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ICSE Notes 2018 : Physics Must Know Questions

15 pages, 285 questions, 256 questions with responses, 445 total responses,    17    0
Aayush Patel
St. John's Universal School, Mumbai
X Science & Maths
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MUST KNOW QUESTIONS FOR PHYSICS 2017-2018 Force Q1. Define moment of force and state its S.I. unit. Q2. State two factors affecting the turning effect of a force. Q3. Why is it easier to open a door by applying the force at the free end of it? Q4. State two conditions for a body, acted upon by several forces, to be in equilibrium. Q5. A uniform meter rule can be balanced at the 70 cm mark when a mass 0.05 kg is hung from the 94 cm mark. (i) Draw a diagram of the arrangement. (ii) Find the mass of the meter rule. Q6. Define the term centre of gravity of a body. Q7. At which point is the centre of gravity situated in: (i) a triangular lamina (ii) a circular lamina (iii) hollow cone (iv) solid or hollow sphere Q8. Differentiate between a uniform linear motion and uniform circular. Q9. Differentiate between centripetal and centrifugal force. Q10. State two conditions for a body to be in equilibrium. Work, Energy and Power Q1. State the condition when the work done by a force is (a) positive (b) negative. Explain with the help of examples. Q2. A satellite revolves around the earth in a circular orbit. What is the work done by the satellite? Give reason. Q3. What are the S.I. and C.G.S. units of work? How are they related? Explain. Q4. Define the term energy and state its S.I. unit. Q5. Define one kilowatt hour. How is it related to joule? Q6. Differentiate between energy and power. __________________________________________________________________________________ Std: X Physics Must Know Questions Page 1 of 15 Q7. A machine raises a load of 750 N through a height of 16 m in 5 s. Calculate: (i) the energy spent by the machine. (ii) the power of the machine if it is 100% efficient. Q8. A pump is used to lift 500 kg of water from a depth of 80 m in 10 s. Calculate: (i) the work done by the pump. (ii) the power at which the pump works (iii) the power rating of the pump if its efficiency is 40 %. Q9. State the different forms of kinetic energy. Q10. State the energy conversion in the following cases: (i) loudspeaker when in use (ii) While charging a battery (iii) Photoelectric cell (iv) Burning of wood, coal, etc. (v) When water falls from a height. Q11. A ball of mass 10 g falls from a height of 5 m. It rebounds from the ground to a height of 4 m. Find: (i) the initial potential energy of the ball. (ii) the kinetic energy of the ball just before striking the ground. (iii) the kinetic energy of the ball after striking the ground. (iv) the loss in kinetic energy of the ball on striking the ground. Q12. A body of mass 60 kg has momentum 3000 kg ms-1. Calculate: (i) the kinetic energy (ii) the speed of the body. Machines 1. Give the relationship between efficiency, M.A. and V.R. Why is efficiency of a machine never 100%? 2. Explain why scissors used for cutting cloth have blades longer than the handles but shears for cutting metals have short blades and long handles. 3. State the types of levers and give the relative position of effort (E), load (L) and fulcrum (F). 4. Give the examples of the three types of levers as found in the human body with the position of E, L and F. __________________________________________________________________________________ Std: X Physics Must Know Questions Page 2 of 15 5. Compare the M.A. for a single fixed pulley and single movable pulley. 6. You are provided with three tackles (strings) and four pulleys. Draw a diagram to show this arrangement and give the M.A. and V.R. for this arrangement. 7. A block and tackle system having five pulleys are provided. Draw a diagram for the same and calculate the M.A. and effort required to raise a load of 150 N if efficiency of the machine is 80%. 8. Draw a simple diagram of a nut cracker and mark on it the fulcrum, points of application of load and effort. (a) Name the type of lever. (b) If load arm is 5 cm and effort arm is 15 cm, calculate the M.A. 9. A lever of length 60 cm has its load arm 20 cm long and effort arm 60 cm long. (a) To which type does this lever belong? (b) Draw a diagram to represent it. (c) Calculate the effort required to lift a load of 45 kgf. 10. A block and tackle system has 5 pulleys. If an effort of 1500 N is added in the downward direction to raise a load of 6750 N. calculate: (a) M.A. (b) V.R. (c) efficiency of the system. Refraction of light at Plane Surface 1. Explain why refractive index of a medium is always greater than 1. 