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SBI PO Exam 07 March 2010

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State Bank of India & Associates' Probationary Officer Examination Exam Held on 7th March 2010 (Based on Memory) Section 1 Reasoning Ability 1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TRIBUNAL each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 2. In a certain code DOWN as '5@9#' and NAME is written as '#6%3'. How is MODE written in that code? (1) %653 (2) %@63 (3) %5@3 (4) %@53 (5) None of these 3. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LGEU using each letter only once in each word? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 4. If 'R' denotes '-'; 'Q' denotes 'X'; 'W' denotes '';: and 'N denotes' +', then 42 W 7 R 8 A 6 Q 4 ? (1) -22 (3) 22 (5) None of the above (2) -168 (4) 28 5. In a certain code THRIVES is written as SIUHRDU. How is SOULFUL written in that code? (1) VPTKKTE (2) VPTKETK (3) TPVKKTE (4) TNRKMVG (5) None of the above 6. The positions of how many digits in the number 59164823 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in descending order within the number? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 7. Mohan walked 30 metres towards South, took a left turn and walked 15 metres. He then took a right turn and walked 20 metres. He again took a right turn and walked 15 metres. How far is he from the starting point? (1) 95 metres (2) 50 metres (3) 70 metres (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of the above 8. What should come next in the following letter series? PQRSTABCDEPQRSABCDEPQRSABCDPQ (1) R (3) A (5) None of the above (2) T (4) B 9. In a certain code language, 'how can you go' is written as 'ja da ka pa'. 'can you come here' is written as 'na ka sa ja' and 'come and go' is written as Ira pa sa'. How is 'here' written in that code language? (1) ja (2) na (3) pa (4) Data inadequate (5) None of the above 10. What should come next in the following letter series based on English alphabet? CEAIKGOQM? (1) STW (2) WUS (3) SWU (4) UWS (5) None of the above Directions (Q. 11-15) In each of the questions below are giFen four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the giFen statements to be true even if they seem to be at Fariance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the gil'en conclusions logically follows from the giFen statements disregarding commonly known facts. 30 I SBI Associates' PO Exam 11. Statements Some trains are cars. All cars are branches. All branches are nets. Some nets are dresses. Conclusions I. Some dresses are cars. II. Some nets are trains III. Some branches are trains. IV. Some dresses are trains (1) Only I and II follow (2) Only II and III follow (3) Only I and IV follow (4) Only II, III and IV follow (5) None of the above 12. Statements All papers are clips. Some clips are boards. Some boards are lanes. All lanes are roads. Conclusions I. Some roads are boards. II. Some lanes are clips. III. Some boards are papers. IV. Some roads are clips. (1) Only I and II follow (2) Only I and III follow (3 ) Only I, II and III follow (4) Only II, III and IV follow (5) None of the above 13. Statements Some pencils are kites. Some kites are desks. All desks are jungles. All jungles are mountains. Conclusions I. Some mountains are pencils. II. Some jungles are pencils. III. Some mountains are desks. IV. Some jungles are kites. (1) Only I and III follow (2) Only I, II and III follow (3) Only III and IV follow (4) Only II, III and IV follow (5) None of the above 14. Statements All stones are hammers. No hammer is ring. Some rings are doors. All doors are windows. Conclusions I. Some windows are stones. II. Some windows are rings. III. No window is stone. IV. Some rings are stones. (1) Only Ifollows (2) Only II follows (3) Only III follows (4) Only either I or III follows (5) Only either I or III and II follow 15. Statements All pens are clocks. Some clocks are tyres. Some tyres are wheels. Some wheels are buses. Conclusions I. Some buses are tyres. II. Some wheels are clocks. III. Some wheels are pens. IV. Some buses are clocks. (1) None follows (2) Only I follows (3) Only II follows (4) Only III follows (5) Only IV follows Directions (Q. 16-20) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: A , B, C, D, E, F, G, Hand K are sitting around a circle facing the centre. F is fourt to the right of A who is third to the right of B.K is fourth to the left of B and third to the right of D. C is third to the right of H. E is second to the left ofG. 16. Who is to the immediate right of F ? (1) B (2) G (3) E (5) None of these (4) Data inadequate 17. Who is third to the right of K ? (1) F (2) E (3) G (5) None of these (4) Data inadequate 18. What is E's position with respect to B ? (1) Second to the left (2) Third to the right (3) Fourth to the right (4) Third to the left (5) Fifth to the right 19. Who is fourth to the left of G ? (1) C (2) A (3) D (5) Data inadequate (4) K 20. In which of the following combinations is the third person sitting between the first and the second persons? (1) GFB (2) BGH (3) ADC (4) KEC (5) EGF Directions (Q. 21-25) In the following questions. the are used with the following symbols 8, @, , % and meaning as illustrated below: 'P Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q' 'P % Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q' 'P Q' means 'P is neither greater then nor equal to Q' 'P 0 Q' means 'P is not greater than Q' 'P @ Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q' Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions 1, II, III and IV given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly. * * 21. Statements DoT, T @ R, R M, M % K Conclusions I. R @ D II. R % D III. K*T IV. M8T (1) Only either I or II is true (2) Only III and IV are true (3) Only either I or II and III are true (4) Only either I or II and IV are true (5) Only either I or II and III and IV are true 22. Statements J @ F, F oN, N % H, H G Conclusions 1. G N II. N J III.F*J IV. J 8G (1) Only I and II are true (2) Only I, II and III are true (3) Only II, III and IV are true (4) All 1, II, III and IV are true (5) None of the above * Solved Paper March 2010 31 * K. K % D, D @ V. V 1i M Conclusions 1. R D II. V*R III. D @M IV. M%D (1) None is true (2] Only III is true (3) Only IV is true (4] Only either III or IV is true (5) Only either III or IV and II are true 23. Statements R * * 24. Statements B T. T R. R % F, F @ K Conclusions I. B % R II. F T III. R%K IV. K T (1) None is true (2) Only I is true (3) Only II is rue (4) Only III is true (5) Only IV is true * * 25. Statements F % N. N W. W BY, Y - T Conclusions 1. F % W II. T % N III.N%Y IV. T%W (1) Only I and III are true (2) Only I and IV are true (3) Only II and III are true (4) Only I. II and IV are true (5) None of the above Directions (Q. 26-30) In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguisl/ between 'strong' arguments and 'weak' arguments, 'Strong' argcrments are those wl/ich are both important and directly related to the questions. 'Weak' arguments are those which are of minor jmportance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question. Each question below is followed by three arguments numbered (AJ, (Bl and (C). You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak' argument. 26. Statement Should there be complete ban on setting up of thermal power plants in India? Arguments (A) Yes, this is the only way to arrest further addition to environmental pollution. (B) No, there is a huge shortage of electricity in most parts of the country and hence generation of electricity needs to be augmented. (C) No, many developed countries continue to set up thermal power plants in their countries. (1) None is strong (2) Only (A) is strong (3) Only (B) is strong (4) Only (e) is strong (5) Only either (A) or (Bl is strong 27. Statement Should road repair work in cities be carried out only late at night? Arguments (A) No, this way the work will never get completed. (B) No, there will be unnecessary use of electricity. (C) Yes, the commuters will face lot of problems due to repair work during the day. (1) None is strong (2) Only (A) is strong (3) Only (C) is strong (4) Only (B) and (e) are strong (5) Only (A) and (B) are strong 28. Statements Should all the deemed universities be derecognized and attached to any of the central of state universities in India? Arguments (A) Yes many of these deemed universities do not conform to the required standards of a full-fledged university and hence the level of education is compromised. (Bl No, these deemed universities have been able to introduce innovative courses suitable to the requirement of various industries as they are free from strict Govt. controls. (C) Yes, many such universities are basically money spinning