3 m3/sec with a head of 14 meters and with a system efficiency of 55% is a) 226.6 kW b) 76.4 kW c) 23.1 kW d) none of the above 23. Which of the following two statements are true regarding application of Kaizen for energy conservation? i) Kaizen events are structured for reduction of only energy wastes ii) Kaizen events engage workers in such a way so that they get involved in energy conservation efforts iii) Implementation of kaizen events takes place after review and approval of top management iv) In a Kaizen event, it may happen that small change in one area may result in significant savings in overall energy use a) ii & iv b) i & iii c) iii & iv d) i & iv 24. The electrical power unit Giga Watt (GW) may be written as a) 1,000,000 MW b) 1,000 MW c) 1,000 kW d) 1,000,000 W c) CO, H2 & CH4 d) Only CO & H2 25. The producer gas basically consists of a) Only CH4 b) CO & CH4 26. Which of the following statements is correct regarding float for an activity? a) Time between its earliest start time and earliest finish time b) Time between its latest start time and latest finish time c) Time between latest start time and earliest finish time d) Time between earliest finish time and latest finish time 27. The Energy Conservation Act,2001 requires that all designated consumers should get energy audits conducted periodically by a) certified energy manager _______________________ Bureau of Energy Efficiency b) certified energy auditor 4 Paper 1 Set A with Solutions c) accredited energy auditor 28. The term missing in the following equation (kVA) 2 = (kVA cos phi) 2 + ( ? )2 is a) cos phi 29. d) state Designated Agencies b) sin phi c) kVA sin phi d) kVArh 2000 kJ of heat is supplied to 500 kg of ice at 0oC. If the latent heat of fusion of ice is 335 kJ/kg then the amount of ice in kg melted will be a) 1.49 b) 83.75 c) 5.97 d) None of the above 30. An electric heater draws 5 kW of power for continuous hot water generation in an industry. How much quantity of water in litres per min can be heated from 30oC to 85oC ignoring losses?. a) 1.3 b) 78.18 c) 275 d) none of the above 31. An electric heater consumes 1000 Joules of energy in 5 seconds. Its power rating is: a) 200 W b) 1000 W c) 5000W d) none of the above 32. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a given substance by 1 oC is known as: a) sensible heat b) specific heat c) heat capacity d) latent heat 33. Which of the following parameters is not considered for external Bench Marking? a) scale of operation c) raw materials and product quality b) energy pricing d) vintage of technology 34. A sling psychrometer is used to measure : a) only dry bulb temperature c) both a & b b) only wet bulb temperature d) relative humidity The number of moles of water contained in 36 kg of water is -----------35. a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 36. A process electric heater is taking an hour to reach the desired temperature while operating at 440 V. It will take ------- hours to reach the same temperature if the supply voltage is reduced to 220 V. a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 37. In a manufacturing plant, following data are gathered for a given month: Production 1200 pieces; specific energy consumption - 1000 kWh/piece; variable energy consumption - 950 kWh/piece. The fixed energy consumption of the plant for the month _______________________ Bureau of Energy Efficiency 5 Paper 1 Set A with Solutions is ------a) 6,000 kWh b)10,000 kWh c) 12,000 kWh d) 60,000 kWh 38. Which of the following GHGs has the longest atmospheric life time? a) CO2 c) Sulfur Hexafluoride (SF6) b) CFC d) perfluorocarbon (PFC) 39. The component of electric power which yields useful mechanical power output is known as a) apparent power c) reactive power b) active power d) none of the above 40. An oil fired boiler is retrofitted to fire coconut shell chips. Boiler thermal efficiency drops from 82% to 70%. What will be the percentage change in energy consumption to generate the same output a) 12% increase c) 17.1% decrease b) 14.6% increase d) 17.1% increase 41. A three phase induction motor is drawing 16 Ampere