2. State the laws of refraction. 3. What does the following statement mean, the refractive index of water is 2.25. 4. Explain the term lateral displacement of light . Give the factors on which lateral displacement depends. 5. Draw a ray diagram of an object placed in front of a thick mirror. 6. State the factors affecting angle of deviation. Give the conditions when light undergoes minimum deviation. 7. Draw diagram to apparent depth when (i) an object is kept in denser medium and viewed from a rarer medium. (ii) an object is kept in rarer medium and viewed from a denser medium. 8. Diagram of stick placed obliquely in water. __________________________________________________________________________________ Std: X Physics Must Know Questions Page 3 of 15 9. Define: (i) critical angle (ii) total internal reflection. 10. Difference between total internal reflection and reflection from a plane mirror. 11. Complete the ray diagram of light through a prism: Refraction through a lens Q1. Write two differences each between: (a) Convex lens and concave lens (b) Real and virtual image Q2. State two applications of convex and concave lenses. Q3. What will be the effect on the focal length of a lens if part of the lens is covered? What will be its effect on the intensity of the image formed? Q4. State the position of the object to obtain: (a) upright enlarged image (b) real, inverted and highly diminished image. (c) real, inverted and same size as object (d) virtual, diminished image. Draw ray diagrams to support your answers stated above. Q5. How is the power of a lens related to its focal length? How does the sign (+) or (-) of power of a lens determine its divergent or convergent action? How does the power of a lens change if its focal length is doubled? __________________________________________________________________________________ Std: X Physics Must Know Questions Page 4 of 15 Q6. Draw a ray diagram to show how a lens can be used to correct hypermetropia. Q7. A candle of 2 cm height is placed at a distance of 15 cm in front of a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. Draw a sketch to find the position and size of the image. Q8. An illuminated slit is kept at a distance 40 cm in front of the convex of focal length 15 cm. With the help of a ray diagram, find the position of the screen to obtain the image. Q9. Express the power of a concave lens of focal length 25 cm with its sign. Q10. The focal length of a convex lens is 20 cm. Express its power with sign. Spectrum Q1. A prism causes dispersion of white light while a rectangular glass block does not. Explain. Q2. The wavelength of red colour is 7 x 10-7 m and that of blue light is 4 x 10-7 m. Will the speed of both colours be the same in (i) vacuum (ii) glass? Q3. Explain the following with scientific reasons: (a) Infrared radiations are used for photography in fog. (b) Ultraviolet bulbs have a quartz envelope. (c) Sky appears black in the absence of atmosphere. (d) Clouds are seen white. Q4. A wave has wavelength of 0.01 . Calculate its frequency. Q5. An electromagnetic wave has a frequency of 500 MHz. Calculate its velocity. Q6. What is the effect of the size of air molecules in the scattering of light? Q7. Name the radiation which is: (a) used to study structure of atomic arrangement in crystals. (b) used in industry to check welding. (c) identified by its chemical activity on dyes. (d) obtained using rock-salt prism. (e) used in radar communication. Q8. Give one use of each of: (a) microwaves (b) gamma rays (c) ultraviolet radiations (d) infrared radiations Q9. Name two properties of ultraviolet radiations which are common to visible light and which different from visible light. __________________________________________________________________________________ Std: X Physics Must Know Questions Page 5 of 15 Q10. Name four regions of electromagnetic spectrum in the increasing order of wavelength. Sound Q1. State the differences between sound and light waves. Q2. A wave travelling with a speed 24 m s-1 and its wavelength is 10 cm. Find the frequency and the time period. Q3. A RADAR sends a signal to a plane at a distance of 4.5 x 102 m away with the speed of light. After how much time is the signal received. Q4. A man standing in