activities and education takes a backseat in these institutions. (1) Only (A) and (B) are strong (2) Only (Bl and (e) are strong (3) Only (A) and (C) are strong (4) All [A), (Bl and (C) are strong (5) None of the above 29. Statement Should there be a cap on drawing groundwater for irrigation purposes in India? Arguments (AJ No.. irrigation is of prime importance for food production in India and it is heavily dependent on groundwater in many parts of the country. (B) Yes, water tables have gone down to alarmingly low levels in some parts of the country where irrigation is primarily dependent on groundwater. which may environmental lead to serious consequences. (C) Yes, India just cannot afford to draw groundwater any further as the international agencies have cautioned India against it. (1) Only (A) and (B) are strong (2) Only (B) and (e) are strong (3) Only (A) and (el are strong (4) All (A), (B) and (C) are strong (5) None of the above 32 I SBI Associates' PO Exam 30. Statement Should there be a restriction on the construction of high rise buildings in big cities in India ? Arguments (A) No, big cities in India do not have adequate open land plots to accommodate the growing population. (Bl Yes, only the builders and developers benefit from the construction of high rise buildings. (C) Yes, the Govt. should first provide adequate infrastructural facilities to existing buildings before allowing the construction of new high rise buildings. (1) Only (Bl is strong (2) Only (C) is strong (3) Only (A) and (C) are strong (4) Only (A) is strong (5) None of the above Directions (Q. 31-35) In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions (A), (E) and (C). An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. 31. Statement The Govt. has decided to auction construction of highways to private entities in several blocks across the country on build-operate-transfer basis. Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement? (A) An adequate number of private entities may not respond to the Government's auction notification. (Bl Many private entities in the country are capable of constructing highways within reasonable time. (C) The Govt.'s proposal of build-operate-transfer may financially benefit the private entities. (1) Only (A) and (El are implicit (2) Only (Bl and (C) are implicit [3) Only (B) is implicit (4) Only (A) and (C) are implicit (5) None of the above 32. Statement Govt. has urged all the citizens to use electronic media for carrying out their daily activities, whenever possible, instead of using paper as the manufacture of paper requires the cutting down of a large number of trees causing severe damage to the ecosystem. Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement? (A) Most people may be capable of using electronic media to carry out various routines. (B) Most people may have access to electronic media for carrying out their daily routine activities. (e) People at may reject the Govt.s' appeal and continue using paper as before. (1) Only (A) is implicit (2) Only (El is implicit (3) Only (A) and (E) are implicit (4) Only (el is implicit (5) None of the above 33. Statement The apex body controlling universities in the country has decided to revise the syllabus of all the technical courses to make them focused towards the present needs of the industry thereby making the technical graduates more employable than they are at present. Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement? (A) Technical colleges affiliated to different universities may not welcome the apex body's decision and may continue with the same syllabus as at present. (Bl The industry may welcome the decision of the apex body and scale up their hiring from these colleges. (C) The Govt. may not allow the apex body to implement its decision in all the colleges as it may lead to chaos. (1) None is implicit (2) Only (A) is implicit (3) Only (B) is implicit (4) Only (C) is implicit (5J Only (A) and (E) are implicit 34. Statement Police authority cordoned off the entire locality for the entire day and stopped all vehicular movement for the visit of a top functionary of the government in view of the threat perception and advised all the residents in the area to limit their movement outside their dwellings. Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement? (A) Police personnel may not be able to control the vehicular movement in the locality and may seek help from the armed forces. (BJ People living in the locality may move out of their houses for the day to avoid inconvenience. (C) The Govt. functionary may request the police authority to lift the ban on movement residents of the locality outside their dwellings. (1) None is implicit (2) Only (A) is implicit (3) Only (BJ is implicit (4) Only (C) is implicit (5) Only (B) and (C) are implicit 35. Statement The airlines have requested all their bona fide passengers to check the status of flight operations before leaving their homes as heavy fog is causing immense problems to normal flight operations. Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement? (A) The majority of the air passengers may check the flight status before starting their journey to the airport. (B) The Govt. may take serious objection to the notice issued by the airline company. (C) Majority of the passengers may cancel their tickets and postpone their journey till the situation becomes normal. (1] None is implicit (2) Only (A) is implicit (3] Only (El is implicit (4) Only (el is implicit (5) Only (A) and (C) are implicit Solved Paper March 2010 I 33 Directions (Q. 36-40) Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts states in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth offalsity Mark answer (1) if the inference is 'definitely true', ie, it properly follows from the statement of facts given. Mark answer (2) if the inference is 'probably true' though not 'definitely true' in the light of the facts given. Mark answer (3) if the 'data are inadequate', ie, from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false. Mark answer (4) if the inference is 'probably false', though not 'definitely false' in the light of the facts given. Mark answer (5) if the inference is 'definitely false', ie, it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts. The deterioration in the overall asset quality of banks gross Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) are reportedly 27% higher at the end of December 2009 than at the end of December 2008 - is not surprising. Any slowdown in growth is bound to trigger a rise in NPAs as more and more companies default on loan repayments. The effect would be pronounced when the slowdown coincides with the severe global recession. But for the restructuring of loans permitted by the Central Bank on fairly generous terms, NPAs would have been still higher. Prudent banks that took care while sanctioning loans and then monitored the post-sanction disbursement diligently should be able to weather the crisis. But it is one thing to have 1\'PAs rise because of a cyclical downturn, it is quite another to have NPAs rise because of policy errors that are entirely within the realm of policymakers. And this is what we need to guard against. Excessively low interest rates skew the risk reward equation by making projects that are actually not viable, appear viable-till interest rates reverse and the same projects cease to be viable! It is now well established that long periods of unduly low interest rates encourage banks to take more risks. A low interest rate regime driven by an easy money policy rather than macroeconomic fundamentals leads to excessive expansion of credit. It incentivizes banks to take on more risk in search of higher returns and to misprice risk. 36. Low interest rate on credit reduces the capacity to absorb various unaccounted risk factors. 37. Banks' NPAs occur only due to economic factors. 38. The Central Bank alwavs allows banks to restructure their loans in the event of ri~e in NPAs 39. Lower interest rate cycle projects commercially unviable projects as viable. 