at 440 Volts. If the operating power factor of the motor is 0.90 and the motor efficiency is 92%, then the mechanical shaft power output of the motor is a) 12.04 kW c) 10.97 kW b) 10.09 kW d) None of the above 42. The energy conversion efficiency of a solar cell does not depend on a) solar energy insolation c) area of the solar cell b) inverter d) maximum power output 43. To maximize the combustion efficiency, which of the following in the flue gas needs to be done? a) maximize O2 b) maximize CO2 c) minimize CO2 d) maximize CO 44. An indication of sensible heat content in air-water vapour mixture is a) wet bulb temperature c) density of air b) dew point temperature d) dry bulb temperature 45. Which of the following is false? a) electricity is high-grade energy b) high grade forms of energy are highly ordered and compact c) low grade energy is better used for applications like melting of metals rather than heating water for bath _______________________ Bureau of Energy Efficiency 6 Paper 1 Set A with Solutions d) the molecules of low grade energy are more randomly distributed than the molecules of carbon in coal 46. Which of the following is not applicable to liquid fuels? a) the viscosity of a liquid fuel is a measure of its internal resistance to flow. b) the viscosity of all liquid fuels decreases with increase in its temperature c) higher the viscosity of liquid fuels, higher will be its heating value d) viscous fuels need heat tracing 47. The cost of replacement of inefficient chiller with an energy efficient chiller in a plant was Rs. 10 lakh .The net annual cash flow is Rs 2.50 lakh .The return on investment is: a) 18% b) 20% c) 15 % d) none of the above 48. Which one is not an energy consumption benchmark parameter? a) kcal/kWh of electricity generated c) kW/ton of refrigeration b) kg/ oC. d) kWh/kg of yarn 49. The contractor provides the financing and is paid an agreed fraction of actual savings achieved. This payment is used to pay down the debt costs of equipment and/or services. This is known as a) traditional contract c) performance Contract b) extended technical guarantee/service d) shared savings performance contract 50. In project financing ,sensitivity analysis is applied because a) almost all the cash flow methods involve uncertainty b) of the need to assess how sensitive the project to changes in input parameters c) what if one or more factors are different from what is predicted d) all the above situation . . End of Section I .. . Section II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS (i) (ii) Marks: 8 x 5 = 40 Answer all Eight questions Each question carries Five marks S-1 Explain Time of Day (TOD) Tariff and how it is beneficial for the power system and consumers? Ans In Time of the Day Tariff (TOD) structure incentives for power drawl during offpeak hours and disincentives for power drawl during peak hours are built in. Many _______________________ Bureau of Energy Efficiency 7 Paper 1 Set A with Solutions electrical utilities like to have flat demand curve to achieve high plant efficiency. ToD tariff encourage user to draw more power during off-peak hours (say during 11pm to 5 am, night time) and less power during peak hours. Energy meter will record peak, off-peak and normal period consumption, separately. TOD tariff gives opportunity for the user to reduce their billing, as off peak hour tariff is quite low in comparison to peak hour tariff. This also helps the power system to minimize in line congestion, in turn higher line losses and peak load incident and utilities power procurement charges by reduced demand ..5 marks ( each point consider 1.5 marks) S- 2 In a chemical factory where dyes are made, wet cake at 30 OC consisting of 60% moisture is put in a dryer to obtain an output having only 5% moisture, at atmospheric pressure. In each batch about 120 kgs of material is dried. a. The quantity of moisture removed per batch. b. What is the total quantity ( sensible & latent) of heat required to evaporate the moisture, if the latent heat of water is 540 kcal/kg at atmospheric conditions, Ignore heat absorbed by the solids c. Find