front of a cliff at a distance of 100 m produces 2 claps per second and he notices, the sound of claps coincides with echo. The echo is heard only when clapping is stopped. Calculate the speed of sound. Q5. Distinguish between free, forced and damped vibrations. Q6. A rattling sound is produced in the engine of a vehicle, in the starting position. Explain. Q7. State and explain the factors on which the frequency of a stretched string depends. Q8. Why are ultrasonic waves used in sound ranging? Q9. What is noise pollution? Name any two sources that cause it. Q10.The ratio of amplitudes of two waves is 3:4. Find the ratio of their: (i) loudness (ii) pitch. Q11. Name the following: (i) Subjective quantity of intensity. (ii) Objective quantity of quality. (iii) Two medical uses of SONAR. (iv) How will you differentiate between two sounds having the same pitch and emitted by 2 similar instruments? Q12. With the help of a diagram, compare two sounds having same loudness and frequency, but produced by two different musical instruments. Q13. State the differences between music and sound on the basis of their: (i) sound level (ii) waveform (iii) effect on ears. Current Electicity Q1. Define resistance and state the factors on which it depends. Q2. Differentiate between electromotive force (e.m.f) of a cell and terminal voltage of a cell. Q3. State the factors that affect the internal resistance of a cell. __________________________________________________________________________________ Std: X Physics Must Know Questions Page 6 of 15 Q4. Derive the equation for the equivalent resistance for two resistors R1 and R2 connected in: (i) series (ii) parallel Q5. State Ohm s Law. Q6. Name the material used for making the wire of: (i) power transmission (ii) a resistor of 4 (iii) microwave oven (iv) a fuse Q7. Solve the following numericals: (i) A wire is stretched to four times its original length. Calculate its resistivity. (ii) A wire of resistance 10 is stretched to thrice its original length. Calculate the new resistance. If this same wire is stretched to reduce its diameter to half of its initial value, what will be its new resistance? (iii) Calculate the effective resistance between the points A and B in the circuit below: A 0.25 1 1 3 B (iv) Calculate the current in 1 0.25 below when the: the circuit (a) key (K) is open (b) key (K) is closed 4V 4 K 2 (v) Find the reading of the ammeter if the supply voltage is 2 V: 2 4 2 4 A A A __________________________________________________________________________________ Std: X Physics Must Know Questions Page 7 of 15 Q8. Derive the relation between 1 kWh and joule. Q9. Explain the meaning of the statement: An electric bulb is rated 60 W-220 V . From this rating calculate the resistance of the bulb and the safe limit of current. Q10. (i) Panash pays the electricity bill. What is the physical quantity for which he pays the bill? (ii) He uses 3 fans each of power 2 kW, 4 tube lights each of power 1 kW, an electric oven which draws 8 A current from the mains, for 10 hours each day in the month of August. If all the appliances work on a 220 V supply, calculate the electricity bill, Panash pays for the month of August @ 5.50/ kWh. Q11. State Joule s law of heating effect . Household Circuits Q1. Draw the block diagram to show the transmission of electricity from power generating station to the consumer. Q2. Explain the advantages of the ring system of household wiring, using a diagram. Q3. Define a fuse. What is the principle on which it is based? State the reason for connecting it in the live wire. Q4. Draw a diagram of dual control switches, showing the bulb in the ON position. Q5. Explain the local earthing of an electric meter of a house. Q6. Name 1, 2 and 3 in the diagram below for an electric socket. Also mention the colour code of the wires used in their connection. 