40. Higher NPAs indicate shortcomings in disbursement and follow-up of credit given by banks. Directions (Q. 41-45) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Following are the conditions for selecting Senior Manager-General Banking in a bank: The candidate must (il have secured at least 60 per cent marks in Std. XlI. (iil have secured at least 55 per cent marks in Graduation in any discipline. (iii) have secured at least 60 per cent marks in Post-graduate degree/diploma in management/ Economics/Statistics. (iv) be at least 25 years and not be more than 35 years as on 1.3.2010. [v) have post qualification work experience of at least 2 years as General Banking Officer in a bank. (vi) have secured at least 50 per cent marks in written exam ina tion. (vii) have secured at least 40 per cent marks in personal Interview. In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the above conditions except (a) at (iii) above, but has secured at least 60 per cent marks in CA or ICWA, the case is to be referred to VP-Recruitment (b) at(vii) above, but have secured atleast 65 per cent marks in the \~Titten examination and at least 35 per cent marks in the personal interview, the case is to be referred to President Recruitment. In each question below are given details of one candidate. You have to take one of the following courses of actions based on the information provided and the conditions 'and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.3.2010. Mark answer (1) if the data provided are inadequate to take a decision. Mark answer (2) if the case is to be referred to VP-Recruitment. Mark answer (3) if the case is to be referred to President-Recruitment. Mark answer (4) if the candidate is to be selected. Mark answer (5) if the candidate is not be selected. 41. Sohan Majhi has secured 65 per cent marks in B.Sc. and 70 per cent marks in M.Sc. Statistics. He has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past three years after completing his post-graduation. He has secured 55 per cent marks in the written examination and 50 per cent marks in the personal interview. He was born on 8th July 1982. 42. Neeta Jaiswal was born on 2nd June 1980. She has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past three years after completing her post-graduate degree in Economics with 60 per cent marks. She has secured 68 percent marks in HSC and 58 per cent marks in B.eom. She has also secured 50 per cent marks in both the written examination and personal interview. 43. Arindam Ghosh has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past four years after completing his post-graduate diploma in management with 60 per cent marks. He has secured 50 per cent marks in the written examination and 40 per cent marks in the personal interview. He has also secured 70 per cent marks in Std. XII. He was born on 25th February 1975. 34 I SBI Associates' PO Exam 44. Keshav Vora was born on 8th November 1978. He has secured 65 percent marks in Std. XII and 60 marks in Graduation. He has secured 58 percent marks in M.A. Economics and 60 percent marks in reWA. He has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past two years after compieting his education. He has also secured 50 percent marks in the written examination and 45 per cent marks in personal interview. Answer Figures D 110. * 0 A S T * * :1: D S (2) 0 T (4) (5) * T x ? A A T Cl * i. Xl: S 0 * A x D (1) S * x s s TI T 0 A Answer Fignres T * S D S x T A ** A 0 x A T (3) (5) 48. Problem Figures I: BI; ~I: ml: I ? "1 Answer Figures 49. Problem Figures I III II II II (1) S (3) A 1111 1111 ? III! "I III I I IIII I IIII A 47. Problem Figures IIII I II * A T T A (2) III Answer Figures ** D T (1) x Directions (Q. 46-50) In each of these questions there are two sets offigures. The figures on the left are Problems Figures (jour figuTes and one question-marked space) and those on the Tight aTe Answer indicated by numbeT 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. A se:ies is established if one of the five Answer is placed at tile "question-marked a series if they from space. Questions Figures to rig11t according to some rule. The number the Answer Figure which should be placed in the question-marked space is the answer. All the Fve figured ie, four Problem Figures and one answer placed 111 the question-marked space should be cOllsidered as forming the series. Study the following question. Problem Figures D1O. * I 45. Neha Salve has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past four years after completing her post-graduate degree din Economics with 60 percent marks. She has secured 60 percent marks in both graduation and Std. XII. She was born on 24th August 1979. She has secured 70 percent marks in the written examination and 38 percent marks in the personal interview. T . Answer Figures 111 III (3) (4) I (5) III I! I II! IIII I 1111 III II III III 11111 (1) (2) i (3) 1111 III lill (4) I (5) 4 in the question-marked If we place the Answer space it makes a series which indicates that one vertical line is added in each figure. So the answer is '4'. Note that if we go by only one aspect of 'number of lines'. Answer figure 3 may also fit in. So you have to consider all different aspects, ::-.low solve the following questions. 46. Problem Figures 50. Problem Figures 1*1*1 1*1 * ? Answer Figures (1) (2) (3) Solved Paper March 2010 ! 35 Section .2 Data Analysis and Interpretation Directions (Q. 51-55) Study the following table carefJlly to answer the questions that follow- Number (N) of six type of Electronic Products sold by Six different stores in a month and the price per product (P) (price in ~ '000) charged by each Store 51. What is the total amount earned by Store C through the sale of M and 0 type products together? (1) ~ 2719.2 lakh (2) ~ 271.92 lakh (3) ~ 2.71921akh (4) ~ 27.1921akh (5) ;..rone of the above 52. Number of L type product sold by Store F is what percent of the number same type of products sold by Store E? (1) 76.33 (2) 124 (3) 83.33 (4) 115 (5) None of the above 53. What is the difference in the amount earned by Store A through the sale of P type products and that earned by Store B through the sale of Q type products? (1) ~ 38.4 lakh (2) ~ 0.384 lakh (3) ~ 3.841akh (4) ~ 384 lakh (5) None of these 54. What is the respective ratio of total number of Nand L type products together sold by Store D and the same products sold by Store A ? (1) 119: 104 (2) 102: 115 (3) 104: 115 (4) 117: 103 (5) None ofthese 55. What is the average price per product charged by all the Stores together for Product Q ? (1) ~ 14700 (2) ~ 15700 (3) ~ 15200 (4) ~ 14800 (5) None of these Directions (Q. 56-60) Study the given information corefulzv to answer the questions that followAn Organization consists of 2400 employees working in different departments. viz, HR. Marketing, IT, Production and Accounts. The ratio of male to female employees in the Organization is 5 : 3 respectively. Twelve percent of the males work in the HR department. Twenty four percent of the females work in the Accounts department. The ratio of males to females working in the HR department is 6 : 11 respectively. One-ninth of the females work in the IT department. Forty two percent of the males work in the Production department. Number of females working in the Production department is ten percent of the males working in the same. The remaining females work in the Marketing department. The total number of employees working in the IT department is 285. Twenty two percent of the males work in the marketing department and the remaining 'work in the counts department. 56. How many males work in the Accounts department? (1) 170 (2) 165 (3) 185 (4) 160 (5) None of these 57. The number of males working in the IT department forms approximately what percent of the total number of males in the organization? (1) 5 (2) 12 (3) 21 8 (5) 18 58. What is the total number of females working in the HR marketing department together? (1) 363 (2) 433 (3) 545 (4) 521 (5) 1'\one of the above 59. The number of females working in the Production department forms what percent of the total number of females in the organization? (1) 7 (2) 12 (3) 4 (4) 15 (5) None of the above 60. The total number of employees working in the Accounts department forms what percent of the total number of employees in the organization? (rounded off to two digits after decimal) (1) 19.34 (2) 16.29 (4) 23.15 11.47 (5) None of the above Directions (Q. 61-65) Study the graphs carefully to answer the questions the follow; Total number of children in 6 different schools and the percentage of girls in them Nllmn,,, 2500 of Children -t-'-"~-+F___-------~----~- ----------------------~---- ~ ~- --------~ ------------_. 2000 -1-- -~ 1-- 1- ------------- 1500 +-+--IH--I--; -1--- f- - 1000-l-1----_I-_-_l-f_-I -- 500 -1-1---__ 1- ,-I -+-r _ --~ _ .. __ L' _____ I r- ------- --r I 1---.- -- -- 1- O~~~~~~~-L~-L~-L~ p Q R S School T u 36 I SBI Associates' PO Exam Percentage of Girls 63. If three marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that either all are green or all are red? 50+------------------------ 45 ___ ~------------------------- (1) :4 (2) ~2 30 -----------~------~----~------- (3) 5 12 (4) ~ ----------------------------------~ ~~ ---------~,,-----------~-------- -------------~----------\------ ~~ -----------------------------\---- Directions (Q. 69-70) Study the given information carefully and answer the questions thatfollow. 