the quantity of steam required for the drying process (per batch), if steam at 4 kg/cm2 is used for generating hot air in the dryer and the dryer efficiency is 80%. Latent heat of steam at 4 kg/cm2 is 520 kcal/kg. Ans Given that Qty of material dried per batch Moisture at inlet - 120 Kgs - 60% a. The quantity of moisture removed per batch. Water quantity in a wet batch - 120 x 0.6 = 72 Kgs. Quantity of bone dry material - 120 72 = 48 Kgs. Moisture at outlet - 5% Total weight of dry batch output - 48/0.95 Equivalent water in a dry batch - 50.5 - 48 = 2.5 Kgs. _______________________ Bureau of Energy Efficiency = 50.5 Kgs. 8 Paper 1 Set A with Solutions 72 2.5 = 69.5 Kgs./batch .1.5 marks b. The total quantity of heat required to evaporate the moisture. Total water removed in drying - To evaporate the moisture at atmospheric pressure, the material has to be first heated up to 100 OC. The total heat required would be; Sensible heat - 72 x 1 x (100 30) = 5040 Kcal/batch Latent heat - 69.5 x 540 = 37530 Kcal/batch Total heat required - 5040 + 37530 = 42570 Kcal/batch .2 marks c. S-3 Ans The quantity of steam required for the drying process Dryer Efficiency - 80% Heat input to dryer - 42570/0.8 = 53212.50 Kcal/batch Latent heat in 4 Kg/cm2 steam - 520 Kcal/Kg Steam quantity required - 53212.50 / 520 = 102.3 Kgs / batch .1.5 marks Explain PAT scheme and why it is a market based mechanism? Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) Scheme is a market based mechanism to enhance cost effectiveness of improvements in energy efficiency in energy-intensive large industries and facilities, through certification of energy savings that could be traded. The genesis of the PAT mechanism flows out of the provision of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001 (amended in 2010). The key goal of PAT scheme is to mandate specific energy efficiency improvements for the most energy intensive industries in sectors as listed below. Sector 1. Aluminium 2. Cement 3. Chlor-Alkali 4. Fertilizer 5. Iron and Steel 6. Pulp and Paper 7. Textile 8. Thermal Power Plant _______________________ Bureau of Energy Efficiency 9 Paper 1 Set A with Solutions The energy intensity reduction target mandated for each unit is depended on its operating efficiency and the specific energy consumption reduction target is less for those who are more efficient and more for the less efficient units. Further, the scheme incentivizes units to exceed their specified SEC improvement targets. To facilitate this, the scheme provides the option for industries who achieve superior savings to receive energy savings certificates for this excess savings, and to trade the additional certified energy savings certificates with other designated consumers who can utilize these certificates to comply with their specific energy consumption reduction targets. Energy Savings Certificates (ESCerts) so issued will be tradable at Power Exchanges. The scheme also allows units which gain ESCerts to bank them for the next cycle of PAT, following the cycle in which they have been issued. The number of ESCerts which would be issued would depend on the quantum of energy saved over and above the target energy savings in the assessment year. After completion of baseline audits, targets varying from unit to unit ranging from about 3 to 7% are set and need to be accomplished during the 3 year cycle; after which new cycle with new targets will be proposed. Failing to achieve the specific energy consumption targets in the time frame would attract penalty for the non-compliance under Section 26 (1A) of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001 (amended in 2010). For ensuring the compliance with the set targets, system of verification and check-verification will be carried out by empanelment criteria of accredited energy auditors. .5 marks Refer Book 1: Pg no 40-41 S-4 Give a short description about Availability Based Tariff (ABT). Ans Introduction of availability based tariff(ABT) and scheduled interchange charges for power was introduced in 2003 for interstate sale of power , have reduced voltage and frequency