1 2 3 Q7. Name the causes of an electric shock. State any three precautions to be taken to avoid it. Q8. What is a high tension (H.T.) wire? Explain its use. Q9. How an appliance is made safe by earthing it? Q10. A switch should not be touched with wet hands. Explain. __________________________________________________________________________________ Std: X Physics Must Know Questions Page 8 of 15 Electro-magnetism Q1. Name and state the rule used to determine the direction of magnetic field in a straight wire. Q2. State one similarity and one dissimilarity between a current carrying solenoid and a bar magnet. Q3. Distinguish between: (three points) (i) Electromagnet and a permanent magnet. (iii) Direct current and alternating current (ii) AC generator and DC motor (iv) Step-up and step-down transformer Q4. Draw a neat and labelled diagram of: (i) DC motor (ii) AC generator (iii) Step-up transformer Q5. Define: (i) Fleming s Left Hand Rule (iv) Step-down transformer (ii) Electromagnetic Induction Q6. State Faraday s laws of electromagnetic induction. Q7. Name the factors that affect the magnitude of induced e.m.f. in a coil. Q8. In a transformer, what is the advantage of using a closed, laminated core? Q9. State two uses each of a step-up transformer and a step-down transformer. Q10. When a current carrying wire is placed in a magnetic field in a direction perpendicular to its length, it experiences a force acting on it. State the factors on which the magnitude of this force depends. RADIOACTIVITY (Q1) Define the following: (i) Atomic number (ii) Isotones (iii) Radioactive substances (iv) Radioactivity (v) Nuclear waste (vi) Background radiations (vii) Nuclear fusion (Q2) State the factors affecting any two points: (i) Conditions under which the nucleus of an atom becomes radioactive. (ii) Sources of radiations (Q3) Differentiate between the following any two points: (i) Chemical change and Nuclear change. (ii) Radioactive decay and Nuclear fission. (iii) Nuclear fission and Nuclear fusion. (Q4) Name the following: __________________________________________________________________________________ Std: X Physics Must Know Questions Page 9 of 15 (i) Which of the radioactive radiations are deflected by an electric field? (ii) Radiation which have least penetrating power. (iii) Radiation which have most penetrating power. (iv) The value of the speed of gamma radiations in air or vacuum. (v) Radiation which has the highest ionising power. (vi) Radiation consisting of the same kind of particles as the cathode rays. (vii) Radiation which has zero mass. (viii) Radiation which has the lowest ionising power. (ix) The charge of alpha particle. (x) The charge of beta particle. (xi) Name the product of nuclear fission which is utilized to bring about further fission of 235 92 U . (xii) The Einstein s mass-energy equivalence relation. (xiii) 1 a.m.u = ___________. (xiv) Name two isotopes of uranium. (xv) Name the isotope of uranium which is easily fissionable. (xvi) What is the approximate value of the energy released in the fission of one nucleus of 235 92U ? (xvii) The approximate temperature required for nuclear fusion. (xviii) Name the process in which the energy released per unit mass is more. (xix) Name the process which is possible at ordinary temperature. (xx) The name given to elements with same mass number and different atomic number. (Q5) Answer the following: (i) How is the radioactivity of an element affected when it undergoes any physical changes? Give a reason. (ii) Why is radioactivity called to be a nuclear phenomenon? (iii) What will an alpha particle change into when it absorbs? (a) One electron (b) Two electron (iv) Draw the diagram showing the deflection of radioactive radiations in an electric field. (v) What happens inside the nucleus that causes the emission of beta particle? Explain the above change in the form of an equation. (vi) State whether atomic number and mass number are conserved in radioactive beta decay. (vii) Explain why alpha and beta particles are deflected in an electric or a magnetic field, but gamma rays are not deflected in such a field? (viii) Arrange , and rays in ascending order with respect to their: a) Increasing ionising power. b) Increasing penetrating power. c) Increasing biological power. (ix) An element X changes to another element Y with the emission of alpha particle. Write down the equation to show the formation of the daughter product. (x) An element X changes to another element Y with the emission of beta particle. Write down the equation showing changes in the nucleus. (xi) A certain nucleus X has a mass number 14 and atomic number 6. The nucleus X changes to 147 Y after the loss of a particle. a) Name the particle emitted. __________________________________________________________________________________ Std: X Physics Must Know Questions Page 10 of 15 b) Represent this change in the form of an equation. (xii) A nucleus Na1124 emits a beta particle to change into Magnesium (Mg). a) Write the symbolic equation for the process. b) What are numbers 24 and 11 called? 