15 ------------------------------~. ----------------------------------10+---------------------- A committee of five members is to be formed out of 3 trainees, 4 professors and 6 research associates. In how many different ways can this be done if 5+----------------------- ----------------------------------P Q R s T u O+---+---~--r_~~~--__r School 61. What is the total number of boys in School T ? (1) 500 (3) 750 (5) None of these 69. The committee should have 2 trainees and 3 research associates? (1) 15 (2) 45 (3) 60 (4) 9 (2) 600 (4) 850 62. The total number of students in school R is approximately what percent of the total number of students in school S ? (1) 89 (2) 75 ro (5) None of these 70. The committee should have all 4 professors and 1 research ~)~ ~) associate or all 3 trainees and 2 professors? (5) 94 (1) 12 (3) 24 (5) None of these 63. What is the respective ratio of the number girls in school P to the number of girls in school Q ? (1) 27: 20 (2) 17: 21 (3) 20: 27 (4) 21 : 17 (5) None of the above 64. What is the total percentage of boys in schools Rand U together? (rounded off to two digits after decimal) (1) 78.55 (3) 76.28 Directions (Q. 71-75) Study the tables carefully to answer the questions that follow. Number of candidates (in lakhs) appearing in an entrance examination from six different cities and the ratio of candidates passing and failing in the same Ratio of candidates passing and failing within the city ~llssing (2) 1575 (4) 1625 A B (5) None of these Directions (Q.66-68) Study the given information carefully and answer the questions that follow. A basket contains 4 red, 5 blue and 3 green marbles. 66. If two marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability that both are red? (1) 3 7 (3) ~ 11 (2) ~ C D E (4) 1 6 (1) 27 (3) 42 (5) 38 67. If three marbles are picked at random, -what is the probability that at least one is blue '? (1) .2. 12 (2) 37 44 (3) ~ (4) 7 44 7 5 4 3 3 5 3 2 5 1 3 City C is what percent of the number of candidates appearing for the exam from City B ? (rounded off to be nearest integer) 2 - _!.IlHing~~ __ 71. The number of candidates appearing for the exam from (5) None of these 12 (5) None of these (2) 13 (4) 52 (2) 72.45 (4) 75.83 (5) None of these 65. What is the average number of boys in schools P and Q together? (1) 1425 (3) 1450 44 (5) None of these 72. (2) 34 (4) 21 What is the number of candidates passing in the exam from CityE? (1) 13000 (3) 113000 (5) None of these (2) 1110000 (4) 11000 Solved Paper March 2010 I 37 73. What is the respective ratio of the number of candidates failing in the exam from City D to those failing in the exam from City A? (1) 289: 42 (3) 227: 50 (2) 42 : 289 (4) 50: 227 (5) None of these (1J (2) (3) (4) (5) 27: 28 14: 23 13 : 19 Cannot be determined None of the above 79. What is the average percent profit earned by Company B 74. Number of candidates passing in the exam from City F is what percent of the total number of candidates appearing from all the cities together? (rounded off to two digits after the decimal) (1) 12.93 (2) 14.46 (4) 11.37 (3) 10.84 over all the years together? ( 1) 19.'! (2', 24.'! . 6 (3) 12.'! 3 (4) 3 37~6 (5) None of these (5) None of these 80. If in the year 2008, the income of both the companies A 75. Which city has the highest number of students failing in the entrance exam? (1) F (2) C (3) G and B \\ras the same, what was the respective ratio of expenditure of Company A to the expenditure of Company B in that year? (1) (2) (3) (4) (41 D (5) None of the above Directions (Q. 76-80) Study the graph carefully to anser the questions tlwt follow. Percent profit made by two companies over the years Income - Expenditure . x 100 Percent Pro f It Expenditure 21 : 25 7:9 13: 15 Cannot be determined (5) None of the above Directions (Q. 81-85) Study the given table carefully to answer the questions that follow, Percentage of marks obtained by five stndents if five different subjects in a school Company A Company B English Science -atics Social Studies Hindi (100) 2006 2007 2008 2009 Years 76. If the amount of profit earned by Company A in the year 2007 was '{ 1.5 lakh, what was its expenditure in that year? (1) (2) (3) (4) '{ 1.96 lakh '{ 2.64 lakh ~ 1.27 lakh ~ 3.75 lakh (5) None of the above 77. What is the respective ratio of the amount of profit earned by Company A and B in the year 2009 ? (1) 2: 3 (2) 4: 7 (3) 11 : 15 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of the above 78. If in the year 2004 the expenditure incurred by Company A and Bwas the same. what was respective ratio of the Income of Company A and B in that year? (75) (50) 84 70 64 90 59 72 74 88 84 Soham 2005 (150) 67 Venna 2004 (125) Rahul 66 90 84 80 76 -Figure in brackets indicate maximum marks for a particular subject. 81. What is Varun's overall percentage in the examination? (1) 81.5 (2) 78.2 (3) 75.4 (4) 69.8 (5) None of the above 82. What are the average marks obtained by all the students together in English ? (1) 64,6 ~2) 60.4 (3) 66.7 (4) 68.4 (5) None of the above 83. If in order to pass the exam a minimum of 95 marks are needed in Science, how many students pass in the exam? (1) None (2) Three (3) One (4) Two (5) Four 38 I SBI Associates' PO Exam 84. What are the total marks obtained by Soham in all the subjects together? (1) 396 (3) 402.5 (2) 408 (4) 398.5 (2) 7: 9 (4) 9: 7 Directions (Q. 86-90) Study the given graph carefully to answer the questions that follow. Number of people (in thousands) using three different types of mobile services over the years 1 (4) 14 6 3 (5) None of these Directions (Q. 91-95) Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow. Distance (in kms) travelled by six trucks on six different days of the week p (I) 60 +------------ (I) g 50 +--------- -L-.-_ __ Day --_ .. _, Monday Tuesday R S T U 320 Wednesday Q 240 324 288 Friday _70+---------------------------- g40 2 Thursday L 14444~ 6 (3) 16666 Veena and Shreya together in Mathematics to the marks obtained by Rahul in the same subject? .c (2) 3 85. What is the respective ratio of total marks obtained by -g lIS service Mfor all the years together? (1) 163. (5) None of these (1) 11 : 5 (3) 5: 11 (5) None of these 90. What is the average number of people using mobile 366 325 .2 30 Q. i Q. 91. What is the average distance travelled by truck S in all the 20 days together? '0 10 +-+'-'-lJ.!--j o z O--l--'-;-'----'..,-"---'-;-L---'---,-'----'-y-'----'-..,..-' 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 Years 86. What is the total number of people using mobile service M in the years 2008 and 2009 together? (1) 35,000 (2) 30,000 (3) 45,000 (4) 25,000 (5) None of these 87. Number of people using mobile service N in the year 2006 forms approximately what percent of the total number of people using all the three mobile serives in that year? (1) 18 (3) 11 (5) 29 (2) 26 (4) 23 1 3 1 (2) 296 6 (3) 199:!. 6 (5) None of these (4) 299:!. 3 (1) 198 92. If two travel the given distance. the time taken by truck Q on Friday was 8 hours. what was its speed on that day? (1) 42.50 km/h (2) 28.25 km/h (3) 37.75 km/h (4) 32.25 km/h (5) None of these 93. If the speed of truck P on Monday was 19.2 kms/hr. what was the time taken by it to cover the given distance? (1) 10 hours (2) 11 hours (3) 9 hours 30 minutes (4) 12 hours 30 minutes (5) None of the above 88. What is the respective ratio of number of people using mobile service L in the year 2005 to those using the same service in the year 2004 ? (1) 8: 7 (2) 3 : 2 (3) 19: 13 (4) 15 : 11 (5) None of these 94. If on Tuesday truck R and truck T travelled at the same 89. The total number of people using all the three mobile services in the year 2007 is what percent of the total Cannot be determined None of the above 95. What is the total distance travelled by all the trucks together on Saturday? (2) 1632 km (1) 1623 km (3) 1263 km (4) 1362 km (5) None of these number of people using all the three mobile services in the year 2008 ? (rounded off to two digits after decimal) (1) 89.72 (3) 88.18 (5) None of these (2) 93.46 (4) 91.67 speed, what was the respective ratio of time taken by truck R and time taken by truck T to cover their respective distances? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) 154: 159 142: 167 161: 173 Solved Paper March 2010 I 39 Directions (Q.96-100) Study th.e following pie-charts carefully and answer tile questions given below: Disciplinewise Break-up of Number of candidates appeared in Interview and Disciplinewise Break-up and Number of candidates selected by an organization Disciplinewise Break-up of Number of candidates appeared by the organization Total Number of Candidates Appeared in the Interview 25780 Percentage = Others Commerce 12 18 96. Approximately what was the difference between he number of candidates selected from Agriculture discipline and number of candidates selected from Engineering discipline? (1) 517 (3) 346 (5) 296 (2) 665 (4) 813 97. For which discipline was the difference in number of candidates selected to number of candidates appeared in interview the maximum? (1) Management (2) Engineering (3] Science (4) Agriculture (5] :.