fluctuation It is a performance-based tariff system for the supply of electricity by generators owned and controlled by the central government. It is also a new system of scheduling and dispatch, which requires both generators and beneficiaries to commit to day - ahead schedule. It is a system of rewards and penalties seeking to enforce day ahead precommitted schedules, though variations are permitted if notified one and a half hours in advance. The order emphasizes prompt payment of dues , non-payment of prescribed charges will be liable for appropriate action. .5 marks _______________________ Bureau of Energy Efficiency 10 Paper 1 Set A with Solutions S 5 In a heat treatment shop, steel components are heat-treated in batches of 80 Tons. The heat treatment cycle is as follows; Increase temperature from 30 OC to 850 OC in 3 hours. Maintain 850 OC for 1 hour (soaking time). Cool the material to 60 OC in 4 hours. a) Calculate the efficiency of the furnace, if the specific heat of steel is 0.12 kcal/kg OC and fuel oil consumption per batch is 1400 litres. GCV of fuel oil - 10200 kcal/kg, Cost of fuel oil - Rs. 46,000/kL, Sp. gr. of fuel oil - 0.92. b) Due to high cost of oil, the plant management decides to convert to a lower operating cost LPG fired furnace lined on the inside with ceramic fibre insulation and with an operating efficiency of 80%, for same requirement. The investment towards installation of the new furnace is Rs. 50 lakhs. Calculate the Return on Investment, if the plant operates two batches per day and 250 days in a year. Ans Cost of LPG GCV of LPG - Rs. 75/kg, - 12500 kcal/kg. Quantity of steel treated per batch - 80 Tons - 80000 x 0.12 x (850 30) a. Efficiency of Furnace: Useful heat supplied to steel = 7872000 kcal/batch Total heat supplied by fuel - .1 mark 1400 x 0.92 x 10200 = 13137600 kcal/batch Efficiency of Furnace - 7872000/12067824 = 59.9% .1 mark Cost of operating fuel oil furnace - 1400 x 46 = Rs. 64400/batch Efficiency of new LPG furnace - 80% Heat supplied in new LPG furnace - 7872000/0.8 b. Return on Investment (RoI): _______________________ Bureau of Energy Efficiency 11 Paper 1 Set A with Solutions = 9840000 kcal/batch Equivalent LPG consumption - 9840000/12500 = 787.2 kg/batch Cost of operating LPG Furnace - .1 mark 787.2 x 75 =Rs. 59040/batch Cost saving per batch - 64400 59040 =Rs. 5360/- Annual cost saving - 5360 x 2 x 250 =Rs. 26,80,000/- Investment for new furnace - .1 mark Rs. 50 Lakhs Return on Investment (RoI) - (26.8/50)*100 = 53.6% .1 mark S 6 In a 100 TPD Sponge Iron plant, the sponge iron is fed to the Induction melting furnace, producing molten steel at 88% yield. The Energy consumption details are as follows: Coal Consumption : 130 TPD GCV of coal : 4500 kcal/kg Power Purchased from Grid : 82400 kWh / day Specific Energy consumption for Kiln producing Sponge Iron: 120 kWh / ton sponge iron 82400 kWh/day from Grid Factory Boundary Electricity for Induction Melting Furnace 130 TPD Coal 4500 kcals/kg Iron Ore Grid Electricity 120 kWh/t of Sponge iron 100 TPD Sponge Iron Sponge Iron Kiln Induction Melting Furnace Yield: 88% Molten steel Calculate the following 1. Specific Energy Consumption of Induction melting furnace in terms of kWh/ton of molten steel 2. Specific Energy Consumption of the entire plant, in terms of kcal/kg of molten steel (product). 3. Total Energy Consumption of Plant in Tons of Oil Equivalent (TOE ) _______________________ Bureau of Energy Efficiency 12 Paper 1 Set A with Solutions Ans a) Specific Energy Consumption of Induction Melting Furnace Molten Steel Production from the Induction melting furnace per day = 100 x 88/100 = 88 TPD Total Energy Consumption of the Plant = 82400 kWh Electrical Energy Consumption in Sponge Iron Making = 120 x 100 = 12000 kWh per day Electrical Energy Consumption in Induction Melting Furnace = 82400-12000 = 70400 kWh/day .1 mark Specific Energy Consumption of Induction Melting Furnace= 70400 / 88 = 800 kWh/ton of molten steel .1 mark b)Total Energy Consumption of the Plant: (82400x860) + (130x1000x4500) = (70864000+585000000) = 655864000 kcal/day .1 mark Specific