24 24 ? c) What is the general name of Mg12 with respect to Na11 (xiii) An atomic nucleus A is composed of 84 protons and 128 neutrons. a) The nucleus A emits an alpha particle and is transformed into nucleus B. What is the composition of nucleus B? b) The nucleus B emits a beta particle and is transformed into a nucleus C. What is the composition of nucleus C? c) Does the composition of nucleus C change if it emits gamma radiations? (xiv) State three properties which are common to both the beta rays and cathode rays. (xv) How do beta rays differ from cathode rays? (xvi) Mention two common properties of gamma radiations and visible light. (xvii) State two uses of radio-isotopes. (xviii) Mention two harmful effect of radioactivity. (xix) State three biological effects of nuclear radiations. (xx) Give two important precautions that should be taken while handling radioactive materials. (xxi) State two safety measures in establishment of nuclear power plants. (xxii) Mention possible sources of background radiation. (xxiii) State two differences between a chemical change and a nuclear change. (xxiv) State any two medical use of radioactivity. (xxv) State any two scientific use of radioactivity. (xxvi) State any two industrial use of radioactivity. (xxvii) A certain nucleus P has a mass number 15 and atomic number 7. a) Find the number of neutrons. b) Write the symbol for the nucleus P. c) Write the symbol of the new nucleus in each case and express each change by a reaction the nucleus P loses: (i) one proton. (ii) one beta particle. (iii) one alpha particle. (xxviii) How is the chain reaction in nuclear fission controlled? (xxix) State two uses of nuclear fission. (xxx) Why the isotope 235 92U is easily fissionable? (xxxi) In fission of one uranium-235 nucleus, the loss in mass is 0.2 a.m.u. Calculate the energy released. (xxxii) When four hydrogen nuclei combine to form a helium nucleus in the interior of sun, the loss in mass is 0.0265 a.m.u. How much energy is released? (xxxiii) Complete the following nuclear changes: (a) 238 92 P P1 P2 P3 (b) X X1 X2 X3 If mass number and atomic number of X3 are 172 and 69 respectively, what is the mass no and atomic no of X? __________________________________________________________________________________ Std: X Physics Must Know Questions Page 11 of 15 202 84 (c) The nucleus (d) 238 92 U X emits an alpha particle and forms the nucleus Y. Th Pa 222 (e) An element S ZA decays to R85 after emitting 2 particles and 1 particle. Find the atomic number and atomic mass of the element S. (f) Complete the following nuclear fission reactions: (i) 235 92 (ii) 1 0 U n 235 92 56 1 0 U 92 Ba 148 n 3 01n Kr 85 35 La Br 1 0 n energy (g) Complete the following fusion reactions: (i) (ii) 3 2 He 2 1 2 1 2 1 4 2 H H He H 2 1 H 1 He n energy energy (h) Name the following nuclear reactions: (i) (ii) 235 92 U 3 1 H 1 0 n 2 1 H 90 38 Sr 4 2 He 143 54 Xe 3 01n 1 0 n CALORIMETRY (Q1) Define the following: (i) One kilo-calorie of heat (ii) Latent heat (iii) Principle of mixtures (iv) Calorimetry (v) Specific latent heat of fusion of a substance (Q2) Differentiate between the following any two points: (i) Heat capacity and specific heat capacity. (ii) Heat and temperature. (Q3) State the factors affecting: (i) The amount of heat transferred to a body. (ii) Copper is preferred over other metals for making calorimeters. (Q4) Give scientific reasons for the following: (i) Why do the farmers fill their fields with water on a cold winter night? __________________________________________________________________________________ Std: X Physics Must Know Questions Page 12 of 15 (ii) Ice cream appears colder to the mouth than water at 00C. (iii) The surroundings become pleasantly warm when in a lake starts freezing in cold countries. (iv) Water is used in hot water bottles for fomentation. (v) It is difficult to cook vegetables on hills and mountains. (Q5) Answer the following: (i) How is the heat capacity of a body related to the specific heat capacity of its substance? (ii) Specific heat capacity of substance A is 3.8 Jg 1K 1 whereas the specific heat capacity of substance B is 0.4 Jg 1K 1. a) Which of the two is a good conductor of heat? b) How is one led to the above conclusion? c) If substance A and B are liquids then which one would be more useful in car radiators? (iii) What happens to the heat supplied to a substance when the heat supplied causes no change in the temperature of the substance? (iv) What happens