\ione of the above 98. The total number of candidates appeared in interview from Management and other discipline was what percentage of number of candidates appeared from Engineering discipline? (1) 50 (2) 150 (3) 200 Disciplinewise Break up of Number of candidates selected after Interview by the organization Total Number of Candidates Selected after the Interview 7390 Percentage = Others Commerce 14 16 (4) Cannot be determined (5) :.\ione of the above 99. Approximately what was the total number of candidates selected from Commerce and Agricultural discipline together? (1) 1700 (3) 2217 (5) 1550 (2) 1800 (4) 1996 100. What was the ratio between the number of candidates appeared in interview from other diScipline and number of candidates selected from Engineering discipline respectively (rounded off to the nearest integer) ? (1) 3609: 813 (2) 3094: 813 (3) 3094 : 1035 (4) 4125 : 1035 (5) 3981 : 767 Section 3 General Awareness / Marketing / Computers 101. Which of the following countries has decided that from Odober 2018 no cheques should be issued or honoured there. and all the payments should be made and accepted in electronic from only? (1) USA (2) Russia (3) United Kingdom (4) Australia (5) :.\ione of these 102. As per news reports the Indian Economy is poised to hit high growth once again. It is estimated that the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) may be somewhere iIi the range of 6.25% -7.75% in the current fiscaL But at the same time the economy has to face certain challenges also. What could these challenges be ? (A) Maintaining balance between price stability and exchange rate (B) Capital flow may not be adequate as many Flls are still not comfortable with Indian markets. (C) Industrial sector is still under pressure and not showing much improvement. (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) All A, Band C (5) None of the above 40 I SBI Associates' PO Exam 103. As reported in various newspapers the Reserve Bank India is planning to allow more and more banks to function as "Local Area Banks". This will help RBI in the implementation of which of the following of its plans/drives? (AJ Financial inclusion (Bl Rural Banking (C) Mobile and (1) Only A (2) OnlyB (3) Only C (4) Only A and B (5) None ofthese 104. As per the findings of the expert group headed by Dr. Suresh Tendulkar a substantial number of people in India still live Below Poverty Line. What is that number in terms of percentage? (1) 250/0 (2) 370/0 (3) 410/0 (4) 470/0 (5) None of these 105. As decided by the Reserve Bank of India, all the villages with a population of 2000 will have access to financial services by the end of (1) 2009-10 (2) 2010-11 (3) 2011-12 (4) 2012-13 (5) None of these of the World Bank, which of the 106. As per the following recent in rural areas, has doubled the income of rural households, raised literacy rate by 100/0 and appreciated land prices upto 800/0 ? (1) Relief to the farmers (2) Construction of all weather roads (3) of water bodies (4) (5) 107. As per recent reports many countries are planning to introduce "Tobin Tax", the idea of which was given by a Nobel prize winner economist James Tobin in 1978. Tobin Tax, if implemented will be levied on which of the following? (1) On the interest income of corporates earned through major investments (2) All cash transactions (3) Services availed specifically by an elite group of people (4) Foreign Exchange Transactions (5) None of the above 108. In commodity in India, Index Futures are not permitted, as some of the provisions of the FCRA do not allow the same. What is the full form of FCRA ? (1) Foreign Commodities Regulation Act (2) Fon-vard Commodities Repurchasing Act (3) Forward Contracts Act (4) Financial Contracts Reformation Act (5) None of the above 109. What is the full form of the term 'NPA' as used in banking environment? (1) Not profitable Assets (2) New Potential Accounts (3) Non Performing Assets (4) Net Performing Assets (5) None of the above 110. Which of the following terms/names is not associated with banking/financial trade in India? (1) Automated Clearing House (2) Provision Coverage Ratio (3) Market Stabilisation Scheme (4) Credit Default Swaps (5) Double Fault 111. Which of the following is not one of the Monitorable Targets of the 11th Five Year Plan (2007-12) ? (1) To increase the average GDP growth rate (2) To increasing the literacy rate (3) To increase energy tllLlLitH1L (4) To improve sex ratio (5) To minimise the effect of global warming 112. Which of the following initiatives is/are taken by the Govt. of India to boost the development of agriculture? (A) Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme (E) Fertiliser Subsidy Scheme (C) Public Distribution System (PDS) (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) Only A and B (5) All A, Band C 113. The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act is now known by which of the following names? (1) Indira Gandhi Rural Employment Guarantee Act (2) Rajiv Gandhi Rural Guarantee Act (3) Jawaharlal Nehru Rural Employment Guarantee Act (4) Mahatma Gandhi Rural Guarantee Act (5) None of the above 114. Which of the following is/are the objective(s) of the new industrial policy of the Govt. of India? (A) To transform India into a major and player in the global trade (Bl To maintain a sustained growth in productivity (C) To become the exporter of horticultural products in South East Asia (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only A and B (4) Only Band C (5) All A, Band C 115. During his visit to Trinidad in November 2009, the Indian Prime Minister signed a Nuclear deal between India and (1) Canada (2) Brazil (3) Saudi Arabia (4) Tanzania (5) None of these 116. Which of the following is/are true ahout the Indo-US Economic and Financial deal made in November 2009 ? (A) The objective of the deal is to bilateral engagements and understanding. (B) Work jointly on some financial and infrastructure related projects. (C) The deal was signed the visit of the foreign Ministers of both the countries to South Africa for Global Economic Summit 2009. (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only A and B (4) Only i\ and C (5) None of these Solved Pa per March 2010 I 41 117. Which of the following Gulf countries has decided recently that despite the objections raised by certain countries, it will construct 10 more Uranium enrichment plants to strengthen its position in the world? (1) Iraq (2) Iran (3) UAE (4) Kuwait (5) ~one of these 118. The leaders of the European Union (EU) named .Mr. Herman Van Rompuy as the first President of the E.U Mr. Rompuy is the present (1) Prime Minister of Britain (2) President of Ukrain (3) Prime Minister of Russia (4) President of Italy (5) Prime Minister of Belgium 119. The Chief Executive Officers (CEOs) of the APEC held an important summit in Singapore in November 2009. What is the full form of APEC ? (1) Asia Pacific Economic Co-operation (2) Afro-Pacific Economic Council (3) Asia Pacific Economic Council (4) Alliance for Promotion of Economic Cooperation (5) None ofthe above 120. Which of the following countries has signed a deal to supply a fleet of 150 J-lO Fighter Jets to Pakistan? (1) France (2) Canada (3) Russia (4) USA (5) China 121. Cryogenic Engines are used in which of the following areas of technology ? (1) Atomic Energy (2) Food Technology (3) Oceanography (4) Space Research (5) ~one of these 122. Which of the following countries was the winner of the Asia Cup Hockey Tournament for women held in November 2009 ? (1) India (2) Japan (3) China (4) South Korea (5) None of these 123. Who amongst the following is the author of the book 'The Rediscovery of India' ? (2) Romila Thapar (1) Meghnad Desai (3) Mulk Raj Anand (4) Amit Chaudhary (5) None of the above 124. Some banks w hich were not able to meet their priority sector lending targets are now allowed to do so by purchasing Priority Sector Lending Certificates (PSLC). Which of the following agencies/organizations is/are authorized to issue these certificates? [A) Micro finance Institutions (Bl Non Banking Finance Companies (C) NABARD (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only A and B (4) All A, Band C (5) ~one of these 125. Which of the following books in written by V.S. Naipaul ? (1) The Last Hero (2) Bliss was in that Dawn (3) Train of Pakistan (4) A Tale of Two Cities (5) A House for Mr. Biswas 126. Which of the following converts all the statements in a program in a single batch and the resulting collection of instructions is placed in a new file ? (1) compiler (2) interpreter (3) converter (4) instruction (5) None of these 