Energy Consumption in terms of kcal/kg of Molten metal =655864000/88000 =7453 kcal/kg of molten metal .1 mark c) Total Energy consumption of Plant in ToE = 655864000/107 = 65.586 ToE .1 mark S- 7 A manufacturing industry plans to improve its energy performance under PAT through implementation of an energy conservation scheme. After implementation, calculate the Plant Energy Performance (PEP) with 2015-16 as the reference year. What is your inference? Given that: The current year (2016-17 ) Annual Production 28,750 T , Current year (2016-17 ) Annual Energy Consumption 23,834 MWh, Reference year (2015-16 ) production - 34,000 T, Reference year (2015-16 ) Energy consumption - 27,200 MWh. Ans Production factor (PF) = 28750/34000 = 0.846 .1 mark Ref year equivalent energy (RYEE) = Ref Year Energy Use (RYEU) x PF = 27,200 x 0.846= 23011MWh _______________________ Bureau of Energy Efficiency 13 Paper 1 Set A with Solutions .1 mark PEP = (RYEE current year energy)/RYEE = (23011 23834)/23011 = (-) 0.0369 ie (-) 3.7 % .1.5 marks Since the PEP is negative, it implies that the energy conservation measure did not yield reduction in energy consumption, action to be taken to improve the plant performance. .1.5 marks S-8 List down any five Designated Consumers notified under the Energy Conservation Act. Ans (1) Aluminium, (2) Cement, (3) Chloralkali, (4) Fertiliser, (5) Steel, (6) Pulp & Paper, (7)Thermal Power Plants, (8) Textile, (9) Railways. .5 marks ( any 5 of the above and each one carries one mark) . . End of Section II .. . Section III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS (i) (ii) Marks: 6 x 10 = 60 Answer all Six questions Each question carries Ten marks L - 1 Saturated steam at 1 atm is discharged from a turbine at 1200 kg/h. Superheated steam at 300 0C and 1 atm is needed as a feed to a heat exchanger. To produce it, the turbine discharge stream is mixed with superheated steam at 400 0C, 1 atm and specific volume of 3.11 m3/kg. Calculate the amount of superheated steam at 300 0C produced and the volumetric flow rate of the 400 0C steam. Ans Solution 1. Mass balance of water 1200 + m1 = m2 (1) .1 mark 2. Energy balance (1200 kg/h)(2676 kJ/kg) + m1(3278 kJ/kg) _______________________ Bureau of Energy Efficiency 14 Paper 1 Set A with Solutions . . = m2(3074 kJ/kg) (2) .1 mark Eqs. (1) and (2) are solved simultaneously 3211200 + 3278m1 = (1200 + m1)3074 m1 = 2341.2 kg/h m2 = 1200 + 2341.2 = 3541.2 kg/h (superheated steam produced) .4 marks o 3. Volumetric flow rate of 400 C steam The specific volume of steam at 400 C and 1 atm is 3.11 m3/kg. The volumetric flow rate is calculated as follows: (2341.2 kg/h)(3.11 m3/kg) = 7281.1 m3/h .4 marks L 2 The energy consumption and production patterns in a chemical plant over a 9 month period is provided in the table below; Month Production in Tonnes / month 1 493 2 297 3 381 4 479 5 585 6 440 7 234 8 239 9 239 Energy Consumption MWh /month 78.2 75.7 76.3 76.1 78.1 70.7 73.7 64.4 72.1 Estimate the cumulative energy savings at end of the 9 th month and give your inference on the result ? ( consider 9 month data for evaluation for predicted energy consumption) Ans It is required to use the equations Y= mX + C and nC + m X = Y c X + m X2 = XY Month 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 _______________________ Bureau of Energy Efficiency X= Production in Tonnes / month 493 297 381 479 585 440 234 239 239 3387 Y =Energy Consumption MWh /month X2 XY 78.2 75.7 76.3 76.1 78.1 70.7 73.7 64.4 72.1 665.3 243049 88209 145161 229441 342225 193600 54756 57121 57121 1410683 38574.12 22479.51 29076.88 36436.09 45671.42 31110.53 17240.63 15402.96 17228.98 253221 15 Paper 1 Set A with Solutions Therefore, the normal equations become; 9c + 3387m = 665.3 .i ii 3387C + 1410683m = 253221.1 .2 marks c = (665.3-3387m)/9 Substituting in Eq. ii, m = 0.021 and c = 66.1 The best-fit straight line equation is; y = 0.021x + 66.1 .3 marks Month 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Production in Tonnes / month x Eactual 493 78.2 297 75.7 381 76.3 479 76.1 585 78.1 440 70.7 234 73.7 239 64.4 239 72.1 E cal Y = 0.021x + 66.1 Difference 76.45 72.34 74.10 76.16 78.39 75.34 71.01 71.12 71.12 1.75 3.36 2.20 -0.06 -0.28 -4.64 2.69 -6.72 0.98 CUSUM 1.75 5.11 7.31 7.25 6.97 2.33 5.01 -1.71 -0.73 .4 marks Since the CUSUM value at the end of 9th month is negative, the plant has not achieved any net energy savings and action has to be taken to determine reason for no performance of the encon option. .1 mark L - 3 Explain the following a) Dry Bulb Temperature and Wet bulb Temperature b) Maximum Demand and Power Factor c) Gross Calorific Value & Net Calorific Value d) 5S & Return of Investment (ROI) e) CUSUM _______________________ Bureau of Energy Efficiency 16 Paper 1 Set A with Solutions Ans a) Dry Bulb Temperature and Wet bulb Temperature Dry bulb Temperature is an indication of the sensible heat content of air-water vapour mixtures Wet bulb Temperature is a measure of total heat content or enthalpy. It is the temperature approached by the dry bulb and the dew point as saturation occurs. .2 marks b) Maximum Demand and Power Factor Maximum demand is maximum KVA or KW over one billing cycle Power Factor Cos = kW/ KVA or kW = kVA cos .2 marks c) Gross Calorific Value & Net calorific Value: Gross calorific value assumes all vapour produced during the combustion process is fully condensed. Net calorific value assumes the water leaves with the combustion products without being fully condensed. The difference being the latent heat of condensation of the water vapour produced during the combustion process. .2 marks d) 5S: Housekeeping. Separate needed items from unneeded items. Keep only what is immediately necessary item on the shop floor. Workplace Organization. Organize the workplace so that needed items can be easily and quickly accessed. A place for everything and everything in its place. Cleanup. Sweeping, washing, and cleaning everything around working area immediately. Cleanliness. Keep everything clean in a constant state of readiness. Discipline. Everyone understands, obeys, and practices the rules when in the plant. .1 mark( any one of the above is sufficient) d) Return on Investment: ROI expresses the annual return from project as % of capital cost. This is a broad indicator of the annual return expected from initial capital investment, _______________________ Bureau of Energy Efficiency 17 Paper 1 Set A with Solutions expressed as a percentage. .1 mark e) Cumulative Sum (CUSUM) Technique: Difference between expected or standard consumption with actual consumption data points over baseline period of time. Follows a fixed trend unless something (energy saving measure, deterioration in performance..) happens Helps calculation of savings/losses till date after changes .2 marks L 4 Answer the following S. No Statement Chose the correct answer OR Fill-in-the-blanks 1 Fyrite measures CO2, O2 and SO2 True/False 2 Ultrasonic Flow Meter uses the principle of____& ____ Fill in the blanks 3 4 5 6 Non Contact Infrared Thermometer cannot measure temperature of objects placed in hazardous places To measure the RPM of a Flywheel, ______ type of RPM meter is used and for a visible shaft-end _______ type of RPM meter is used. In a switch yard, _____ instrument is used to identify the loose joints and terminations Every Designated Consumer shall have its first energy audit conducted by ________ Energy Auditor within ______ months of notification issued by the Central Government True/False Fill in the blanks Fill in the blanks Fill in the blanks 7 280 kcal/ hr is equivalent to _____Watts and 3.5 bar is equivalent to __________kPa Fill in the blanks 8 One metric ton of oil equivalent is to ________MW Fill in the blanks 9 1 kg of Coal, consisting of 30% of Carbon produces ______ kg of CO2 Fill in the blanks _______________________ Bureau of Energy Efficiency 18 Paper 1 Set A with Solutions 10 Ans Sr No In a gasification system the reduction zone is above the combustion zone Statement Chose the correct answer OR Fill-in-the-blanks True/False True/False Solution 1 Fyrite measures CO2, O2 and SO2 2 Ultrasonic Flow Meter uses the principle of____& ____ Fill in the blanks Transit Time; Doppler Effect 3 Non