to the average kinetic energy of the molecules as ice melts at 00C? (v) When 1 g of ice at O0C melts to form 1 g of water at 00C then, is the latent heat absorbed by the ice or given out by it? (vi) How can you reduce the heat loss due to conduction and convection, in a calorimeter? (vii) The specific heat capacity of water is 4200 Jkg 1K 1. What information does this statement convey? (viii) State the effect of presence of impurity on the melting point of ice. Give one use of it. (ix) A heater of power P watt raises the temperature of m kg of a liquid by Express the specific heat capacity of liquid in terms of above data. T K in terms t s. (x) How is the boiling point of water affected when some salt is added to it? (xi) State the effect of increase of pressure on the melting point of ice and on the boiling point of a liquid. (xii) 1 kg of ice is heated at a constant rate and its temperature is recorded after every 30 second till steam is formed at 1000C. Draw the temperature time graph to represent the change. (xiii) A certain amount of heat Q will warm 1 g of material X by 3oC and 1 g of material Y by 4oC. Which material has a higher specific heat capacity? (xiv) Dose the substance absorbs or liberates any heat energy during the change of phase? (Q6) Solve the following: __________________________________________________________________________________ Std: X Physics Must Know Questions Page 13 of 15 (i) 1300 J of heat energy is supplied to raise the temperature of 0.5 kg of lead from 200C to 400C. Calculate the specific heat capacity of lead. (ii) A piece of iron of mass 2.0 kg has a thermal capacity of 966 J0C 1. a) How much heat is needed to warm it by 150C? b) What is its specific heat capacity in S.I. units? (iii) 200 g of hot water at 800C is added to 300 g of cold water at 100C. Calculate the final temperature of the mixture of water. Consider the heat taken by the container to be negligible. (specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J kg 1 0C 1) (iv) An object of mass 500 g is heated to a temperature of 450C. It is put in 50 g of water at 200C. The final steady temperature of water becomes 250C. Neglecting the heat taken by the container, calculate the specific heat capacity of the metal. (v) 50 g of ice at 00C is added to 300 g of a liquid at 300C. What will be the final temperature of the mixture when all the ice has melted? (Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J g 1 0C 1, specific heat capacity of liquid is 2.65 J g 1 0 1 C , specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 J kg 1) (vi) 40 g of ice at 00C is used to bring down the temperature of a certain mass of water at 600C to 100C. Find the mass of water used. (vii) Calculate the amount of ice which is required to cool 150 g of water contained in a vessel of mass 100 g at 300C, such that the final temperature of the mixture is 50C. (Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J g 1 0C 1, specific heat capacity of material of vessel = 0.4 J g 1 0C 1, specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 J kg 1) (viii) A calorimeter of mass 50 g and specific heat capacity 0.42 Jg 1 oC 1 contains some mass of water at 20oC. A metal piece of mass 20 g at 100oC is dropped into the calorimeter. After stirring, the final temperature of the mixture is found to be 22oC. Find the mass of water used in the calorimeter. (Specific heat capacity of the metal piece = 0.3 J g 1 oC 1, specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 Jg 1 oC 1) (ix) Heat energy is supplied at a constant rate to 100 g of ice at 00C. The ice is converted into water at 00C in 2 minutes. How much time will be required to raise the temperature of water from 00C to 200C? (x) 5 g of water, initially at 200C, is cooled and frozen into ice at 00C. How much total heat gets released in the process? __________________________________________________________________________________ Std: X Physics Must Know Questions Page 14 of 15 (xi) The graph represents a cooling curve for a substance being cooled from higher temperature to a lower temperature, Y 200 A Temp (0C) 150 B C D 100 E F 50 0 5 10 20 25 Time (s) 30 35 X a) What is the boiling point of the substance? b) What happens in the region DE? c) Why is region DE shorter than the region BC? __________________________________________________________________________________ Std: X Physics Must Know Questions Page 15 of 15

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