127. Digital photos and scanned images are typically stored as ...... graphics with extensions such as .bmp, .png, .jpg, .tif, or .gif. (1) vector (2) bitmap (3) either vector or bitmap (4) neither vector nor bitmap (5) None of the above 128. Which of the following contains information about a single "entity" in the database-like a person, place, event, or thing? (1) query (2) form (3) record (4) table (5) None of these 129. When you install a new programme on your computer, it is typically added to the ..... , menu. (1) all programmes (2) select programmes (3) start programmes (4) desktop programmes (5) None of these 130. After a user has saved and deleted many files, many scattered areas of stored data remain that are too small to be used efficiently. causing ...... . (1) disorder (2) turmoil (3) disarray (4) fragmentation (5) None of these 131. Which of the following is the communications protocol that sets the standard used by every computer that accesses Web-based information? (1) XML (2) DML (3) HTTP (4) HTML (5) None of these 132. A ......... is a computer attached to the Internet that runs a special Web server software and can send Web pages out to other computers over the Internet (1) web client (2) web system (3) web page (4) web server (5) None of these 133. ......... are a type of inexpensive digital camera that remains tethered to a computer and used for videoconferencing, video chatting, and live Web broadcast. (1) Webcams (2) Webpics (3) Browsercams (4) Browserpics (5) None of these 134. Which one of the following is a key function of a firewall ? (1) Monitoring (2) Deleting (3) Copying (4) Moving (5) None of these 135. The standard protocol of the Internet is ..... , .... (1) TCP!IP (2) Java (3) HTML (4) Flash (5) ~one of these 42 i SBI Associates' PO Exam 136. A programme that generally has more user-friendly interface than a DBMS is called a ......... . (1) front end (2) repository (3) back end (4) form (5) None of these 137. The acronym HTML stands for ......... . (1) High Transfer Machine Language (2) High Transmission Markup Language (3) Hypertext Markup Language (4) Hypermedia Markup Language (5) None of the above 138. Computers connected to a LAN can ......... . (1) run faster (2) share information and/or share peripheral equipment (3) e-mail (4) go online (5) None of the above 139. The sole aim of marketing is to ....... . (1) Increase sales (2) Increase the number of employees (3) Increase profits (4) Increase productions (5) All of the above 140. Aggressive Marketing is necessitated due to ......... . (1) globalisation (2) increased competition (3) increased production (4) increased job opportunities (5) All of the above 141. Efficient marketing style requires ......... . (1) proper planning (2) good communication skills (3) team work (4) knowledge of products (5) All of the above 142. Modern styles of marketing include ......... . (1) digital marketing (2) tele-marketing (3) e-commerce (4) e-mails solicitation (5) All of these 143. A 'call' means ......... . (1) shout out to somebody (2) a profession or business (3) visit friends (4) visiting prospective customers (5) after-sales service 144. Lead generation means ......... . (1) tips for selling tactics (2) tips for better production (3) generate leaders (4) likely source for prospective clients (5) All of the above 145. Conversion means ......... . (1) meeting a prospective client (2) interacting with a prospective client (3) converting an employer into an employee (4) converting a seller to a buyer (5) converting a prospective client into a buyer 146. The performance of sales person depends on ......... . (1) salary paid (2) sales incentives paid (3) size of the sales team (4) ability and willingness of the sales person (5) team leader's aggressiveness 147. Market Research is useful for ......... . (1) deciding proper marketing strategies (2) deciding the selling price (3) choosing the right products (4) choosing the sales persons (5) All ofthe above 148. Value added services means ......... . (1) costlier products (2) larger number of products (3) additional services (4) at par services (5) None of these 149. Customisation means ......... . (1) acquiring more customers (2) regulating customers (3) special products to suit each customer (4) more products per customer (5) All of the above 150. e-Marketing is same as ......... . (1) virtual marketing (2) digital marketing (3) real time marketing (4) All of these (5) None of the above Section 4 English Language Directions (Q. 151-165) Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words / phrases have been printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions. Passage-I Despite the economic crunch worldwide that saw pulverization of some of the largest banking and finance giants, Indian banking houses have managed to show positive growth this quarter. Some of India's leading national banks have posted a net profit rise of more than 400/0 over the last quarter amid global turmoil. This would come as a big shot in the arm for the investors and consumers of these banks even though apprehension is mounting on other banking and broking firms worldwide. One of the main reasons behind the success of these banks this quarter, would be their direct backing by the Government of India. People take solace in their investments in public sector watching the bailout packages being cashed out by governments all over the world to save big business houses. Solved Paper March 2010 i 43 151. 152. 153. 154. Other private banks in India have also reported a substantial net profit over the last quarter. Given the international and domestic scenario one cannot put tlus down as a mundane achievement. While others are on a cost cutting spree and firing employees, Indian Companies are actually working on boosting staffing in banking and broking sectors. This can be seen as a big boon in the days to come when the current recession eases and the economy gradually comes back on to the fast track. The finance minister has assured Indian public about the sound health of all Indian banks. This could also be evident from the fact that there have been no mergers and takeovers in Indian Banking sector in a contrast to world scenario where finance houses are looking for mergers to cut costs on operations. We definitely are not looking to thrive; rather we are looking for grm,vth. It is just that the pace of growth is a little slow now as compared to a year or two before. These are hard times to test the hard. The weak in business and career will be weeded out and it is sometimes very beneficial for business on the long run. What according to the author, is the reason for the success of Indian National banks in this quarter? (1) Indian National banks do not have any commitments in troubled foreign markets (2) These banks can never face financial crisis because of their sheer size (3) These banks are ready to give loans at a very low rate of interest The public is ready to invest in these banks because of the knowledge that these banks get strong support from the Government (5) None of the above Which of the following statements is definitely true in the context of the passage? (A) India has not been affected by the economic slowdown. (B) Indian Banks are showing growth in this quarter despite the recession. (C) While banking industry in the West was severely affected by recession in the past, it is now gradually recovering and showing a positive growth. (1) Only A Only B (3) Only C (4) Only A and B (5) Only Band C What, according to the author, will be a big boon in the days to come? (1) The economy coming back on the fast track (2) The slowing down of the economy (3) Increased hiring in Indian financial sector in times of economic slowdown (4) The cost cutting carried out by all the companies (5) None of the above Which of the following strengthens the finance minister's statement about the sound health of Indian Banks with respect to the passage? (A) There have been no acquisitions and mergers of Indian Banks. (B) The Indian Banks are recording a positive growth. have been observed worldwide. (2) Only A and C (3) Only A Only B A11A, Band C (C) (1 i A and B 155. How according to the author, is tbe current recession beneficial ? (1) Worldwide, companies have realized that India is a strong power to reckon with (2) India is surging ahead of the other companies throughout the world (3) After the recession is over internati.onal companies ~ill turn to India for investment (4) Rec8ssion is bringing dovvn the prices of essential commodities (5) None of the above 156. What does the phrase 'shut in the arm' as used in the passage mean ? (1) Shock (2) Fear (3) Encouragement (4) Anxiety (5) None of the above Directions (Q. 157-158) Choose ihe which is most similar in meaning to the words printed in bold as used the passage. of 157. PULVERIZATION (1) polarisation (3) debasement (5) crushing (4) fall 158. TURMOIL (1) danger (3) sadness (5) chaos shock (4) fear Directions (Q. 159-160) Choose the WOClrm'Ur(,Hr which is m08t oppo8ile in meaning to the words printed in bold as used in the passage. 