Contact Infrared Thermometer cannot measure temperature of objects placed in hazardous places To measure the RPM of a Flywheel, ______ type of RPM meter is used and for a visible shaft-end _______ type of RPM meter is used. In a switch yard, _____ instrument is used to identify the loose joints and terminations Every Designated Consumer shall have its first energy audit conducted by ________ Energy Auditor within ______ months of notification issued by the Central Government True/False False Fill in the blanks Stroboscope; Tachometer Fill in the blanks Thermal imager or IR gun Fill in the blanks Accredited ; 18 months Fill in the blanks 325.6 Watts; (280x4.187x1000/3600) 350 kPa (3.5 x100) Fill in the blanks 11.62 MW (1x1000x10000/(860x1000) Fill in the blanks 1.1 [(44/12)x(0.3] True/False False 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 280 kcal/ hr is equivalent to _____Watts and 3.5 bar is equivalent to __________kPa One metric ton of oil equivalent is to ________MW 1 kg of Coal, consisting of 30% of Carbon produces ______ kg of CO2 In a gasification system the reduction zone is above the combustion zone _______________________ Bureau of Energy Efficiency False 19 Paper 1 Set A with Solutions .10 marks(each one carries one mark) L - 5 A company has to choose between two projects whose cash flows are as indicated below; Project 1: i. Investment Rs. 15 Lakhs ii. Annual cost savings Rs. 4 lakhs. iii. Bi-annual maintenance cost Rs. 50,000/iv. Reconditioning and overhaul during 5th year: 6 lakhs v. Life of the project 8 years vi. Salvage value Rs. 5 lakhs Project 2: vii. Investment Rs. 14 Lakhs viii. Annual cost savings Rs. 3.5 lakhs. ix. Annual Maintenance cost Rs. 20,000/x. Reconditioning and overhaul during 4th year: 5 lakhs xi. Life of the project 8 years xii. Salvage Value- 2 lakhs Which project should the company choose? The annual discount rate is 12%. _______________________ Bureau of Energy Efficiency 20 Paper 1 Set A with Solutions Ans Year 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 NPV Project 1 Outgo Saving NPV 15.0 0 =-15.0 0 4.0 = (4 / (1+.12)1 = 3.571 0.5 4.0 = (3.5 / (1+.12)2 = 2.79 0 4.0 = (4 / (1+.12)3 = 2.84 0.5 4.0 = (3.5 / (1+.12)4 = 2.22 6 4.0 = (-2 / (1+.12)5 = -1.13 0.5 4.0 = (3.5 / (1+.12)6 = 1.77 0 4.0 = (4 / (1+.12)7 = 1.81 0.5 9 (4+5) = (8.5 / (1+.12)8 = 3.43 = + 2.301 Outgo 14.0 0.2 0.2 0.2 5 0.2 0.2 0.2 0.2 @12% Project 2 Saving NPV 0 = -14 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)1 = 2.95 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)2 = 2.63 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)3 = 2.35 3.5 = (-1.5 / (1+.12)4 = -0.95 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)5 = 1.87 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)6 = 1.67 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)7 = 1.49 5.5 = (5.3 / (1+.12)8 (3.5+2) = 2.14 = + 0.15 NPV Project 1 is higher than Project 2. Hence project 1 is preferred. .10 marks A project activity has several components as indicated below; L- 6 S. No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Activity Preceded by A B C D E F G H I J A A B D B E& F C F&H I&G Duration (in Weeks) 8 6 12 4 5 12 9 8 5 6 d. Prepare a PERT chart, estimate the duration of the project and identify the critical path. _______________________ Bureau of Energy Efficiency 21 Paper 1 Set A with Solutions e. What are the Earliest Start, Latest Start and Total Float of activity H ? f. What would be the project duration if activity H got delayed by 3 weeks? PERT Diagram based on Activity on Arrow Ans . E D B A 6 8 c 5 G 5 9 F,12 12 J, 6 I ,5 H 8 OR PERT Diagram based on Activity on Node .6 marks a. Critical Path: A-B-F-G-J .1 mark b. Estimated Project Duration: 41 weeks _______________________ Bureau of Energy Efficiency 22 Paper 1 Set A with Solutions .1 mark c. For activity H, Early Start is 20, Latest Start is 22 and Total Float is 2 weeks. .1 mark d. Project duration will be 42 weeks- a delay of 1 week. .1 mark . . End of Section III .. . _______________________ Bureau of Energy Efficiency 23

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