159. MUNDANE (1) extraordinary severe (5) routine (2) regular (4 1 \'lsionary 160. THRIVE sncceed (3) worry (5) strive r2) deteriorate (4) tremble Passage-II Modern bio-technology. especially the creation of genetically modified crops, is often presented as solution or nniversal panacea for the problen:s of p0verty, inadequate nutrition and even environmental degradation who across the world. Conversely, there are present the picture of tech generated monsters and major human health hazards created by sciencE'. Many of the technological changes currently in the process of being utilised in agriculture can have unforeseen consequences. and their safety and future viability are far from secure. The reality. as always, is far more complflx tmm either of these two extremes. Even today the total food production in the world is adequate to feed the hungrv of the world; 44 SBI Associates' PO Exam the problem is rather one of unequal distribution, which deprives a large part of the population of even their minimal nutritional fI'lqniremenls. Similarly, farmers, especially in countries, face many problems such as Jack of infrastructure, poor or unstable market access, volatile input aud output prices etc, that does not address, much less solve. It is true that transgenic can offer a range of benefits which are above and those which emerged from more traditional innovations in cultivation. It is suggested that such new technology offers more effective pest resistance of seeds and crops through genetic control mechanisms, which also reduces the need for pesticide use and leads to improved yield. A basic question, of course, is whether the new GM technology is and whether this is crucial since the effects may only be known much later. The jury is still very much out on this matter. and the controversy does not appear to be resolved quickly. The trouble is that most governments in developing countries have relatively low food and regulatory standards, and public systems for monitoring and surveillance of such items are poor or non-existent. This leaves them open for entry and even dumping of a range of agricultural products of the new technology, which may not pass regulatory standards in the more developed cOllntries. 161. Which of the following is true in context of the passage? (1) Genetically modified crops have been universally and recognized as a solution to environmental degradation (2) The way to improve the deficit in food requirement and food production in the world is by adapting genetically modified crops (3) Genetically modified crops produce more yield as compared to yield from the traditional methods (4) Taking of absence of regulatory standards, scientists have been dumping new products in the markets without appropriate approval (5) None is true 162. Why according to the author, is genetic modification of in the crops not an answer to the problem of world? (A) People being highly doubtful of the term effects of genetically modified crops, do not buy the products grown by such methods. (Bl The problem of in the world is not due to inadequate production of food but due to unequal distribution of il. (C) Many developing countries have banned genetically modified products as developed countries have been those countries as dumping grounds for new genetical! y modified products. (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Both Band C (4) Both 1\ and C (5) None of the above 163. The author of the given passage seems to be definitely (1) the use of traditional methods of agriculture as against bio-technology by developing countries owing to their poor regulatory standards (2) in favour of bio-technology as a tool for alleviation of poverty from the world (3) urging the policy makers to improve infrastructural facilities so that farmers can maximize the benefits of genetically modified crops (4) unconvinced of the term effects and rationale for immediate requirement of genetically modified products (5) None of the above 164. Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in to VOLATILE printed in bold as used in the passage. (1) Never-ending (2) Meagre (3) Valuable [4) Irreversible (5) Stable 165. Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to OPE:-.J printed in bold as used in the passage. (1) Vulnerable Capable (3) Threatened (4) Uncertain (5) Weak Directions (Q. 166-170) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for Rach blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. 166. The National Knowledge Commission has said that India will have to ............ in education if it has to emerge as the most ............ workforce of the world. (1) changes, biggest reforms, talented alleviation. skilful (4) quality, brighter (5) outcomes, demanded 167. Norvvav has stoleu a march over other developed countries bv .... ...... that it would reduce 40% of its greenhouse 'gas emissions by 2020 and ............ carbon neutral by 2030. (1) allowing, turn (2) posing, grew (3) exist (4) perceiving, arising (5) declaring, become 168. A controversial plan to build an immense dam in Brazil's rainforest was stalled when it ............ a formidable bloc of ............ in ecologists and indigenous tribes alike. (1) resulted, hostilities (2) supporters attracted, opponents (4) lead. protesters (5) drew, proponents Solved Paper March 2010 45 169. According to a recent survey, sales figures of high end cars have seen an ............ grm'\Tth in the past year, which shows that Indian consumers have ............ the impact of recession. (1) unprecedented, negated (2) unbelievable, suffered (3) unusual, worsened (4) insignificant, endured (5) adequate, proven 170. According to the language experts, children should begin talking in their mother tongue rather than a foreign language which can ............ affect their comprehension abilities leading to silrious language based ............ later in their lives. (1) significantly, abilities (2) appropriately, achievements (3) severely, advantages (4) adversely, problems (5) positively, issues Directions (Q. 171-175) In each of the following questions four words are given of which two words are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning. Find the two words which are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate the number of the correct letter combination, by darkening the appropriate oval in your answer sheet. 171. (A) appalling (C) perturbed (1) A-B (3) A-C (B) sinister (D) threatening (2) B-D (4) A-D (5) D-C 172. (A) imprison (C) excruciate (1) B-D (3) A-B (5) A-C 173. (A) superficial (C) enlightened (1) A-C (3) B-C (B) torture (D) extract (2) B-C (4) CoD (B) superfluous (D) surplus (2) A B (4) B-D (5) A-D 174. (A) pertinent (C) irrelevant (1) A-C (3) CoD (5) B-C 175. (AJ instigate (C) construe (1) A-C (3) CoD (5) A-D (B) impolite [D) insecure (2) B-D (4) A-D (B) enquire (DJ interpret (2) A-B (4) B-D Directions (Q.176-180) Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) to make a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions which follow; [AJ According to it, organized retail stores are not wolves at the doors of friendly neighbourhood grocery stores as there is room for expansion of both. Many have been crying foul over the entry of organized retail stores expressing concern over their impact on small store ovvners. (C) The final winner in the competition, however, is the common man who gets to choose between the most suitable options and in turn fights with the runaway inflation in prices of essential commodities. (D) In spite of this potential for expansion. it is doubtless that the small store owners face a decline in profit in initial years if organized retailers set up stores in the vicinity. (EJ But a study conducted over a period of two years goes a long way towards allaying these fears. (F) This impact, however, wears off once they learn to take on the competition which in tu:n enhances efficiency all around. 176. Which of the following sentence should be the FIRST after rearrangement? (1) A (3) C (5) E (2) B (4) D 177. Which of the following sentence should be the SECOND after rearrangement? (1) A (3) C (5) F (2) B (4) E 178. Which of the following sentence should be the THIRD after rearrangement? (1) A (3) D (2) E (4) F (5) C 179. Which of the following sentence should be the FIFTH after rearrangement? (1) D (3) C (5) F (2) B [4) E 180. Which of the following sentence should be the SIXTH (LAST) after rearrangement ? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) E (5) F Directions (Q.181-190) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which best fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case. Economic grm'\Tth figures for the first quarter of this financial year seem to support the claim that the worst may be over for the Indian economy. The gradual revival is also an indication that the government's economic stimulus package is (181). What could, however, upset the positive outlook is the drought which (182) large parts of the country and its impact on overall growth. Even though the monsoon had picked up [183), the rains received were 46 SBI Associates' PO Exam grossly (181). There are clear (185) that farm output, particularly cereals. will fall drastically. Insufficient rain is bound to shoot up the (186) of agricultural commodities and that would impact the economy as a whole. The drought would also (187) a drastic reduction in rural employment and consumption besides inflation in the prices of food articles. the chemical inputs in agriculture improved the yield many folds (3) Owing to the uninhibited use of chemical inputs in agriculture (4) Awareness among farmers regarding the side effects of chemical farming grew when (5) None of the above Food prices have been (188) since the past few months, and lower agricultural production is likely to (189) the situation. The government has said that food grain from the buffer stocks will be used to keep prices (190). Subsidised food grain is necessary in these times, but its effectiveness will depend a lot on the distribution system. 192. Although information technology has entered the homes. 181. [1) failing weakening (5) ambiguous [3) 182. (1) exposed (3) altered (2) working (4) impractical (2) reverted (4) strike (5) affected 183. (1) presently (3) later (3) atrocious (2) meagerly (4) unseasonably (2) ample inadequate (4) (5) enough 185. (1) reasons (3) indications (2) results (4) contradictions (5) advices 186. (1) prices labour [51 requirement (31 187. [1) result (3) dampen (2) yield (4) production (2) contribute (4) trigger 189. (1) smoothen (2) (3) challenge (4) improve aggravate r~' l~) lead 188. (1) stable (2) increasing (3) decreasing (4) improving (5) balanced (5) amend 190. (1) maximum (3) down offices and hearts of many citizens of India ............. . (1) India provides the highest number of IT experts to the world every year (2) Many people in rural areas still remain ignorant of its immense benefits (3) government has done its best hy funding research in this field appropriately (4) the face of communication in the years to come would change completely from the bygone years (5) None of the above 193. While the environment friendly-Nuclear energy could (5) unfavourably 184. (11 missing (2) As (2) growing (4) unprofitable (5) futile Directions (Q. 191-195) Which of the phrases (1). (2). (3) and (4) given below each statement should be placed in the blank space provided so as to make a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence? If none of the sentences is appropriate. mark (5) as the answer. 191 . ............. the soil today is nowhere as rich in native minerals as it used to be some centuries ago. (1) As there is a growing consent among farmers regarding limiting the use of chemical fertilizers make a large addition to the energy resources, .......... . (1) experts have a lot of expectations from this cleaner method of producing energy (2) the government is determined to extract maximum out of this technology in the near future (3) international lobby has been pressurizing the developing nations to shift their energy production from coal to nuclear power (4) the problem of locating adequate numbers of Uranium reserves to run the reactors is yet to be sorted out (5) None of the above 194 . ............ , experts proposed the idea of a common school system. (1) Overlooking the fundamental right of quality education of every child in India (2) Since the curricular requirements of a rural child is different from an urban child (3) Based on the fact that difference in the quality of schools acts as a ground for discrimination (4) Since a large percentage ofIndian children are getting free education (5) None, of the above 195. As allegations of crores of rupees changing hands to permit illegal mining began to fly thick and fast, ............ . (1) government ordered an enquiry which exposed a nexus between mine operators and bureaucrats (2) it caused great damage to the surrounding ecosystem and the environment in general (3) the officials have been irresponsible in failing to bring it to the notice of the court in time (4) the powerful mining lobby had bribed the officials to obtain permit for mining on ecologically sensitive land (5) None of the above Solved Paper March 2010 47 Directions (Q. 196-200) In each the given sentences seleel the sentence which would follow or precede the senience in grammatically and conceptually at the end of appropriate manner. The instruction is every statement. 196. Unfortunately, however, these slurrL dwellers are looked upon by the society as an appendix causing ills in the urban society. Which of the following sentences would immediately precede the above sentence? (1) Health officials have been warning the government against the transmission of contagious diseases from the slum areas to other parts of the city (2) Slum dwellers not only playa significant role in urban economy but also provide cheap labour for everyday work of the cities (3) A recent report suggested that 34 percent of government land is illegally occupied by the slum dwellers (4) The slum dwellers live in sub human, unhygienic conditions in their tiny shanties and are very often hubs for criminal activities (5) None of the above 197. However, since the beginning of the nineties, free market forces have been allowed to play for ensuring all round development in Indian Markets as well. Which of the following sentences would immediately precede the above sentence? (1) Entry of various market forces increased the competition faced by the indigenous organizations manifold (2) The severe shortage of newest technology and products in the late 19808 ended with the entry of foreign players in the Indian market (3) A major roadblock faced by the foreign investors was the poor infrastructural facilities which was however overtaken by the prospects seen in the huge market (4) India had been following a very selective and conservative economic policy during the late 1980s None of the above 198. The foreign embassy has put forward a demand to the government that prosecution may be carried out on a foreign land and not in the country to which the terrorists belong. Which of the following sentences would immediately follow the above sentence? (1) Army arrested the terrorists responsible for kidnapping four foreign tourists after a operation (2) The foreign ministry has offered all possible to the government for hunting down the terrorists involved in it. (3) Government has politely declined the rquest to handover the arrested terrorists for prosecution outside the country The arrested terrorists were sentenced to life imprisonment after being prosecuted by a panel of international judges (5J None of the above 199. This is because most of the institutes for learning lack the basic infrastructure, trained staff and equipment necessary for the physically challenged. Which of the following sentences would immediately precede the above sentence? (1) Many physically challenged people have been performing as well as other students perform in their studies (2) The percent of illiterate, physically challenged people in rural areas is considerably more than that in the urban areas (3) According to a recent survey, only two out of nearly 200 universities in India have adequate number of books in Braille (4) Although government has been making many provisions to improve higher education in India, no attention has been paid to the education of the physically challenged students (5) None of the above 200. That was mainly because only two percent of the total farmers could actually comprehend the lengthy procedures to obtain the loan and be benefited from it. Which of the following sentences would immediately precede the above sentence? (1) Many moneylenders have been making the most out of this situation and providing loans to the rest of the farmers at inflated prices (2) There is thus an urgent need to make the schemes and policy as simple and farmer friendly as possible (3) A new loan scheme started by the government a couple of months ago proved to be a huge failure and utterly unpopular among the farmers (4) This situation can be improved by providing mediators to carry out and follow-up of the lengthy official procedure for the farmers (5) None of the above

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